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CA Upgrade > Main Panel > Flashcards

Main Panel Flashcards

1
Q

Which DUs can be reverted?

A

2 and 4 (MFDs)

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2
Q

How many air data systems and what do they do?

A

5

ADS 1 Captain

ADS 2 FO

ADS 3 Standby for 1/2

ADS 4 IESS

ADS 5 Flight controls

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3
Q

RVSM altitude range

A

FL290-FL410

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4
Q

When do speeds change from IAS to Mach?

A

~ 29,000’

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5
Q

When do the takeoff bug speeds disappear from view?

A

On takeoff roll above 30 KTS groundspeed

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6
Q

What is the low speed awareness tape?

A

Indicates the margin to the stick shaker

Red LSA = shaker

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7
Q

V1

A

Takeoff decision speed

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8
Q

Vr

A

Rotation speed

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9
Q

V2

A

Takeoff safety speed

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10
Q

Vac

A

Approach climb speed

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11
Q

Vf

A

Flap retraction speed

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12
Q

Vap

A

Approach speed

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13
Q

Vrf

A

Reference speed

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14
Q

What is the greed dot?

A

Drift-down speed

Minimum of 1.3g over shaker speed

Invalid above FL200 when STALL PROT ICE SPEED is active

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15
Q

Vfs

A

Takeoff final segment speed

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16
Q

6 ways the autopilot is disengaged

A

AP/TRIM DISC button

AP button on GP

Manual trim

Stick shaker

Wind shear escape guidance

Pilot input contrary to the autopilot

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17
Q

When does the altitude alerter sound?

A

Within 1000’ of selected altitude

Departing selected altitude by > 200’

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18
Q

When does the radio altimeter readout appear?

A

< 2500’

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19
Q

What is the PLI?

A

Pitch limit indicator

Represents the difference between aircraft AOA and stick shaker AOA

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20
Q

When can windshear mode be activated?

A

10-1500’ AGL

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21
Q

What do you need for windshear alerting to be operational?

A

1 Radar altimeter

EGPWS

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22
Q

When is a VTA issued?

A

60 seconds prior to FMS commands climb or descent

1,000’ before level off altitude

23
Q

Approach RNP value

A

0.3

24
Q

Terminal RNP value

A

1.0

25
Q

Enroute/Oceanic RNP value

A

2.0

26
Q

Normal WX radar scan range

A

+/- 60 degrees

27
Q

Sector scan WX radar scan range

A

+/- 30 degrees

28
Q

Which speed activated the SAT and TAT read outs?

A

Above 60 KTS

29
Q

Why may there be a discrepancy between the O2 pressure readout on the MFD and the exterior gauge?

A

MFD corrects for temperature

Outside gauge you must use the temperature charts

30
Q

What do the crew oxygen colors indicate?

A

Green - minimum for 3 crew

Cyan - minimum for 2 crew

Amber - no dispatch

31
Q

How long does the electrical PBIT take?

A

3 minutes

Don’t turn on HYD pumps, cycle flight control buttons, or interrupt AC power

32
Q

How long does the HDY PBIT take?

A

1 minute

All 3 HYD systems must be powered

Don’t move the flight controls

33
Q

What is RCT mode on the WX radar?

A

Rain Echo Attenuation Compensation Technique

Compensated for attenuation of the radar signal as it passes through a storm

34
Q

When can you activate TURB mode?

A

Ranges of 50 NM or less

35
Q

How long does the IESS alignment take?

A

90 seconds

36
Q

When does RTO engage?

A

TL IDLE or REV

Wheel speed above 60 KTS

Brake pedals not pressed

37
Q

When does CRZ activate?

A

Level at selected altitude for 90 seconds

Airspeed within 5 KTS of selected speed

38
Q

Can you takeoff with ATTCS OFF?

A

No

39
Q

When does ATTCS auto command RSV?

A

N1 difference > 15% between engines

Engine failure during takeoff or GA

Windshear

40
Q

What is a FLEX takeoff and what is the max reduction?

A

An assumed higher temperature to make the FADECs reduce power to prevent overtemp

Max reduction is 25%

41
Q

Can you use FLEX TO with windshear advisories in effect or suspected?

A

No

42
Q

When will the FADEC not relight the engine?

A

After 3 consecutive overspeeds within 30 seconds

43
Q

How many MLI are under each wing?

A

3

44
Q

Minimum fuel quantity

A

Less than the greater of 2660 lbs or RSV + ALT (if required)

45
Q

Emergency fuel quantity

A

1800 lbs (30 minutes @ 60 lbs/min)

46
Q

4 types of EICAS messages and colors

A

Warning - Red

Caution - Amber

Advisory - Cyan

Status - White

47
Q

What is a Root EICAS message?

A

Messages which generate more messages

>

48
Q

How many WOW sensors?

A

6

2 per gear

49
Q

What does the PSEM do?

A

Processes signals from WOW sensors

50
Q

What happens when the LDG GR handle is placed in the up position?

A

Hydraulic pressure is released from the gear locks

Hydraulic actuators are pressurized

Uplock hooks hold gear in place

51
Q

What happens when the LDG GR lever is placed to the down position?

A

Hydraulic pressure released from the uplocks and retraction actuators

Gear free falls

Gear is locked by downlock springs

52
Q

When does the GND PROX G/S INHIB button illuminate?

A

When pressed and the aircraft descends below 2000 AGL

-Resets by climbing above 2000 AGL or descending below 30 AGL

53
Q

Which flap settings and altitude can the LG WRN INHIB be used?

A

Flaps 0-4

At or above 700 AGL

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