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Alaska Airlines B-737 OVERKILL > 2024 - CQ Questions > Flashcards

2024 - CQ Questions Flashcards

1
Q

You are notified of smoke coming out of the aft galley oven, what immediate action and checklist do you call for?

A

Oxygen Masks & Regulators (if Required)… ON, 100%

Smoke Goggles (if required)… ON

Smoke, Fire or Fumes in passenger cabin or flight deck QRC

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2
Q

Level at FL240, you notice the stabilizer trim wheel moving continuously

A
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3
Q

At FL350, an intermittent warning horn sounds. What are the immediate action items? What checklist do you call for?

A

Oxygen Masks and Regulators… ON, 100%
Crew Communications… Establish

Cabin Altitude Warning or Rapid Depressurization Checklist

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4
Q

During departure you suspect the airspeed indications to be unreliable. What are the immediate action items? What checklist do you call for?

A

Autopilot (if engaged) … Disengage
Autothrottle (if engaged) … Disengage
F/D switches (both)… OFF
Set the following gear up pitch attitude and thrust:
Flaps Extended … 10 degrees and 80% N1
Flaps Up… 4 degrees and 75% N1

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5
Q

Takeoff and Landing Tailwind component

A

15 kts

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6
Q

Maximum operating altitude for takeoff and landing (ft)

A

8400 feet

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7
Q

Minimum takeoff and landing temperature

A

minus 54 degrees C

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8
Q

Operating Speeds: Maximum Operating Limit (AFM)

A

Observe Vmo/Mmo and Gear/Flap Placards

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9
Q

Severe Turbulence Penetration Target Speed

A

280 KIAS/ .76M* whichever is lower

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10
Q

With either one or both engine BLEED air switches ON, do not operate air condition in HIGH for ___________.

A

takeoff, approach or landing

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11
Q

The engine anti-ice system must be ON during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except __________.

A

during climb and cruise below -40 SAT

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12
Q

Engine anti-ice must be ON prior to and during descent ______________.

A

in all icing conditions, including temperatures below -40C SAT

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13
Q

[MAX] Engine anti-ice (EAI) must be __________ when not in actual or anticipated icing conditions.

A

turned off

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14
Q

What is the earliest you can engage autopilot on takeoff?

A

1000 ft AGL

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15
Q

When is the latest you would have to disengage the AP on a single channel approach?

A

50 ft AGL

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16
Q

When must the AP be disengaged on an HGS AIII approach?

A

500 ft AGL

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17
Q

Can you use aileron trim with the AP engaged?

A

prohibited

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18
Q

What is the minimum warm-up time for operating the engines?

A

3 minutes

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19
Q

What is the minimum cool-down time for shutting down the engines?

A

3 minutes

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20
Q

What is the Maximum Time Limit for Takeoff Thrust?

A

5 minutes*

*10 minutes allowed in the event of the loss of thrust on one engine during takeoff

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21
Q

What is the minimum engine oil temperature before setting takeoff thrust in the 737 MAX?

A

31C

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22
Q

When must the Engine Start switches be in the CONT position?

A

Takeoff, Landing, Anti-ice operation, Hail, Sleet, Moderate to heavy rain

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23
Q

When must the Engine Start switches be in the FLT position?

A

Operation in severe turbulence

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24
Q

Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is

A

prohibited

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25
Q

What is the maximum altitude to use the APU for a Bleed and Electric Load?

A

10,000 feet

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26
Q

What is the maximum altitude to use the APU for Bleed Only?

A

17,000 feet

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27
Q

What is the maximum altitude to use the APU for Electric Only?

A

41,000 ft

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28
Q

What is the Maximum Operating Altitude for the APU?

A

41,000 feet

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29
Q

Ensure APU BLEED air switch is closed for 2 minutes ________ and for 1 minute __________.

A

after start. … prior to shutdown

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30
Q

APU bleed valve may be open during engine start but avoid engine power _________.

A

above idle.

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31
Q

Except for engine start, the APU bleed valve must be closed when another source is pressurizing _________.

A

the left bleed air duct.

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32
Q

What is the maximum flap extension altitude?

A

20,000 ft

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33
Q

Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is ____________.

A

prohibited

34
Q

Do not deploy speed brakes in flight _________.

A

below 1000 ft AGL

35
Q

In flight, do not extend the SPEED BRAKE lever _____________.

A

beyond the FLIGHT DETENT.

36
Q

Do not deploy the speed brakes with ____________.

A

more than Flaps 10 extended.

37
Q

In the 700W/900ER, manually overriding the Load Alleviation System ______________.

A

not authorized.

38
Q

What is the minimum fuel temperature?

A

-37C unless the actual fuel freeze point is known

39
Q

Allowable lateral imbalance between Main Tanks 1 and 2 must be scheduled to be ___________.

A

zero.

40
Q

Fuel imbalance must not exceed 1000 lbs for ________________.

A

must not exceed 1000 lbs for taxi, takeoff, flight or landing

41
Q

Main Wing Tanks must be scheduled to be full if the Center Tank contains more than _______________.

A

1000 lbs.

42
Q

For ground operation, Center Tank FUEL PUMP switches not be positioned to ON unless the Center Tank fuel quantity exceeds

A

1000 lbs, except when defueling or transferring fuel

43
Q

Center Tank Fuel Pumps must not be ON unless personnel are available in the Flight Deck to monitor _____________.

A

LOW PRESSURE lights.

44
Q

For ground and flight operations, the corresponding Center Tank Fuel Pump switch must be positioned to OFF when the ___________________.

A

LOW PRESSURE light illuminates.

45
Q

If the Center Tank is empty position both Center Tank FUEL PUMP switches to ______.

A

OFF

46
Q

Ground operation of electric hydraulic pump requires minimum _____________.

A

1675 lbs in respective fuel tank.

47
Q

The STAB OUT OF TRIM (amber) light is armed when? ____________ illuminated when? _______________

A

The A/P is engaged. The A/P is not trimming the stabilizer properly.

48
Q

If windshear is encountered during an ILS approach, what will the FD command?

A

Glideslope and LOC; no windshear guidance will be provided until TO/GA is pressed.

49
Q

After the VOR/LOC and G/S are both captured, the APP mode can be exited by:

A

pushing the TO/GA switch, disengaging A/P and turning off both F/D switches, retuning a VHF NAV receiver

50
Q

The bank angle selector (rotate) sets maximum bank angle for AFDS operation in what modes?

A

HDG SEL and VOR modes

51
Q

The Speed Trim improves flight characteristics during manual flight operations at ____,____,____, and _____.

A

Low Gross Weight, Low Airspeed, Aft CG, High Thrust

52
Q

How many degrees of control wheel displacement initiates spoiler deflection?

A

When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately 10 degrees (1.6 units), spoiler deflection is initiated.

53
Q

What happens when a FLT CONTROL switch is positioned to STBY RUD?

A

It activates the Standby Hydraulic System and opens the Standby Rudder Shutoff Valve (allowing Standby Hydraulic System pressure to the Standby Rudder PCU)

54
Q

In the MAX, the rudder pressure will return to normal system operating pressure when:

A

An engine failure is detected or with both engine operating, airspeed is reduced below approx. 132 kts.

55
Q

In the MAX, a SPOILERS (amber) Light, indicates the Spoiler Control Electronic Unit has discovered what?

A

A Spoiler System Fault

56
Q

The STANDBY PWR OFF (amber) light when illuminated, indicates one or more of the following busses are unpowered: ________ or ________ or _________

A

AC Standby Bus
DC Standby Bus
Battery Bus

57
Q

When does the BAT DISCHARGE light (amber) illuminate?

A

When excessive battery discharge is detected on the main battery or auxiliary battery

58
Q

When will the Generator DRIVE (amber) light illuminate?

A

When there is an Engine shutdown, IDG failure, IDG disconnected by activation of the DISCONNECT switch, or IDG auto-decouple due to high oil temperature (182 C)

59
Q

How long will two fully-charged batteries provide standby power?

A

Two fully charged batteries have sufficient capacity to provide standby power for a minimum of 60 minutes.

60
Q

What does the BUS TRANSFER switch, in the AUTO (guarded) position, allow?

A

Allows for the BTBs to automatically maintain power to AC transfer busses from any operating generator or external power

61
Q

The Center Switch on the EFIS control panel must be in which mode for the VSD to display?

A

MAP

62
Q

The AOA Disagree Alert (amber) indicates the left and right AOA values disagree by more than _____ for more than _____ continuous seconds.

A

10 degrees, 10 seconds

63
Q

When does the ALTITUDE DISAGREE (amber) alert appear?

A

When the CA and FO altitude indications disagree by more than 200 ft for more than 5 continuous seconds.

64
Q

A vertical (amber) bar extending up from the top of the Minimum Speed Bar indicates what on the PFD?

A

Minimum maneuvering speed (Vmvr)

65
Q

How is the HGS controlled on the MAX?

A

MCDU

66
Q

The purpose of the PTU is to provide Hydraulic System B fluid at a flow rate of (approximately 6.5 GPM) and pressure sufficient to provide normal rates of operations for the _____ and _____ in the event of a Hydraulic system B EDP output pressure drops below a specified value.

A

Autoslats LEDs

67
Q

When is the automatic operation for Standby Hydraulic System initiated?

A

When flaps are extended, airborne, or wheel speed greater than 60 kts, and loss of System A or B while FLT CONTROL switch positioned to ON - OR - the main PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips

68
Q

What pressurizes both System A and System B hydraulic reservoirs?

A

Regulated Bleed Air

69
Q

When do the letters RF (white) appear?

A

REFILL (RF) indication is displayed (white) when hydraulic quantity
is below 76%. Valid only when aircraft is on ground with both engines
shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in.

70
Q

How do you display the Hydraulics in the MAX?

A

MFS SYS Button

71
Q

The Alternate Brake System is power by _________.

A

Hydraulic System A

72
Q

With RTO selected, if the takeoff is rejected prior to wheel speed
reaching 90 kts: _______ and ______.

A

autobraking is not initiated the RTO autobrake function remains armed

73
Q

How is braking available if both Hydraulic Systems A and B are lost?

A

Trapped hydraulic pressure in the Brake Accumulator (Hydraulic
System B) can still provide several (6) brake applications or parking
brake application for eight hours.

74
Q

In the MAX, what are the positions of the Landing Gear Lever?

A

Up, Down

75
Q

What kind of brake discs does the MAX have?

A

Carbon

76
Q

The DC Fail (amber) light, when illuminated, indicates _________.

A

DC power for the related IRS is not normal.

77
Q

What are indications of a left FMC failure?

A

FMC alert light illuminates. The MENU page appears on both
CDUs. VTK appears on the left navigation display. LNAV and VNAV
will disengage, but can be reengaged if Autopilot B is in use or is
selected.

78
Q

LNAV will engage when _______.

A

laterally positioned within 3nm of the active route leg.

78
Q

In the MAX, the FMC Alert light includes which new indication?

A

Runway Disagree

79
Q

In the MAX, what fuel indications are on the Fuel Progress Page 5/5?

A
  1. APU Fuel Used
  2. Totalizer <ACT></ACT>
  3. Calculated
80
Q
A

Alaska Airlines B-737 OVERKILL (2 decks)

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