Mary Dulish Board Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 cardinal signs of intussusception?

A

Vomiting, Abdominal Pain, hematochezia, Palpable Mass

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2
Q

What are the components of an Intussusception?

A

Intussusceptum (inside)
Intussuscipiens (outside)

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3
Q

How do you reduce an intussusception?

A

Apply gentle pressure upon the intussuscipiens and traction upon the intussusceptum.

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4
Q

What is the most common site for intussusception in dog, cat, and children?

A

Dog: Iliocolic
Cat: Jejunal-jejunal
Children: Ileocecal

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5
Q

What dog breed is particularly predisposed to intussusception?

A

German Shepherd

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6
Q

How common are recurrences following surgical therapy of intussusception? Where do the normally occur?

A

According to Larose et all. VetSurg 2024 (Retrospective, n:153)
Median age: 10 months
Post-op complications: 34% (14% severe → Diarrhea, constipation, septic peritonitis)
Recurrence rate: 3%
14-day mortality: 6%

  1. Larose PC, Singh A, Giuffrida MA, et al. Clinical findings and outcomes of 153 dogs surgically treated for intestinal intussusceptions. Veterinary Surgery. 2020;49(5):870-878. doi:10.1111/vsu.13442
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7
Q

What are methods to decrease the recurrence of intestinal intussusception?

A

Enteroplication
Enteropexy

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8
Q

What is the most common cause of intussusception in cats?

A

Lymphoma

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9
Q

How many pairs of salivary glands in dogs?

A

4

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10
Q

Considering a sialocele involving the sublingual and mandibular glands, what are 3 ways the condition may clinically manifest?

A

Ranula (Sublingual)
Cervical
Pharyngeal

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11
Q

Three possible clinical presentations of a sialocele affect the mandibular and sublingual glands. How is each one treated?

A

Ranula (Sublingual) - Sialoadenectomy of mandibilar and sublingual +/- marsupialization
Cervical - Sialoadenectomy of mandibilar and sublingual
Pharyngeal - Sialoadenectomy of mandibular and sublingual

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12
Q

According to Poirier et all (JVIM 2018), what is the recurrence rate following surgical therapy of sialoceles in dogs?

A

5-14%
All treated dogs responded to radiation.
27% recurred within 12 months but were successfully re-treated.

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13
Q

In a cat with pleural effusion and no history of trauma, what are the 4 main rule-outs?

A

Pyothorax (purulent exudate)
Cardiac (transudate)
Chylothorax (Chile)
Neoplasia (Modified transudate)

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14
Q

You have a dog with hypercalcemia and high PTH, strongly suggesting primary hyperparathyroidism. During surgery you do not observe a parathyroid mass. What do you do? What is the main potential detrimental consequence of this decision?

A

IV New Methylene Blue
May cause Heinz Body Anemia

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15
Q

What factors determine knot security?

A

Two suture factors:
Suture material (affects Coefficient of friction)
Suture size (also affects Coefficient of friction)

Two knot factors:
Knot configuration
Knot tension

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16
Q

You intubate a patient who has arrested, but you cannot inflate the lungs. Give 8 reasons why this may be occurring.

A

1) ET tube obstruction
2) Upper airway obstruction
3) Esophageal intubation
4) Severe lung hemorrhage
5) Severe atelectasis
6) Severe pulmonary edema
7) Pleural space disease (air, fluid, or mass)
8) Diaphragmatic hernia

17
Q

Describe and draw an in-circle vaporizer system

A

In the in-circle system, the anesthetic gas vaporizer is located in the inspiratory conduit and is part of the system. Gas exhaled though the expiratory limb passes through the expiratory valve and works upon a breathing bag and pressure-relief valve connected to the circuit. Expired air then passes through a CO2 absorber and receives gas before passing through the vaporizer and entering the inspiratory limb again.

18
Q

Describe and draw an out-of-circle vaporizer system

A
19
Q

Name 4 advantages of a closed-circle anesthetic system

A

1) Economy of anesthetic consumption.
2) Warming and humidification of the inspired gases.
3) Reduced atmospheric pollution.
4) More efficient use of soda lime than in Waters’ canister.

20
Q

Name 5 disadvantages of a closed-circle anesthetic system

A

1) Expensive and rather bulky.
2) Unstable if used closed.
3) Slow changes in the inspired anesthetic concentration with low flows and out-of-circuit vaporizers.
4) The soda-lime and valves in the system increase resistance to breathing.
5) Inhalation of soda-lime dust.

21
Q

From a ventilatory perspective, what is the main disadvantage of a non-rebreathing anesthetic system like the Bain or Ayres models? What needs to be done to circumvent this deficiency partially and what is the consequence of not knowing about this fact?

A

Non-rebreathing systems do not have check valves so that the patient may re-breath exhaled gas from the outer corrugated tube. This is avoided by keeping a sufficiently high gas flow through the system. Low flow may lead to excessive CO2 rebreathing and respiratory acidosis.

22
Q

Draw and describe an in-circle vaporizer

A

Total fresh gas flow (FGF) enters and splits into carrier gas (much less than 20%, which becomes enriched- saturated, actually- with vapor) and bypass gas (more than 80%). These two flows rejoin at the vaporizer outlet. The splitting ratio of these two flows depends on the ratio of resistances to their flow, which is controlled by the concentration control dial, and the automatic temperature compensation valve.

23
Q

List 4 methods to decompress a GVD patient

A

Orogastric tube
Right (typical) abdominal trocharization
Temporary right paracostal gastrostomy
Definitive surgery

24
Q

Name 3 ways to convert a patient in ventricular tachycardia and stabilize the heart

A

1) Electrical defibrillation (only for pulseless V-tach)
2) For V-tach with pulses: Lidocaine 2-4 mg/kg bolus followed by 40-60 ug/kg/min OR Procainamide
3) For V-tach with pulses if lidocaine fails: Mexiletine or Quinidine

25
Q

Simple rule to estimate prognosis with Salter-Haris system

A

The higher the number, the worse the prognosis.

26
Q

What is the difference between epiphysis and apophysis?

A

Epiphysis: The extremities of long bones, separated from the diaphyses by the physis.

Apophysis: Bone process or outgrowth with its own ossification center. Typically an origin or insertion for tendons and ligaments.

27
Q

Name 5 apophysis

A

Acromion for the scapula
Olecranon
Tuber Ischii
Great trochanter
Calcanous

28
Q
A