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1
Q

Doc for invasive aspergillosis

A

Voriconazol

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2
Q

Presentations of aspergillus infections

A

Invasive aspergillosis
Allergic bronchopulm asper.
Otomycosis
Mycotic keratitis

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3
Q

Aseptate molds

A

Rhizopus mucor luchtheimia

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4
Q

Aseptate molds

A

Rhizopus mucor luchtheimia

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5
Q

Septate molds

A

Penicillium dermatophytes aspergillus fusarium

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6
Q

Septate molds

A

Penicillium dermatophytes aspergillus fusarium

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7
Q

Dichotomous branching at acute angle seen in
Filaments stained by

A

Aspergillus
PAS

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8
Q

Exists as trophocyte form with clear cytoplasm
Outer Chitinus and inner cellulose layer

A

Rhinosporidium seeberi

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9
Q

zika virus fatality rate

A

8%

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10
Q

zika virus transmission by(4)

A

ades
verticle
sexual
blood transfusion

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11
Q

petecheal rash or maculopapular rash seen in

A

petecheal in dengue
maculopapular in zika

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12
Q

complications of zika (2)

A

gbs
fetal microcephaly
fever with arthralgia
conjunctivitis

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13
Q

novobiocin sensitive CONS

A

staph saphrophyticus
staph xylosus

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14
Q

bets diagnostic test for uti

A

pour plate culture

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15
Q

screening test for uti

A

1 griess (nitrate reduction ) test
2 leucocyte esterase test
3 nitrate reduction test
4 catalase test

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16
Q

quantitative test for uti

A

1 pour olate method
2 standardized loop technique

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17
Q

toxoplasma definitive host
which cycle
what types

A

cat
enteric cycle
both schizogony and gametogony

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18
Q

exoenteric cycle of toxoplasma occurs in

A

intermediate hosts mammals
humans

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19
Q

bias due to case being attentive

A

hawthorne

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20
Q

bias seen in cc/rct/cohort

A

selection

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21
Q

bias due to selection from hospitals

A

berkensonian

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22
Q

bias due to preference of researcher

A

pygmalion

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23
Q

known confounders can be removed by

A

matching
blinding
standardized randomization

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24
Q

unknown confounders removed by

A

randomization
blinding

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25
Q

matching removes what

A

known confounder

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26
Q

selection bias removed by

A

randomization
blinding

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27
Q

ppv formula

A

a\a+b

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28
Q

npv formula

A

d/c+d

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29
Q

cer formula

A

c/c+d

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30
Q

eer formula

A

a/a+b in outcome vs treatment(vertical)

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31
Q

absolute risk reduction formula

A

cer-eer

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32
Q

nnt formula

A

1/arr

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33
Q

GB cancer above muscle layer stage and mx

A

T1a
simple cholecystectomy

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34
Q

GB cancer below muscle layer stage and mx

A

T1b
radical cholecystectomy fb gemcitabine

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35
Q

GB cancer stage T2 T3 T4 mx

A

T2 radical cholecystectomy fb gemcitabine
T3/T4 gemcitabine fb sx if good response and palliative in bad response

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36
Q

paradoxical Carrier is

A

Carrier that acquires infection from another carrier

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37
Q

Incubatory carrier

A

Carriers that shed infections in incubation.

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38
Q

Convalescent carrier

A

Carriers that shed infections in convalescent phase

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39
Q

Healthy carriers

A

Carriers that do not suffer from disease

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40
Q

Incubation period Multiple exposures

A

Multiple incubation periods

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41
Q

Pivotal studies are which phase of drug trial

A

Phase 3
Establish treatment benefits

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42
Q

How to differentiate between propagated and common Source exposure

A

Common source less duration propagated Person to person prolonged duration

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43
Q

Preclinical trials conducted on

A

Animals
Does not require Good clinical practise

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44
Q

Primary endpoint and secondary endpoint in Drug trials Denotes what

A

Primary endpoint denotes purpose and secondary endpoint denotes outcome

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45
Q

Confirmation of effectiveness and monitoring of adverse effects in which phase of Drug trial

A

Phase 3

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46
Q

Guidelines for therapeutic use are formulated in which phase of drug trial

A

Phase 3

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47
Q

File drawer effect seen in
due to

A

Meta analysis
due to Publication bias Due to Suppression of important information

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48
Q

Apple and oranges effect seen in
due to

A

Seen in meta analysis
due to selection bias

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49
Q

Validity of meta analysis is dependent on

A

Quality of systemic review and original data

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50
Q

only cestode with operculated ess

A

D. latum

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51
Q

infection + megaloblastic anemia

A

D. latum

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52
Q

only cestode with 2 IH

A

D. latum
cyclops and fish

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53
Q

fish tape worm

A

D. latum

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54
Q

DH of D. latum

A

humans

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55
Q

ileum infestation by which worms

A

D. latum

56
Q

B12 deficiency by which worm

A

D. latum

57
Q

diarrhea dermatitis dementia appendicial mass

A

carcinoid synd niacin deficiency

58
Q

depression dvt diabetes dermatitis pancreatic mass

A

glucaganoma

59
Q

diarrhea dermatitis dementia alopecia hypogonadism

A

zn deficiency acrodermatitis enteropathica

60
Q

necrotizing migratory erythema seen in

A

dm

61
Q

serotonin derived from

A

tryptophan

62
Q

niacin derived fron

A

tryptophan

63
Q

mcc of maternal mortality in india

A

hemorrhage sepsis obstruction hypertensive

64
Q

mmp calculated till when after top

A

42 days

65
Q

mmr multiplied by what

A

1,00,000

66
Q

indicator to measure overall burden of disease

A

DALY

67
Q

both mortality and disability is measured by which indicator

A

DALY

68
Q

indicator for cost effectiveness of intervention

A

QALY

69
Q

indicators used to compare living standard in diff countries

A

HDI

70
Q

cyclophosphamide derivative causing bladder ca

A

phosphoramide mustard

71
Q

live vaccines are not given in

A

radiation therapy
pregnancy

72
Q

vaccine not given in symptomatic hiv pt

A

BCG

73
Q

vaccine not given in evolving neuro symptoms

A

pertussis containing vaccines

74
Q

vaccines not given in egg allergy

A

influenza
yf

75
Q

which among opv and ipv are killed and live`

A

opv sabin is live
ipv salk is killed

76
Q

rabies is killed or live

A

killed

77
Q

polysaccharide vaccines

A

typhoid(vi)
S
H
I
N

78
Q

npv ppv are dependent on what of disease

A

prevelance

79
Q

accuracy/validity of screening test depends on

A

sensitivity specificity predictive values

80
Q

pretest probablity by

A

prevelance

81
Q

diagnostic power of screening test by

A

ppv

82
Q

true negative rate by

A

specificity

83
Q

ability to correctly identify those without disease

A

specificity

84
Q

consistent results of test when repeated indicates

A

reliability

85
Q

ppv is proportional to what

A

prevelance

86
Q

ZP is lost on

A

5th day

87
Q

implantation window

A

6th to 10th days

88
Q

implantation ends

A

11th day

89
Q

acc to acog top normally done by

A

after or at 41 weeks

90
Q

Pre-term pregnancy

A

37 weeks

91
Q

Early-term pregnancy

A

37-38+6

92
Q

Full-term pregnancy

A

39 - 40+6

93
Q

Late-term pregnancy

A

41-41+6

94
Q

Post-term pregnancy

A

> =42

95
Q

gtpal method p is?

A

preterm

96
Q

abortion before?

A

20 weeks

97
Q

grand multi said when

A

4 or more previous

98
Q

multi para said when

A

2 or more previous

99
Q

viability period in india

A

28 weks

100
Q

frozen cycle formula

A

D3 transfer edd= lmp+263

101
Q

Rhythmic uterine contraction seen in which sign

A

palmer sign

102
Q

uterus reaches At the level of umbilicus at

A

22 weeks

103
Q

uterus after delivey reduces when
how much

A

24 hrs after D2
1 fingerbreadth/day

104
Q

welcome sign aka

A

lightening sign

105
Q

fetal skull on x ray (c/i) seen at

A

16 weeks

106
Q

what is decidua vera

A

decidua capsularis+parietalis

107
Q

when is decidua vera fused

A

14 to 16 weeks

108
Q

in pih height of uterus is less than or more than pog

A

less than

109
Q

in molar pregnancy height of uterus is less than or more than pog

A

more than pog

110
Q

which umbilical vessel degenerates

A

ruv degerates

111
Q

Drug used to treat polyhydramnios

A

indonethacin

112
Q

in abortion mc group of cause

A

endocrinopathies >

113
Q

smallest diameter pelvis

A

bispinous/ischeal

114
Q

Area b/w plane of greatest
dimension & least dimension.

A

midpelvis

115
Q

contracted pelvis management

A

c section

116
Q

formula for obstetric conjugate

A

diagonal- (1.5-2)

117
Q

angle of inclination

A

55
inlet makes with floor

118
Q

heart shaped pelvis

A

android

119
Q

ap>tr in

A

anthropoid

120
Q

quickening at?

A

primi 18-20
multi 16-18

121
Q

growth scan done at

A

32-34 wks

122
Q

placental localization at

A

third trimester

123
Q

viability scan /dating done at

A

6-8 wks

124
Q

nuchal translucency at

A

11-13

125
Q

anomaly scan target scan at

A

18-20 wks till22

126
Q

fetal echo done at
for

A

22-24 wks
for cvs anomalies=rubella ttts pre gestational dm

127
Q

crl can be done till
till
most accurate at

A

11 wks +6 days
<84 mm
7-9 wks

128
Q

Single best USG parameter for fetal growth

A

abdominal circumference

129
Q

abdominal circumference for macrosomia

A

> 35cm

130
Q

can vbac be done in macrosomic patient with previous h/o c section

A

relative c/i

131
Q

min level of hcg at which gestational sac can be seen

A

1000

132
Q

cut of ot crl for cardiac activity

A

7mm

133
Q

ablighted ovum/missed abortion/anembryonic pregnancy loss seen when crl and mean sac diameter

A

crl _nt
msd >=25

134
Q

Best biochemical marker in NTD

A

acetyl choline esterase

135
Q

Brain tissue exposed sign is
seen in

A

shower cap sign
anencephaly

136
Q
A

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