Management and Informatics Flashcards

1
Q

What are the six components of competency testing?

A

Direct observation of testing, Direct observation of maintenance, Monitoring result recording, Review of test/maintenance records, Practical exam (testing known samples), Problem solving skills *this has been extended to anatomic pathologists participating in peer review program

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2
Q

According to CMS, how many labs can one person be a CLIA director for?

A

5 labs *some state laws vary and may be less than this but CMS says max of 5

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3
Q

According to CLIA, what are the required retention times for records?

A

CLIA established minimum for retention of records and AP materials.

  • For most, such as instrument printouts, CP reports, QC records, blocks etc., requirement is 2 years.
  • For cytology slides, 5 years minimum.
  • For AP slides, reports, 10 years minimum (CAP 10 yr for blocks).
  • CAP suggests additional guidelines:
    • cytogenetic smears, 3 y
    • cytogenetic reports, 20 y
    • flow cytometry 10 y
    • Most blood bank records: 10 y
    • QC results 5 y
    • Results for deferred donors must be kept indefinitely
    • Forensic reports/blocks/slides also kept indefinitely
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4
Q

Each test is identified by its CPT (Common
Procedure Terminology) code and this is revised each
year by who?

A

The American Medical Association (AMA)

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5
Q

When considering a budget for lab, what is 1) the most expensive thing and 2) the 2nd most expensive thing?

A

Most expensive is personnel (most labs account for 2/3 of budget) and 2nd most expensive is usually blood products

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6
Q

What are LOINC codes used for and what does LOINC stand for? What about SNOMED codes?

A

Currently recommended to use LOINC codes for tests
(Logical Observation Identifiers Names and Codes); also LOINC codes for clinical data.

Diagnoses use SNOMED codes (Standard Nomenclature of Disease), although clinical
diagnoses classified based on ICD (International Classification of Disease) codes (usually ICD-9 or -10)

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7
Q

What are delta checks?

A

Used in autoverification. Delta checks are a comparison of current results with past results to look for different results on the same patient; used to identify contaminated or mislabeled samples, but
most indicate changes in patient condition

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8
Q

What is LEAN management?

A

Introduced by Toyota. Process management to look at physicial steps involved in performing a job. First step in doing this is to diagram out (sometimes called “spaghetti diagrams”). Involves reviewing all steps in process, reducing unnecessary or wasteful steps. Those performing tasks are involved to simplify procedure and physical path taken to perform job activities. In laboratories, generally increases
efficiency and reduces turnaround time.

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9
Q

What is SIX SIGMA?

A

Introduced by Motorola; error less common than 6 standard deviations. For qualitative (e.g., lost samples), 3.4 in a million (106) = 6 sigma. For quantitative measures, sigma equals difference between allowable error and bias, divided by standard deviation.

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10
Q

What is Maslow’s hierarchy?

A

Five levels of need: physical (food, clothing, shelter), security, being loved or wanted usually met; ego (need to feel important) and self-actualization (doing
well, developing abilities).

In many job settings, first three easily met; job satisfaction based on how well last two needs are met.

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11
Q

What three groups of people does Medicare extend benefits to?

A

1) Age 65 and older
2) Permanently disabled
3) End stage renal disease

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12
Q

What is the Stark Law intended to do?

A

Prevent physicians from working around the direct billing requirements by setting up “shell labs” in which a lab that is owned by the physician does nothing other than refer testing out to actual laboratories and then bill Medicare directly

Note that this is different from the antikickback law which prevents physicians from providing items of value in order to induce providers or patients to spend their Medicare benefits on your lab’s services

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13
Q

What are the 4 major parts of the budget in a lab?

A

The capital budget

The personnel budget

The operating budget

The allocation budget

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14
Q

What are the ways that a lab ensures 1) accuracy and 2) precision?

A

1) Accuracy is controlled through periodic calibration
2) Precision is assessed by daily testing of QC reagents

within run precision for most analytes should run between 1-10%. Precision is expressed as coefficient of variation.

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15
Q

Tests may give results on different scales. Name an example for the following scales:

1) interval scale
2) ordinal scale
3) nominal scale

A

1) gives discrete numbers that have usual mathematical meaning (ie sodium)
2) gives a number with an assigned value (ie 1+ to 4+ on urine dipstick)
3) gives a category (ie positive or negative)

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16
Q

What is the TRUE or TOTAL notification time for a lab test?

A

Order-to-physician notification time

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17
Q

What are the effects of prolonged tourniquet application during phlebotomy?

A

Causes hemoconcentration

Which causes increased serum and plasma levels of protein, lipid, iron and cholesterol

Increase in lactate and decreased in pH

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18
Q

How do bilirubin, hemoglobin and lipids interfere with spectrophotometric assays?

A

Hemoglobin and bilirubin absorb particular wavelengths of light (Hgb = 412 nm and bili = 340-500 nm)

Lipids scatter light (block light transmission)

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19
Q

On a ROC curve, how do you know which test will perform the best?

A

The area under the ROC curve

ROC curve is generated by plotting sensitivity (true positive rate) on the Y axis and 1 - specificity (false positive rate) on the X axis for a range of different test cutoffs.

Area equal to 1 represents a perfect test whereas an area of 0.5 represents a test with no ability to discriminate

Generally speaking, an area under the ROC curve greater than 0.8 indicates good discriminatory power

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20
Q

Define ANALYTICAL sensivity and ANALYTICAL specificity.

*this is not the same as clinical sensitivity and specificity that we generally think about

A

Analytical sensitivity: The lowest possible value of an analyte that is accurately and reproducibly measured by an assay

Analytical specificity: A performance characteristic of an assay that quantifies a lab test’s ability to measure a particular analyte in the presence of possible interfering substances

21
Q

There are 4 level of biosafety when it comes to labs. What types of materials/organism can each level work with?

A

Biosafety level 1: suitable for work with well-characterized agents not known to consistently cause disease in health adult humans and are of miniminal potential hazard to lab personnel and environment

Biosafety level 2: suitable for work wth agents of moderate potential hazard to personnel and the environment

Biosafety level 3: suitable for work with indigenous or exotic agents that may cause serious or potentially lethal disease after inhalation

Biosafety level 4: suitable for work with dangerous and exotic agents that pose a high individual risk of aerosol-transmitted lab infections. These include agents that cuase severe to fatal disease in humans for which vaccines or other treatments are not available.

22
Q

How often should calibration verification be performed on medium and high complexity assays unless the test system meets specific CLIA requirements?

A

Every 6 months

23
Q

What are the five types of CLIA certificates?

A

Certificate of waiver

Certificate of provider-performed microscopy

Certificate of registration

Certificate of compliance

Certificate of accreditation

*Certificates must be renewed every 2 years

24
Q

What are the 4 performance characteristics of an FDA-approved, moderate-complexity assay that must, at a minimum, be confirmed?

A

Accuracy

Reproducibility

Reportable range

Reference range

25
Q

According to CLIA, most QC samples must be assayed once every 24 hours or more frequently if recommended by the manufacturer. What is the caveat with blood gas analyzers (ie what are QC requirements for this instrument)?

A

CLIA requires at least one QC level be assayed every 8 hours and they also require a control sample be run with every patient sample unless the anayzer calibrates itself every 30 minutes

26
Q

What are the 6 CMS-approved accreditation organizations?

A

AABB

American Osteopathic Association

American Society for Histocompatibility and Immunogenetics

COLA

CAP

The Joint Commission

27
Q

According to the compendium, what are the 5 most common Westgard rules and what type of error does each detect?

If values are within 2SD, run is in control and reported. If value is more than 2SD, value is interpreted by these Westgard rules to see what type of error.

A

1:3s: one value that is found to be + 3SD from the mean (detects IMPRECISION)

2:2s: two consecutive values found to be >2SD from the mean (detects imprecision and systematic bias)

R:4s: two values within the same run that are found to be >4SD from each other (detects RANDOM error)

4:1s: four consecutive values are found to be >1SD on the same side of the mean (detects systematic bias)

10:mean: ten consectutive values are found to be on the same side of the mean (detects systematic bias)

28
Q

What is the purpose of the Westguard rules and what types of errors do they try to identify?

A

Purpose of Westguard rules are to detect various kinds of error.

Random error: caused by bubbles, underfilled tubes, technologist error and autopipetting errors

*rules that address widening distribution of results (1:3s and R:4s) are sensitive to random bias or imprecison

Systematic error: caused by poor calibration, defective blanks, degraded reagents, or instrument components and poor temperature control

*rules that address drifts and shifts (2:2s, 4:1s and 10x) are sensitive to systematic errors or bias

29
Q

What additive is in the following specimen tube and what labs should be drawn in this tube?

Red top

A

Glass–no additive

Plastic–silica clot activator

Uses: serum chemistry and serology

30
Q

What additive is in the following specimen tube and what labs should be drawn in this tube?

Green top

A

Heparin additive

Plasma chemistry

31
Q

What additive is in the following specimen tube and what labs should be drawn in this tube?

Blue top

A

Citrate additive

Coagulation tests

NOTE: a 1:9 ratio of anticoagulated blood is ideal; higher ratios lead to increased coagulation times, affecting the aPTT>PT; for polycythemic patients with Hct>60%, the PT and PTT can be prolonged due to decreased effective plasma

32
Q

What additive is in the following specimen tube and what labs should be drawn in this tube?

Black top

A

Citrate (calcium chelation)

ESR

33
Q

What additive is in the following specimen tube and what labs should be drawn in this tube?

Lavender (purple) top

A

EDTA (calcium chelation)

Cell counts

34
Q

What additive is in the following specimen tube and what labs should be drawn in this tube?

Yellow top

A

Citrate and dextrose (ACD)

Blood bank tests; HLA typing

35
Q

What additive is in the following specimen tube and what labs should be drawn in this tube?

Gray top

A

Sodium fluoride (inhibits glycolysis)

Glucose; lactate

36
Q

Method correlation is an important step in the validation of a new lab developed test. How is this done?

A

A study is performed on a given amount of known concentration analytes and compared between the new test and the gold standard

Classically, the reference method is plotted on the x-axis and your lab’s method on the y-axis

If the plot is drawn classically, a slope greater than 1 implies a positive and proportional bias of your method relative to the reference method

Slope of the line represents proportional bias

If plotted classically, a y-intercept greater than 0 imples a constant positive bias

y-intercept represents constant bias

Both types of bias may coexist in a comparison study

37
Q

What are the 6 ways for assess compentency in the lab?

A
  1. Direct observation of routine patient test performance, including patient preparation, if applicable, specimen handling, processing & testing.
  2. Monitoring the recording & reporting of test results
  3. Review of intermediate test results or worksheets, QC records, PT results, & preventive maintenance records
  4. Direct observation of performance of instrument maintenance & function checks
  5. Assessment of test performance through testing previously analyzed specimens, internal blind testing samples, or external PT samples
  6. Assessment of problem solving skills
38
Q

What is the Stokes shift?

A

In fluorescent assays, this is the difference between the excitation and emission wavelengths.

If the Stoke shift is small, the excitation and emission spectra can overlap, causing an increase in background fluorescence due to the scattering effecs of the excitation light.

A large Stokes shift will reduce the amount of incident light arriving at the detector and will improve the sensitivity of the assay.

The differences between excitation and emission wavelengths should be at least 50 nm but ideally should be more than 200 nm

39
Q

In a regression plot, what represents proportional bias? Constant bias? Random error?

A

The slope of the line is a measure of proportional bias.

Intercept of the line indicates that the method has a constant bias. In the formula y = mx + b, b is a measure of constant bias. This means that all y axis values are higher than x axis values by b units.

Standard error and correlation coefficient R are measures of random error

40
Q

What department is responsible for classifying labs into levels of complexity?

A

FDA

CLIA ‘88–executive authority given to CMMS, a division of DHHS. FDA is also a division of DHHA.

41
Q

What is FDA clearance? FDA approval?

A

Clearance: a premarket notification or 501K must be filed by the manufacturer to document that the device is substantially equivalent to another FDA approved device

Approval: A formal validation must be undertaken by the manufacturer and filed in the form of a premarket application (PMA)

42
Q

Medicare is reimbursed under parts A and B. What do they cover?

A

Part A: coveres INPATIENT care (in addition to hospice care, skilled nursing facility care and home health care), aside from physician services

Part B: covers OUTPATIENT services and inpatient physician services according to a fee schedule (fee for service); importantly, private insurers refer to the Medicare part B fee schedule to benchmark their reimbursement rates.

43
Q

Who processes Medicare claims?

A

Fiscal intermediaries process part A claims

Carriers process part B claims

44
Q

What are examples of:

1) fixed costs
2) direct costs
3) indirect costs
4) unit cost

A

1) instrument purchase, rent paid on laboratory space, and supervisor wages
2) instrument purchase, supervisor wages, technologist wages, and reagents
3) rent paid on lab space, custodial services and depreciation
4) cost incurred in performing 1 test (cost per reportable)

45
Q

In ideal Gaussian distribution, what percent of populations fall with 1SD, 2SD and 3SD?

A

1SD: 68.2%

2SD: 95.5%

3SD: 99.7%

46
Q

What are the components of method verification mandated by CLIA ‘03?

A

Precision

Accuracy

Reportable range

Reference ranges

47
Q

How does CLIA proficiency testing work?

A

Participants receive 3x per year consisting of 5 unknown samples. The lab performs the indicated testing and reports results to surveying agency. MUST ACHIEVE 80% to be satisfactory!

If unsatisfactory result is obtained, the lab must exceed 80% on the next 2 surveys of that analyte.

48
Q

What is the order of draw for tubes?

A