2024 - CQ Questions Flashcards
You are notified of smoke coming out of the aft galley oven, what immediate action and checklist do you call for?
Oxygen Masks & Regulators (if Required)… ON, 100%
Smoke Goggles (if required)… ON
Smoke, Fire or Fumes in passenger cabin or flight deck QRC
Level at FL240, you notice the stabilizer trim wheel moving continuously
At FL350, an intermittent warning horn sounds. What are the immediate action items? What checklist do you call for?
Oxygen Masks and Regulators… ON, 100%
Crew Communications… Establish
Cabin Altitude Warning or Rapid Depressurization Checklist
During departure you suspect the airspeed indications to be unreliable. What are the immediate action items? What checklist do you call for?
Autopilot (if engaged) … Disengage
Autothrottle (if engaged) … Disengage
F/D switches (both)… OFF
Set the following gear up pitch attitude and thrust:
Flaps Extended … 10 degrees and 80% N1
Flaps Up… 4 degrees and 75% N1
Takeoff and Landing Tailwind component
15 kts
Maximum operating altitude for takeoff and landing (ft)
8400 feet
Minimum takeoff and landing temperature
minus 54 degrees C
Operating Speeds: Maximum Operating Limit (AFM)
Observe Vmo/Mmo and Gear/Flap Placards
Severe Turbulence Penetration Target Speed
280 KIAS/ .76M* whichever is lower
With either one or both engine BLEED air switches ON, do not operate air condition in HIGH for ___________.
takeoff, approach or landing
The engine anti-ice system must be ON during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except __________.
during climb and cruise below -40 SAT
Engine anti-ice must be ON prior to and during descent ______________.
in all icing conditions, including temperatures below -40C SAT
[MAX] Engine anti-ice (EAI) must be __________ when not in actual or anticipated icing conditions.
turned off
What is the earliest you can engage autopilot on takeoff?
1000 ft AGL
When is the latest you would have to disengage the AP on a single channel approach?
50 ft AGL
When must the AP be disengaged on an HGS AIII approach?
500 ft AGL
Can you use aileron trim with the AP engaged?
prohibited
What is the minimum warm-up time for operating the engines?
3 minutes
What is the minimum cool-down time for shutting down the engines?
3 minutes
What is the Maximum Time Limit for Takeoff Thrust?
5 minutes*
*10 minutes allowed in the event of the loss of thrust on one engine during takeoff
What is the minimum engine oil temperature before setting takeoff thrust in the 737 MAX?
31C
When must the Engine Start switches be in the CONT position?
Takeoff, Landing, Anti-ice operation, Hail, Sleet, Moderate to heavy rain
When must the Engine Start switches be in the FLT position?
Operation in severe turbulence
Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is
prohibited
What is the maximum altitude to use the APU for a Bleed and Electric Load?
10,000 feet
What is the maximum altitude to use the APU for Bleed Only?
17,000 feet
What is the maximum altitude to use the APU for Electric Only?
41,000 ft
What is the Maximum Operating Altitude for the APU?
41,000 feet
Ensure APU BLEED air switch is closed for 2 minutes ________ and for 1 minute __________.
after start. … prior to shutdown
APU bleed valve may be open during engine start but avoid engine power _________.
above idle.
Except for engine start, the APU bleed valve must be closed when another source is pressurizing _________.
the left bleed air duct.
What is the maximum flap extension altitude?
20,000 ft
Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is ____________.
prohibited
Do not deploy speed brakes in flight _________.
below 1000 ft AGL
In flight, do not extend the SPEED BRAKE lever _____________.
beyond the FLIGHT DETENT.
Do not deploy the speed brakes with ____________.
more than Flaps 10 extended.
In the 700W/900ER, manually overriding the Load Alleviation System ______________.
not authorized.
What is the minimum fuel temperature?
-37C unless the actual fuel freeze point is known
Allowable lateral imbalance between Main Tanks 1 and 2 must be scheduled to be ___________.
zero.
Fuel imbalance must not exceed 1000 lbs for ________________.
must not exceed 1000 lbs for taxi, takeoff, flight or landing
Main Wing Tanks must be scheduled to be full if the Center Tank contains more than _______________.
1000 lbs.
For ground operation, Center Tank FUEL PUMP switches not be positioned to ON unless the Center Tank fuel quantity exceeds
1000 lbs, except when defueling or transferring fuel
Center Tank Fuel Pumps must not be ON unless personnel are available in the Flight Deck to monitor _____________.
LOW PRESSURE lights.
For ground and flight operations, the corresponding Center Tank Fuel Pump switch must be positioned to OFF when the ___________________.
LOW PRESSURE light illuminates.
If the Center Tank is empty position both Center Tank FUEL PUMP switches to ______.
OFF
Ground operation of electric hydraulic pump requires minimum _____________.
1675 lbs in respective fuel tank.
The STAB OUT OF TRIM (amber) light is armed when? ____________ illuminated when? _______________
The A/P is engaged. The A/P is not trimming the stabilizer properly.
If windshear is encountered during an ILS approach, what will the FD command?
Glideslope and LOC; no windshear guidance will be provided until TO/GA is pressed.
After the VOR/LOC and G/S are both captured, the APP mode can be exited by:
pushing the TO/GA switch, disengaging A/P and turning off both F/D switches, retuning a VHF NAV receiver
The bank angle selector (rotate) sets maximum bank angle for AFDS operation in what modes?
HDG SEL and VOR modes
The Speed Trim improves flight characteristics during manual flight operations at ____,____,____, and _____.
Low Gross Weight, Low Airspeed, Aft CG, High Thrust
How many degrees of control wheel displacement initiates spoiler deflection?
When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately 10 degrees (1.6 units), spoiler deflection is initiated.
What happens when a FLT CONTROL switch is positioned to STBY RUD?
It activates the Standby Hydraulic System and opens the Standby Rudder Shutoff Valve (allowing Standby Hydraulic System pressure to the Standby Rudder PCU)
In the MAX, the rudder pressure will return to normal system operating pressure when:
An engine failure is detected or with both engine operating, airspeed is reduced below approx. 132 kts.
In the MAX, a SPOILERS (amber) Light, indicates the Spoiler Control Electronic Unit has discovered what?
A Spoiler System Fault
The STANDBY PWR OFF (amber) light when illuminated, indicates one or more of the following busses are unpowered: ________ or ________ or _________
AC Standby Bus
DC Standby Bus
Battery Bus
When does the BAT DISCHARGE light (amber) illuminate?
When excessive battery discharge is detected on the main battery or auxiliary battery
When will the Generator DRIVE (amber) light illuminate?
When there is an Engine shutdown, IDG failure, IDG disconnected by activation of the DISCONNECT switch, or IDG auto-decouple due to high oil temperature (182 C)
How long will two fully-charged batteries provide standby power?
Two fully charged batteries have sufficient capacity to provide standby power for a minimum of 60 minutes.
What does the BUS TRANSFER switch, in the AUTO (guarded) position, allow?
Allows for the BTBs to automatically maintain power to AC transfer busses from any operating generator or external power
The Center Switch on the EFIS control panel must be in which mode for the VSD to display?
MAP
The AOA Disagree Alert (amber) indicates the left and right AOA values disagree by more than _____ for more than _____ continuous seconds.
10 degrees, 10 seconds
When does the ALTITUDE DISAGREE (amber) alert appear?
When the CA and FO altitude indications disagree by more than 200 ft for more than 5 continuous seconds.
A vertical (amber) bar extending up from the top of the Minimum Speed Bar indicates what on the PFD?
Minimum maneuvering speed (Vmvr)
How is the HGS controlled on the MAX?
MCDU
The purpose of the PTU is to provide Hydraulic System B fluid at a flow rate of (approximately 6.5 GPM) and pressure sufficient to provide normal rates of operations for the _____ and _____ in the event of a Hydraulic system B EDP output pressure drops below a specified value.
Autoslats LEDs
When is the automatic operation for Standby Hydraulic System initiated?
When flaps are extended, airborne, or wheel speed greater than 60 kts, and loss of System A or B while FLT CONTROL switch positioned to ON - OR - the main PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips
What pressurizes both System A and System B hydraulic reservoirs?
Regulated Bleed Air
When do the letters RF (white) appear?
REFILL (RF) indication is displayed (white) when hydraulic quantity
is below 76%. Valid only when aircraft is on ground with both engines
shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in.
How do you display the Hydraulics in the MAX?
MFS SYS Button
The Alternate Brake System is power by _________.
Hydraulic System A
With RTO selected, if the takeoff is rejected prior to wheel speed
reaching 90 kts: _______ and ______.
autobraking is not initiated the RTO autobrake function remains armed
How is braking available if both Hydraulic Systems A and B are lost?
Trapped hydraulic pressure in the Brake Accumulator (Hydraulic
System B) can still provide several (6) brake applications or parking
brake application for eight hours.
In the MAX, what are the positions of the Landing Gear Lever?
Up, Down
What kind of brake discs does the MAX have?
Carbon
The DC Fail (amber) light, when illuminated, indicates _________.
DC power for the related IRS is not normal.
What are indications of a left FMC failure?
FMC alert light illuminates. The MENU page appears on both
CDUs. VTK appears on the left navigation display. LNAV and VNAV
will disengage, but can be reengaged if Autopilot B is in use or is
selected.
LNAV will engage when _______.
laterally positioned within 3nm of the active route leg.
In the MAX, the FMC Alert light includes which new indication?
Runway Disagree
In the MAX, what fuel indications are on the Fuel Progress Page 5/5?
- APU Fuel Used
- Totalizer <ACT></ACT>
- Calculated
