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Pathophys II - Exam 1 > Mace - Blood > Flashcards

Mace - Blood Flashcards

1
Q

list 5 functions of blood

A
  1. transport of nutrients
  2. regulation of pH and ions
  3. stabilizes body temp
  4. prevents fluid loss at sites of injury
  5. defends against toxins and microorganisms
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2
Q

what are the 4 components of blood

A
  1. plasma
  2. formed elements
  3. volume
  4. color
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3
Q

what % of plasma is water

A

92-95% depending on which slide of Mace’s ppt you are looking at

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4
Q

serum is plasma without

A

fibrinogen

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5
Q

what are the 2 components of the buffy coat

A

WBC

platelets

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6
Q

what lab value represents RBC per total volume of blood

A

hematocrit

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7
Q

plasma represents __% of whole blood

A

55%

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8
Q

cells and cell fragments suspended in the blood are called

A

formed elements

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9
Q

which component of blood contains the most WBC’s and platelets

A

buffy coat

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10
Q

erythrocytes represent __% of whole blood

A

45%

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11
Q

the color of blood is due to

A

hemoglobin

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12
Q

name the 3 components of formed elements

A

erythrocytes

neutrophils

platelets

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13
Q

what are the 3 major categories of plasma proteins

A
  1. albumins
  2. globulins
  3. fibrinogen
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14
Q

which plasma protein is the most abundant

A

albumin

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15
Q

which plasma protein is the smallest

A

albumin

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16
Q

name the 3 subcategories of globulins

A
  1. alpha
  2. beta
  3. gamma
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17
Q

which globulin is the smallest

A

alpha

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18
Q

which globulin is involved in the transport and complement system

A

beta -> assist w. immunity and transport things

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19
Q

which globulin is the largest

A

gamma

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20
Q

which gamma protein are antibodies (Ig)

A

gamma globulin

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21
Q

which plasma protein is the second most abundant

A

gamma globulins

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22
Q

which plasma protein is soluble

A

fibrinogen

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23
Q

all of the plasma proteins are made in the liver, except for

A

gamma globulins

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24
Q

where are gamma globulins produced

A

plasma cells

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25
Q

what are the 3 nitrogenous waste compounds

A

urea

uric acid

creatinine

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26
Q

name 2 nutrients that are transported in the blood

A

glucose

amino acids

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27
Q

___ is not found in the plasma

a. glycogen
b. fibrinogen
c. glucose
d. urea
e. albumin

A

glycogen

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28
Q

B cell are produced in the __

and mature in the __

A

produced: bone marrow
mature: bone marrow

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29
Q

T cells are produced in the __

and mature in the __

A

produced: bone marrow
mature: thymus

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30
Q

T/F adults have more bone marrow than children

A

F → kids are active and growing so they need more marrow to make more blood

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31
Q

myeloid stem cells give rise to what 4 types of blasts

A
  1. erythroblasts
  2. megakaryoblasts
  3. myeloblasts
  4. monoblasts
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32
Q

erythroblasts give rise to

A

reticulocytes → erythroblasts

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33
Q

megakaryoblasts ultimately give rise to

A

platelets

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34
Q

myeloblasts give rise to

A

granular leukocytes →

basophils

eosinophils

neutrophils

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35
Q

lymphatic stem cells become lymphoblasts, which become

A

agranular leukocytes →

B lymphocytes

T lymphocytes

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36
Q

what are the 3 agranular leukocytes

A
  1. monocytes
  2. B lymphocytes
  3. T lymphocytes
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37
Q

what are the 6 types of WBC

A
  1. basophils
  2. eosinophils
  3. neutrophils
  4. monocytes
  5. B lymphocytes
  6. T lymphocytes
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38
Q

describe the structure of a erythrocyte

A

biconcave disk

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39
Q

what protein maintains the shape of the erythrocyte

A

spectrin

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40
Q

where is spectrin found

A

cytoskeleton of the erythrocyte

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41
Q

what organelles do erythrocytes have

A

none!

more room for O2

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42
Q

erythrocytes are produced in the ___

and destroyed in the __

A

red bone marrow

spleen

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43
Q

in terms of function, what is the purpose of the shape of the erythrocyte

A

allows them to stack in Rouleau formation to maximize surface area

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44
Q

erythropoietin is a ___ that

is triggered by ___

A

hormone

hypoxia

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45
Q

erythropoietin is inhibited by

A

high O2 content

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46
Q

what is an environmental factor that would stimulate erythropoiesis

A

high altitude

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47
Q

name the 3 hemoglobin derivatives we need to know

A
  1. oxyhemoglobin
  2. deoxyhemoglobin
  3. carbaminohemoglobin
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48
Q

what is oxyhemoglobin

A

oxygen carrying form of hemoglobin, in which O2 is bound to Fe

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49
Q

what is deoxyhemoglobin

A

hemoglobin that has released its O2 to tissues

No O2 bound to Fe

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50
Q

what is the function of carbaminohemoglobin

A

form of hemoglobin that unloads CO2 into the lung

CO2 attached to globin

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51
Q

the hemoglobin molecule consists of __ globin chains

A

4

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52
Q

the heme of hemoglobin is a __ shaped molecule

with __ in the center

A

ringed

iron

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53
Q

what is cooperative binding of hemoglobin

A

when an O2 atom binds to one binding site of hgb, the affinity for O2 of the other 3 binding sites increases

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54
Q

low O2 in the blood is defined as

A

hypoxemia

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55
Q

low O2 in the tissues is defined as

A

hypoxia

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56
Q

a tourniquet placed around the appendages is an example of

A

hypoxia

hypoxia → blood O2 in the blood is not decreased, just availability of O2 to the tissues

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57
Q

According to Mace, why can erythrocytes transport O2

a, because cells of the body need O2 for metabolism

b. because RBCs contain hgb, which have heme units that bind O2
c. bc the heart creates a pressure gradient that forces blood and RBCs thru the cardiovascular system
d. B &C
e. all of the above

A

b. because RBCs contain hgb which have heme units that bind to O2

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58
Q

cell fragments are broken up by the ___

and phagocytized in the ___

A

broken up in the liver

phagocytized in the spleen

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59
Q

hemeoglobin is broken down into heme and globin - heme is then broken into (2)

A

biliverdin

iron

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60
Q

after hemoglobin is broken down, how is the globin portion further broken down

A

hydrolyzed into free amino acids

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61
Q

biiverdin is further broken down into __,

which becomes __,

which becomes ___

A

heme -> biliverdin -> bilirubin -> bile

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62
Q

in the feces, urobilinogen becomes

A

stercobilin

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63
Q

in the urine urobilinogen becomes

A

urobilin

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64
Q

hypoxemia is sensed by the __ and

___, which causes the secretion of

__, which causes stimulation of red bone marrow

to accelerate __.

A

liver and kidneys

erythropoietin

erythropoiesis

65
Q

if all 280 million molecules of hemoglobin inside RBCs were free in the plasma

a. it would cause a considerable increase in the blood O1 carrying capacity
b. it would facilitate delivery of O2 into tissues irrigated by small capillaries
c. it would facilitate O2 diffusion into cells distant from blood capillaries
d. it would significantly increase blood osmolarity

A

d. it would significantly increase blood osmolarity

66
Q

blood osmolarity measures

A

the concentration of dissolved particles (osmolality) in the blood

67
Q

the constant region of the antibody is the

A

heavy chain (stem)

68
Q

which part of the antibody is the variable region

A

arm (light chain)

69
Q

the stem of the antibody is also called the heavy chain or the

A

Fc region

70
Q

what type of bond connects the heavy and light chains of the antibody

A

disulfide bond

71
Q

the antigen bonding site of the antibody is located in the

A

arm region

72
Q

type A blood type erythrocytes have __ surface antigens

and __ antibodies

A

A

anti-B

73
Q

blood type B erythrocytes have __ surface antigens

and __ antibodies

A

B surface antigens

anti-a antibodies

74
Q

blood type AB erythrocytes have ___ surface antigens

and __ antibodies

A

AB surface antigens

no

75
Q

blood type O erythrocytes have ___ surface antigens

and ___ antibodies

A

no surface antigens

both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

76
Q

the surface antigen of erythrocytes are ___ of plasma antibodies

A

opposite

77
Q

type A blood can safely donate RBCs to __

and can receive RBCs of type __

a. O; AB
b. AB; O
c. A; B
d. B; A
e. O;O

A

b. AB; O

78
Q

Rh positive blood types have surface antigen __

and produce __ antibodies

A

D

no D

79
Q

Rh negative blood types have __ surface antigen

and do not produce ___

unless exposed to __

A

no

anti-D antibodies

Rh positive blood

80
Q

what are 4 common properties of all WBC

A
  1. short time in blood
  2. migration
  3. diapedesis
  4. chemotaxis
81
Q

what is diapedesis

A

the passage of blood cells thru the intact walls of the capillaries, typically accompanying inflammation

82
Q

which agranuloycte is involved in phagocytosis

A

monocytes

83
Q

describe the nucleus of agranulocytes

A

single, large (not lobed)

84
Q

describe the nucleus of granulocytes

A

usually multi-lobed into segments

85
Q

granules in granulocytes are located in the ___

and function as ___

A

cytoplasm

secretory vesicle

86
Q

leukopoiesis produces __ stem cells called

___ and ___

A

2

myeloid, lymphoid

87
Q

which type of WBC is the first to arrive on the scene

A

granulocytes

88
Q

which granulocyte is the first to arrive at the scene

A

neutrophils

89
Q

what is an oxidative burst

A

when neutrophils release reactive oxygen species (ROS) to degrade internal pathogens

90
Q

which 2 granulocytes function as phagocytes

A

neutrophils

eosinophils

91
Q

which WBC destroys parasitic worms

A

eosinophils

92
Q

which granulocyte is associated with inflammatory responses

A

basophils

93
Q

basophils contain __, which thins the blood,

and __ which causes blood to leak into interstitial fluid

A

heparin

histamine

94
Q

B cells differentiate into __,

which produce __

A

plasma cells

antibodies

95
Q

what are the two divisions of T cells

A

T-killer

T-helper

96
Q

what is the fxn of T helper cells

A

help B cells

97
Q

what is the fxn of T killer cells

A

kill directly

98
Q

which type of lymphocyte triggers apoptosis in foreign invaders

A

natural killer

non specific immune cells

99
Q

which granulocyte is involved in phagocytosis of allergen related ag-ab complexes

A

eosinophils

100
Q

how long do neutrophils last in the blood

A

10-12 hr

101
Q

how long do eosinophils last in the blood

A

10 hours

102
Q

how long do basophils last in the blood

A

unknown

103
Q

what is the 2nd most numerous granuloycte

A

eosinophils

104
Q

which agranulocyte is considered an APC (antigen presenting cell)

A

monocytes

105
Q

monocytes have __ % distribution in the blood

A

3-8%

106
Q

monocytes are in circulation for __ days

and die __ hours after activation

A

3 days

24 hours

107
Q

which type of agranulocyte is housed long term in other organs

A

monocytes

108
Q

lymphocytes have __% distribution in the blood

A

25-33%

109
Q

in terms of action, lymphocytes can be divided into __ immunity

and __ immunity

A

innate

adaptive

110
Q

which agranulocyte is involved in innate immunity

A

NK cells

111
Q

NK cells kill via __ and

live for __ days in the blood

A

apoptosis

10

112
Q

which two lymphocytes are involved in adaptive immunity

A

B cells

T cells

113
Q

adaptive immunity is divided into __ immunity

and __ immunity

A

humoral

cellular

114
Q

__ cells are involved in humoral immunity

and are associated with __

A

B cells

antibodies

115
Q

__ cells are involved in cellular immunity

and some kill via __

A

T

apoptosis

116
Q

T and B cells leave the blood via the

A

lymph system

117
Q

how long can B and T cells live

A

some stay alive for months to decades

118
Q

which type of immunity has a memory

A

adaptive

119
Q

structurally platelets are ___

that contain ___

A

cell fragments

granules

120
Q

early on, platelets secrete what 3 substances

A
  1. serotonin
  2. thromboxane
  3. ADP
121
Q

later on, platelets secrete what 2 substances

A
  1. procoagulants
  2. platelet derived growth factor (PDGF)
122
Q

___ is produced in the

___, which stimulates thrombopoiesis

A

thrombopoietin (TPO)

kidney

123
Q

what is the circulating number of platelets

A

350-500k

124
Q

thrombocytes circulate for __ days

and are then ___

A

10

phagocytized

125
Q

how do most platelet inhibitors like Plavix work

A

they block receptors on the platelet to prevent them from activating

126
Q

what are the 3 phases of hemostasis

A
  1. vascular spasm
  2. platelet plug formation
  3. coagulation phase
127
Q

which stage of hemostasis is characterized by the blood vessel constriction to limit blood escape

A

vascular spasm

128
Q

which stage of hemostasis is characterized by platelets arriving at the site of injury to stick to exposed collagen fibers

A

platelet plug formation

129
Q

which stage of hemostasis involves a cascade that converts inactive proteins to active forms and forms a blood clot

A

coagulation phase

130
Q

the coagulation phase is divided into what 2 pathways

A

intrinsic

extrinsic

131
Q

both coagulation pathways activate factor __,

but they differ in __

A

X

speed of activation

132
Q

what type of damage activates the intrinsic coagulation pathway

A

damage to the inside of the vessel

133
Q

what type of damage activates the extrinsic coagulation pathway

A

damage to the outside of the vessel

134
Q

in the intrinsic coagulation pathway, platelets activate factor __,

which starts a cascade effect, activating factors __ (3)

A

XII

XI, IX, VIII

135
Q

in the extrinsic coagulation pathway, damaged perivascular tissue activates

___

A

thromboplastin (factor III)

factor VII is also involved in the extrinsic pathway

136
Q

what two clotting factors are involved in the extrinsic pathway

A

III

VII

137
Q

what activates fibrinolysis to convert fibrinogen into fibrin

A

thrombin

138
Q

do anticoagulants dissolve clots?

A

no!

they prevent them from forming

139
Q

common clotting pathway

A
140
Q

LMWH (low molecular weight heparin) inhibits what clotting factor

A

Xa

141
Q

what are 2 examples of LMWH

A

Lovenox

Fragmin

142
Q

injectable LMWH increases the rate of the thrombin-antithrombin rxn by how much

A

1,000x

143
Q

what are 3 examples of oral anticoagulants

A

warfarin

dabigatran

rivaroxaban

144
Q

which clotting factors does vitamin K produce

A

II

VII

IX

X

145
Q

how does warfarin (coumadin) work

A

it blocks vitamin K from producing clotting factors

146
Q

how does dabigatran work

A

it inhibits activation of clotting factors

147
Q

how does rivaroxaban work

A

it inhibits activated clotting factors directly

148
Q

sympathetic response is activated if there is >__% blood loss

A

10

149
Q

the sympathetic response to blood loss indues

A

systemic vasoconstriction

150
Q

what are the two mechanisms of systemic vasoconstriction activated by the sympathetic response to blood loss

A

increased bp

increased hr

151
Q

increased heart rate preserves

A

perfusion (blood function)

152
Q

what are the 2 steps in clot elimination

A
  1. clot retraction
  2. fibrinolysis
153
Q

clot retraction begins ~__hour after the clot has been formed

A

1

154
Q

during clot retraction, what is the job of platelets with pseudopods

A

they pull the two ends of the wound together

155
Q

fibrinolysis begins ~ __ days after injury

A

2

156
Q

In the fibrinolysis cascade:

___ activates

___, which leads to activation of

___, which is activated into plasmin

A

thrombin

Kallikrein

plasminogen

157
Q

in fibrinolysis, what is the function of plasmin

A

it is a protease that destroys the fibrin polymer that stabilizes the clot

158
Q

in finbrinolysis, how is plasmin activated

A

t-PA (tissue plasminogen factor)

159
Q

platelets do not secrete

a. procoagulants
b. thrombopoietin
c. growth factors
d. vasoconstriction
e. chemicals that attract neutrophils

A

d. vasoconstriction

Pathophys II - Exam 1 (4 decks)

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