Main Panel

Question 1

Which DUs can be reverted?

Answer 1

2 and 4 (MFDs)

Question 2

How many air data systems and what do they do?

Answer 2

5

ADS 1 Captain

ADS 2 FO

ADS 3 Standby for 1/2

ADS 4 IESS

ADS 5 Flight controls

Question 3

RVSM altitude range

Answer 3

FL290-FL410

Question 4

When do speeds change from IAS to Mach?

Answer 4

~ 29,000’

Question 5

When do the takeoff bug speeds disappear from view?

Answer 5

On takeoff roll above 30 KTS groundspeed

Question 6

What is the low speed awareness tape?

Answer 6

Indicates the margin to the stick shaker

Red LSA = shaker

Question 7

V1

Answer 7

Takeoff decision speed

Question 8

Vr

Answer 8

Rotation speed

Question 9

V2

Answer 9

Takeoff safety speed

Question 10

Vac

Answer 10

Approach climb speed

Question 11

Vf

Answer 11

Flap retraction speed

Question 12

Vap

Answer 12

Approach speed

Question 13

Vrf

Answer 13

Reference speed

Question 14

What is the greed dot?

Answer 14

Drift-down speed

Minimum of 1.3g over shaker speed

Invalid above FL200 when STALL PROT ICE SPEED is active

Question 15

Vfs

Answer 15

Takeoff final segment speed

Question 16

6 ways the autopilot is disengaged

Answer 16

AP/TRIM DISC button

AP button on GP

Manual trim

Stick shaker

Wind shear escape guidance

Pilot input contrary to the autopilot

Question 17

When does the altitude alerter sound?

Answer 17

Within 1000’ of selected altitude

Departing selected altitude by > 200’

Question 18

When does the radio altimeter readout appear?

Answer 18

< 2500’

Question 19

What is the PLI?

Answer 19

Pitch limit indicator

Represents the difference between aircraft AOA and stick shaker AOA

Question 20

When can windshear mode be activated?

Answer 20

10-1500’ AGL

Question 21

What do you need for windshear alerting to be operational?

Answer 21

1 Radar altimeter

EGPWS

Question 22

When is a VTA issued?

Answer 22

60 seconds prior to FMS commands climb or descent

1,000’ before level off altitude

Question 23

Approach RNP value

Answer 23

0.3

Question 24

Terminal RNP value

Answer 24

1.0

Question 25

Enroute/Oceanic RNP value

Answer 25

2.0

Question 26

Normal WX radar scan range

Answer 26

+/- 60 degrees

Question 27

Sector scan WX radar scan range

Answer 27

+/- 30 degrees

Question 28

Which speed activated the SAT and TAT read outs?

Answer 28

Above 60 KTS

Question 29

Why may there be a discrepancy between the O2 pressure readout on the MFD and the exterior gauge?

Answer 29

MFD corrects for temperature Outside gauge you must use the temperature charts

Question 30

What do the crew oxygen colors indicate?

Answer 30

Green - minimum for 3 crew Cyan - minimum for 2 crew Amber - no dispatch

Question 31

How long does the electrical PBIT take?

Answer 31

3 minutes Don’t turn on HYD pumps, cycle flight control buttons, or interrupt AC power

Question 32

How long does the HDY PBIT take?

Answer 32

1 minute All 3 HYD systems must be powered Don’t move the flight controls

Question 33

What is RCT mode on the WX radar?

Answer 33

Rain Echo Attenuation Compensation Technique Compensated for attenuation of the radar signal as it passes through a storm

Question 34

When can you activate TURB mode?

Answer 34

Ranges of 50 NM or less

Question 35

How long does the IESS alignment take?

Answer 35

90 seconds

Question 36

When does RTO engage?

Answer 36

TL IDLE or REV Wheel speed above 60 KTS Brake pedals not pressed

Question 37

When does CRZ activate?

Answer 37

Level at selected altitude for 90 seconds Airspeed within 5 KTS of selected speed

Question 38

Can you takeoff with ATTCS OFF?

Answer 38

No

Question 39

When does ATTCS auto command RSV?

Answer 39

N1 difference > 15% between engines Engine failure during takeoff or GA Windshear

Question 40

What is a FLEX takeoff and what is the max reduction?

Answer 40

An assumed higher temperature to make the FADECs reduce power to prevent overtemp Max reduction is 25%

Question 41

Can you use FLEX TO with windshear advisories in effect or suspected?

Answer 41

No

Question 42

When will the FADEC not relight the engine?

Answer 42

After 3 consecutive overspeeds within 30 seconds

Question 43

How many MLI are under each wing?

Answer 43

3

Question 44

Minimum fuel quantity

Answer 44

Less than the greater of 2660 lbs or RSV + ALT (if required)

Question 45

Emergency fuel quantity

Answer 45

1800 lbs (30 minutes @ 60 lbs/min)

Question 46

4 types of EICAS messages and colors

Answer 46

Warning - Red Caution - Amber Advisory - Cyan Status - White

Question 47

What is a Root EICAS message?

Answer 47

Messages which generate more messages | >

Question 48

How many WOW sensors?

Answer 48

6 2 per gear

Question 49

What does the PSEM do?

Answer 49

Processes signals from WOW sensors

Question 50

What happens when the LDG GR handle is placed in the up position?

Answer 50

Hydraulic pressure is released from the gear locks Hydraulic actuators are pressurized Uplock hooks hold gear in place

Question 51

What happens when the LDG GR lever is placed to the down position?

Answer 51

Hydraulic pressure released from the uplocks and retraction actuators Gear free falls Gear is locked by downlock springs

Question 52

When does the GND PROX G/S INHIB button illuminate?

Answer 52

When pressed and the aircraft descends below 2000 AGL -Resets by climbing above 2000 AGL or descending below 30 AGL

Question 53

Which flap settings and altitude can the LG WRN INHIB be used?

Answer 53

Flaps 0-4 At or above 700 AGL