Markets & Market Failure - Year 1 Microeconomics Flashcards

1
Q

term

A

definition

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2
Q

What are the advantages to information provision?

A

• Helps consumers act more rationally, causing market to work in favour society• Improved decision-making in markets• Can incentivise firms to produce, stimulating growth• Public health and safety (ie. effects of smoking)• Empowerment of consumers as there is less information asymmetry between parties

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3
Q

What are the three major assumptions made in all (free-market) economic models?

A
  1. Rational Decision-Making by Consumers: Assumes that consumers make choices that maximise their utility or satisfaction.2. Rational Decision-Making by Producers: Assumes that producers aim to maximise their profits.3. Rational Decision-Making by Government: Assumes that the govenment seeks to maximise social welfare.
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4
Q

Define opportunity cost.

A

Opportunity cost refers to the value of the next best alternative forgone when a choice is made.

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5
Q

Why may consumers not behave rationally?

A

Consumers may not behave rationally due to factors like limited information, cognitive biases, emotional influences, time constraints, social pressures, and individual preferences

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6
Q

What are the four functions of money?

A

• Medium of Exchange: Money serves as a widely accepted means of payment, facilitating transactions by acting as a medium for exchanging goods and services.• Measure of Value: Money provides a standardized measure of the worth or value of goods, services, and assets, allowing for comparisons and pricing.• Store of Value: Money allows individuals to store and preserve wealth over time, maintaining its value for future use and preventing loss of purchasing power.• Standard of Deferred Payment: Money serves as a reference point for settling debts and fulfilling financial obligations at a later time, establishing a standard for credit transactions and contractual agreements.

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7
Q

Why is there a positive association between price and quantity supplied?

A

The law of supply states that higher prices encourage production, leading to a higher quantity supplied, while lower prices disincentivize production, resulting in a lower quantity supplied.

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8
Q

Define price elasticity of supply.

A

Price elasticity of supply is defined as the responsivess of quantity supplied following a change in price.PED = (Δ%Qs)/(Δ%P)

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9
Q

Why is supply price inelastic in the short run?

A

Supply price is inelastic in the short run due to limited production capacity and constraints in adjusting inputs promptly.

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10
Q

Provide an example of a good with a relatively elastic supply, and a good with a relatively inelastic supply.

A

• Elastic: Sports car• Inelastic: Housing in UK

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11
Q

Two goods have a positive cross elasticity of demand, this means that they are…

A

Substitutes - a rise in price of good A leads to an increase in demand for good B)

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12
Q

Explain the difference between partial and complete market failure.

A

Partial market failure occurs when the forces of supply and demand fail to efficicently allocate resources, while complete market failure refers to the total absence of goods or services provision by markets.

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13
Q

Define social costs and benefits (MSC / MSB)

A

Social costs (MSC) refer to the total expenses or negative consequences borne by society as a whole due to an economic activity, including both private costs and external costs. MSC = MPC + MEC.Social benefits (MSB) are the overall advantages or positive outcomes received by society as a whole from an economic activity. MSB = MPB + MEB.

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14
Q

What does it mean to internalise an externality?

A

To ensure that the costs or benefits associated with an economic activity are accounted for by the parties involved in the transaction, rather than being externalized towards society.

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15
Q

Define demerit good with an example.

A

Demerit goods are goods or services that provide negative externalities of consumption (external costs to society, leading to social welfare loss), and are typically overprovided by the market, such as alcohol, which can lead to health issues, addiction, and social problems.

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16
Q

What is meant by the ‘free rider problem’?

A

Where individuals benefit from a public good without contributing to its production or funding, taking advantage of the fact that the consumption of the good cannot be restricted.

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17
Q

Why do ad valorem supply curves diverge from the original supply curve?

A

Tax imposed as a percentage of the product’s price increases the cost of production for suppliers, leading to a higher price required for suppliers to be willing to produce the same quantity, resulting in a diverging shift of the supply curve.

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18
Q

Explain the concept of tradable pollution permits.

A

Tradable pollution permits are market-based instruments that set a limit on pollution and allow entities to buy, sell, or trade permits, incentivising pollution reduction and the efficient allocation of emissions.

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19
Q

What are the disadvantages to state provision of public goods?

A

• Free-rider problem• Potential inefficiencies may arise as there is a lack of innovation and competition• Risk of monopoly power

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20
Q

Define government failure.

A

When the costs of government intervention outweigh the benefits intended by the action, can lead to a misallocation of scarce resources.

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21
Q

Define normative statement.

A

Subjective statements that contain value judgement, and can not be tested by empirical means.Eg. The government should increase minimum wage to improve the standard of living.

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22
Q

Define value judgement.

A

This type of judgement cannot be tested. This judgement is based off that person’s opinion or values.

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23
Q

Define positive statement.

A

Objective statements that can be tested by emprical means.Eg. The current unemployment rate is 5%

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24
Q

Explain what is meant by the ‘basic economic problem’.

A

The basic economic problem states that there are infinite wants in society, but only a small and finite amount of scarce resources are available to satisfy those wants.

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25
Q

Define ceteris paribus.

A

Assuming all other variables are equal. This helps economic assumptions as unlike hypothesis tests in natural sciences, it isn’t possible to keep an invariant control variable.

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26
Q

State the four factors of production.

A

• Land: Natural resources used in the production of goods and services• Labour: Effort exerted by individuals in the production process, including the skills, abilities, and time they contribute• Capital: Goods that have the potential to generate additional goods or contribute to the production process, eg. machinery• Enterprise: Risk-taking abilities of individuals who manage business ventures and drive economic productivity.

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27
Q

What is the difference between the long-run and the short-run in economics?

A

The short run refers to a period of time during which at least one factor of production is fixed, while the long run represents a timeframe in which all of the factors of production can be adjusted or varied.

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28
Q

What are the drawbacks to the three major assumptions made about consumers, producers and the government?

A

They include unrealistic assumptions, information limitations, behavioral biases, external factors, and the dynamic nature of real-world conditions - such as • Behavioural biases in consumer behaviour• Non-profit and charitable organisations.• Corrupted governments and politicians.

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29
Q

Explain the difference in economic ideologies between Adam Smith, Karl Marx and Friedrich Hayek regarding the efficient allocation of scarce resources.

A

Adam Smith advocated for free markets and the invisible hand, Marx supported central planning and collective ownership, while Hayek emphasized decentralized decision-making and market competition as means to efficiently allocate scarce resources.

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30
Q

What economic concepts does the Production Possibilities Frontier display?

A

• Opportunity cost: Favouring the production of one good has an opportunity cost of not being able to produce as much of another good• Scarcity: Downward slope of the PPF, indicating limited resources compared to the potential production of goods or services, necessitating trade-offs in resource allocation.• Allocative efficiency

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31
Q

Why is it not possible to produce beyond the PPF curve?

A

The PPF represents the maximum potential output given the available resources, technology, and production efficiency, indicating the limits a firm, or economy’s maximum productive capacity

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32
Q

How is it possible to shift a PPF curve outwards?

A

Advancements in technology, increase in availability of resources, increased investment into capital goods.

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33
Q

What is a command economy, provide one advantage and disadvantage.

A

A command economy is an economic system in which the government owns all of the factors of production.• Advantage: Maximum welfare, low unemployment and minimal income inequality• Disadvantage: Lack of innovation, risk-taking and efficiency (no incentive for profits)

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34
Q

What is a free-market economy, provide one advantage and disadvantage.

A

A free-market economic is an economic system in which there is no government intervention in the production of goods and services, allowing only the forces of supply and demand to allocate resources.• Advantage: Greater allocative efficiency since firmshave the incentive to produce goods in the most efficient way• Disadvantage: Monopolies may emerge as a result of no government intervention

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35
Q

What is meant by specialisation and division of labour?

A

Specialization refers to the focus of individuals, firms, or regions on specific tasks while division of labor involves breaking down the production process into separate tasks performed by different individuals to increase efficiency and productivity.

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36
Q

Who founded the idea of the specialisation and division of labour?

A

Adam Smith founded the ideology of specialisation and division of labour.

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37
Q

Provide two advantages and two disadvantages to the specialisation and division of labour.

A

• Advantage: Lower unit costs as workers become more skilled at their jobs –> Internal economies of scale• Advantage: Increased efficiency and greater productivity• Disadvantage: Boredem due to repetitiveness can cause a decline in productivity• Disadvantage: Dependency on others areas of production - if one part of process is disrupted, this can lead to a fail in the supply chain.

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38
Q

Define market demand.

A

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing and able to purchase at a given price level.

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39
Q

Explain what is meant by the law of diminishing marginal utility.

A

The law of diminishing marginal utility states that as the consumption of a good or service increases, the additional satisfaction or benefit derived from each additional unit gradually decreases.

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40
Q

Explain what is meant by a derived demand, with an example?

A

Derived demand refers to the demand for a good or service that arises from the demand for another good or service, typically linked in the production process or as complementary goods.Eg. Steel demand in the construction industry is derived from the demand for new buildings and infrastructure projects

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41
Q

Explain what is meant by a composite demand, with an example?

A

Composite demand refers to a situation where a good or resource is demanded for multiple uses or purposes, making it challenging to allocate resources effectively between different uses. Eg. Sugar is demanded by both the food industry, and the beverage industry.

42
Q

What are the shifters of demand?

A

• Population: Higher population, moredemand• Incomes: Higher incomes, more demand• Related goods: Price of compliments and substitutes• Advertisements: Increase in brand loyalty, more demand• Tastes: If preferences shift toward product, more demand• Expectation: Speculation on future price changes• Season: Dependent on time of year

43
Q

Why is there an inverse association between price and quantity demanded?

A

The law of demand states that higher prices discourage consumption, leading to a lower quantity demanded, while lower prices incentivize consumption, resulting in a higher quantity demanded.

44
Q

Outline three factors that affect the price elasticity of demand.

A

• Availability of susbsititutes: Lots of substitutes = Elastic demand• Percentage of income spent on good: Large proportion = Elastic, Small proportion = Inelastic• Necessity: Addictive = Highly inelastic

45
Q

Define price elasticity of demand.

A

Price elasticity of supply is defined as the responsivess of quantity demanded following a change in price.PED = (Δ%Qd)/(Δ%P)

46
Q

What is the impact on total revenue if the price of a good who’s PED is inelastic is increased?

A

Total revenue will increase, as the decrease in quantity demanded is proportionately smaller than the increase in price.

47
Q

What is the impact on total revenue if the price of a good who’s PED is elastic is increased?

A

Total revenue will decrease, as the decrease in quantity demanded is proportionately larger than the increase in price.

48
Q

Provide an example of a good with a relatively elastic demand, and a good with a relatively inelastic demand.

A

• Elastic: Clothing• Inelastic: Petrol

49
Q

Define market supply.

A

The quantity of a good or service that suppliers are willing and able to produce at a given price level.

50
Q

What are the shifters of supply

A

• Productivity: Higher productivity, more supply• Indirect taxes: More taxes = Lower costs of production, more supply• Number of firms in industry: More firms, more supply• Technological advancements: Better technology, more supply• Subsidies: More subsidies, more supply• Weather: (only applicable for agriculture and housing industry). Better weather = more supply• Costs of production: Lower costs of production = more supply

51
Q

Explain what is meant by a joint supply?

A

Joint supply refers to a situation in which the production of one good results in the simultaneous production or availability of another good as a byproduct

52
Q

Outline three factors that affect the price elasticity of supply.

A

• Availability of resources: Greater availability, more elastic• Production time lag: Low time lag, more elastic• Mobility of factors of production: More mobile factors, more elastic

53
Q

Define income elasticity of demand.

A

The responsiveness of demand to a change in income.YED = (Δ%Qd)/(Δ%Y)

54
Q

What is a normal good, and why is their income elasticity of demand positive?

A

A normal good is a good whose demand increases as incomes rise. This means their YED = +/+ = Positive.

55
Q

Provide an example of a normal good.

A

Clothing.

56
Q

What is a luxury good?

A

A good which is not essential for survival, such as a sports car, and its YED > 1.

57
Q

Provide an example of an inferior good.

A

Off-brand food products.

58
Q

What is an inferior good, and why is their income elasticity of demand negative?

A

An inferior good is a good whose demand falls as incomes rise. This means their YED = -/+ = Negative.

59
Q

Define cross elasticity of demand.

A

The responsiveness in the quantity demanded of good A following a change in price of good BXED = (Δ%Qd(A))/(Δ%P(B))

60
Q

Two goods have a negative cross elasticity of demand, this means that they are…

A

Complements - a rise in price of good A leads to a decrease in demand for good B)

61
Q

Explain Adam Smith’s theory of the invisible hand.

A

Describes the unseen forces of self-interest that impact the free market for the most optimal level of resource allocation.

62
Q

Explain the functions of the free-market price mechanism.

A
  1. Signals to producers that prices are too high/low22. Incentivises producers to increase/decrease prices3. Rations excess supply and demand4. Allocation of scarce resources
63
Q

Explain how the price mechanism reduces excess demand.

A
  1. Excess queueing, waiting lists and competition between buyers to purchase good (Signal is sent to producers that prices are too low)2. Higher price and make more revenue and profit (Incentive sent to producers)3. Extension in supply, contraction in demand - market has re-established equilibrium (Excess demand is rationed away)4. Resources reallocated at the free-market equilibrium, where there is no excess supply or demand.
64
Q

Explain how the price mechanism reduces excess supply.

A
  1. Excess unsold stocks on shelves (Signal is sent to producers that prices are too high)2. Lower price and make more revenue and profit (Incentive sent to producers)3. Contraction in supply, extension in demand - market has re-established equilibrium (Excess supply is rationed between consumers)4. Resources reallocated at the free-market equilibrium, where there is no excess supply or demand.
65
Q

Define consumer surplus.

A

The difference between the price that consumers are willing and able to pay, and the price they actually pay.

66
Q

Define producer surplus.

A

The difference between the price at which producers are willing and able to sell a good or service and the price they actually receive.

67
Q

Define externality.

A

An externality occurs when the production or consumption of a good or service has unintended consequences on a third party for which no compensation or payment is made in the market

68
Q

Define external costs and benefits. (MEC / MEB)

A

External costs (MEC) are negative consequences or expenses imposed on society due to an economic activity, with the responsible party not bearing the full cost. External benefits (MEB) are positive effects or advantages experienced by others or society from an economic activity, with the responsible party not providing the full benefit.

69
Q

Define private costs and benefits (MPC / MPB)

A

Private costs (MPC) are the expenses that a person or firm pays in order to buy, or produce goods and servicesPrivate benefits (MPB) are the benefit derived by an individual or firm directly involved in a transaction as either buyer or seller

70
Q

Define merit good with an example.

A

Merit goods are goods or services that provide positive externalities of consumption (external benefits to society, leading to social welfare gain), and are often underprovided by the free-market, such as the National Health Service (NHS) in the UK, which provides essential healthcare services to the population.

71
Q

Why is the social-optimal level of output not equal to the free-market equilibrium for all merit and demerit goods and services?

A

The free-market does not consider the full social costs or benefits of merit and demerit goods. Positive externalities of merit goods are underproduced due to undervaluation, while negative externalities of demerit goods result in overproduction. Government intervention is necessary to align market outcomes with the socially optimal level of output.

72
Q

What is the triangle of deadweight loss / net social welfare loss?

A

The triangle of net social welfare loss represents the inefficiency and loss of overall societal welfare when the quantity of a good or service produced and consumed deviates from the socially optimal level due to externalities.

73
Q

Which direction does the triangle of net social welfare loss point towards.

A

The social optimum level of output, where MSC = MSB.

74
Q

Define public good with an example.

A

A public good is a good or service that is non-excludable and non-rivalrous, meaning that its use by one individual does not diminish its availability to others. An example of a public good is street lighting, as it benefits the entire community and cannot be easily restricted or used up by one person’s consumption.

75
Q

Define quasi-public good.

A

A good or service that possesses characteristics of both public and private goods, exhibiting partial rivalry or partial excludability.

76
Q

Define information failure.

A

Where one, or both parties of a transaction possesses incomplete, inaccurate, or asymmetric information, leading to suboptimal decision-making and market inefficiencies.

77
Q

What is meant by asymmetric information.

A

Where one party in an economic transaction has more information or knowledge than the other party, creating an imbalance in the information available.

78
Q

Define government intervention.

A

Government intervention refers to the actions taken by the government to regulate economic activities in order to correct market failures

79
Q

Define indirect tax.

A

A tax levied on spending rather than directly on income, profit or commission, typically imposed at the point of production, sale, or consumption

80
Q

What is the difference between ad valorem and excise duty, give 3 examples of each.

A

An Ad valorem tax is a tax levied as a percentage of the price of the good or service, while excise duty is a set amount of tax imposed on goods and services.

81
Q

What are the advantages to indirect tax intervention?

A

• Generates fiscal dividends for the government which can be reinvested into public infrastructure and development• Market failure corrected as the external cost of negative externalities is internalised• Behaviour changes can be made if indirect taxes are imposed, discourage consumption of demerit goods.

82
Q

What are the disadvantages to indirect tax intervention?

A

• Regressive impact on those on lower incomes• May encourage black-market activity• Can cause cost-push inflation

83
Q

Why are indirect taxes considered to be regressive?

A

They tend to impose a proportionately higher burden on lower-income individuals or households compared to higher-income individuals, as the tax burden represents a larger share of their income.

84
Q

How do you determine the distribution of tax burden between consumers and producers on a supply and demand analysis?

A

Top rectangle represents incidence of indirext taxation on consumers. If demand is inelastic, burden of tax will fall mainly on consumers.Bottom rectangle represents incidence of indirext taxation on producers. If demand is elastic, burden of tax will fall mainly on producers.

85
Q

Evaluative statements for effectiveness of indirect tax intervention.

A

• Magnitude of the tax (hard to determine)• Price elasticity of demand/supply• Workers may lose their jobs, firms may shut down or migrate to a different nation• Consumers may switch to untaxed substitutes• Black markets can reduce the total tax revenue

86
Q

Define subsidy.

A

A government grant to firms producing merit goods, which aims to reduce production costs and encourages an increase in output.

87
Q

What are the advantages to subsidy intervention?

A

• Market failure corrected, level of production increased to match social optimum.• Can incentivise research and development• Has the potential to create job opportunities

88
Q

What are the disadvantages to subsidy intervention?

A

• Can pose as a budgetary burden on the government• Firms may become overly dependent on the subsidy• Can discourage innovation and efficiency

89
Q

How do you determine the distribution of subsidy benefit between consumers and producers on a supply and demand analysis?

A

Top rectangle represents benefit of subsidy on producers. If demand is inelastic, benefit of subsidy will fall mainly on consumers.Bottom rectangle represents benefits of subsidy on consumers. If demand is elastic, benefit of subsidy will fall mainly on producers.

90
Q

Evaluative statements for effectiveness of subsidy intervention.

A

• Magnitude of the subsidy (hard to determine)• Price elasticity of demand/supply• Opportunity cost - can the money be better used elsewhere• Dependence/reliance on subsidy• Producers may not pass down the benefit of the subsidy

91
Q

What are the advantages to tradable pollution permits?

A

• Government gains revenue from selling permits and fining firms who exceed their pollution quotas• Incentivises investment into greener technology (economic sustainability)• Guaranteed that pollution will fall because supply of limits is perfectly inelastic

92
Q

What are the disadvantages to tradable pollution permits?

A

• Can be costly to monitor (government failure if costs are greater than benefits)• Difficult to determine how many tradable permits should be sold• Raises costs for firms, causing higher prices for consumers

93
Q

What are the advantages to maximum and minimum prices?

A

• Protects markets from externalities • Maximum prices can protect consumers from price exploitation by ensuring that essential goods remain affordable• Minimum prices ensure that producers receive a fair return on their investments• Reduced market price volatility

94
Q

What are the disadvantages to maximum and minimum prices?

A

• Distortion to price signals and causes excess supply or excess demand• Difficult to determine where to set prices• Can lead to the creation of black markets

95
Q

What are the advantages to market regulation?

A

• Consumer protection from exploitation and fraud• Regulation policy prevents monopolistic competition• Can achieve public interest and social objectives by addressing externalitise and other sources of market failure

96
Q

What are the disadvantages to market regulation?

A

• Monitoring firms for the compliance of passed regulation and laws can be costly - fiscal opportunity cost• Excessive regulation can reduce competition and allocative efficiency in markets by increasing bureaucracy and reducing innovation• Costs may be passed onto consumers in the form of higher prices

97
Q

What are the advantages to state provision of public goods?

A

• Market failures such as non-excludability and non-rivalry corrected as the free-market is not willing to provide public goods• Reduces inequality and improves standards of living• Ensures the stability and security of a nation (ie. nuclear defense system)

98
Q

What are the disadvantages to information provision?

A

• Can be costly to enforce information provision• The government may not possess perfect information themselves• Consumers may behave irrationally, or follow behavioural and cultural biases instead

99
Q

Define government bureaucracy.

A

Government bureaucracy refers to the administrative officials within a government that are responsible for implementing policies, regulations, and public services.

100
Q

Define regulatory capture.

A

Regulatory capture refers to a form of political corruption in which regulatory agencies, tasked with protecting public interest, become influenced or controlled by the industries or entities they are supposed to regulate, leading to biased or ineffective regulation.

101
Q

Why may government failure occur?

A
  1. Imperfect information2. Red tape effect3. Costs of regulating and monitoring4. Costs of administrating5. Regulatory capture6. Time lags from time of intervention to time of effect
102
Q

Provide 3 examples of government failure by unintended consequences.

A
  1. Minimum wage laws intended to improve workers’ welfare may lead to job losses and reduced employment opportunities, particularly for low-skilled workers.2. Price controls imposed to make goods more affordable can result in shortages and black markets as suppliers are disincentivized to produce and distribute the goods at artificially low prices.3. Agricultural subsidies aimed at supporting farmers and ensuring food security may distort market incentives, leading to overproduction, environmental harm, and inefficient allocation of resources.