MA Flash Cards
The gage of needle most commonly used for venipuncture is________gauge.
A. 25
B. 23
C. 20
D. 18
B. 22
Rubber sleeves on a evacuated tube system make it possible for______.
A. Sterilization
B. Slower draw of blood
C. Multiple use
D. Faster draw of blood
C. Multiple use
Preparing for a glucose tolerance test________hours before or during the test, the patient should not not eat, smoke, drink coffee or alcohol.
A. One
B. Ten
C. One half
D. Two
B. Ten
During a venipuncture, to secure the needle during insertion into the tube stopper, you need a _____.
A. Holder
B. Sleeve
C. Tape
D. Ball of cotton
A. Holder
Which of the following is false?
A. Veins feel like an elastic tube
B. Veins pulsate
C. Veins give under pressure
D. Veins go different directions
B. Veins pulsate
The primary anticoagulant additive EDTA removes calcium by forming insoluble or un-ionized calcium salts. It has an advantage of preventing platelet clumping and the formation of artifacts therefore, good for the preparation of ________.
A. Background staining
B. Red blood cell preservation
C. Clotting
D blood films
D. Blood films
Performing a ______ as part of a complete blood count determines the ratio of the volume packed red blood cells to that of whole blood.
A. Differential
B. Hematocrit
C. Hemoglobin
D. Glucose
B. Hematocrit
How many hematocrit tubes should be collected from the patient?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
B. 2
What type of blood sample is needed when performing a PKU?
A. Venipuncture
B. Capillary
C. Either one is acceptable
D. No correct answer
B. Capillary
A “V wave” will ________ be seen in a normal EKG.
A. Always
B. Sometimes
C. Never
D. Usually
C. Never
When there is no variation of R-R intervals it is called_______.
A. Irregular with a pattern
B. Absolutely regular
C. Essentially regular
D. Totally regular
B. Absolutely regular
When PVC’s fall on the “T wave”, occur in pairs, runs of 3 or more, or are multiform in nature, these conditions are called. _________.
A. Fused
B. Multiform
C. Life threatening
D. Uniform
C. Life threatening
Ventricular depolarization produces an electrical force or vector with 2 components: (1) magnitude or force, and (2) ________.
A. Amplitude
B. Ground electrode
C. Direction or shape
D. Polarization
C. Direction or shape
When PVCs fall on the P wave, occur in pairs, runs of three or more, or are multiform in nature, these conditions are called _______ .
A. Fused
B. Multiform
C. Life Threatening
D. Uniform
C. Life Threatening
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ wave represents atrial depolarization. A. S B. P C. R D. U
B. P
While the duration of the ST segment is not generally of clinical significance, it is an exceedingly important portion of the ECG because of __________ .
A. The fact that it follows the QRS complex.
B. Shifts up or down from the baseline.
C. Upward deflection from the baseline.
D. The shift away from the ischemic area.
B. Shifts up or down from the baseline.
When using an evacuated tube for the collection of electrolytes, use a ____ ____ tube.
A. Blue top
B. Red top
C. Black top
D. Lavender top
B. Red top
When collecting blood for a hematocrit test, use a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ . A. Lavender top evacuated tube B. Red top evacuated tube C. Blue top evacuated tube D. Yellow top evacuated tube
A. Lavender top evacuated tube
When collecting blood for a cholesterol test, use a ______ top evacuated tube.
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Lavender
A. Red
Sodium Citrate is an anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies because it protects certain of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ . A. Pro-coagulants B. Red Blood Cells C. White Blood Cells D. Enzyme Inhibitors
A. Pro_coagulants
The tube to collect whole blood with an additive in it has a _______ stopper .
A. Red
B. Lavender
C. Green
D. Yellow
B. Lavender
The color coding for the stopper of a tube with no additives is (for collection of serum) _______ .
A. Green
B. Black
C. Red
D. Blue
C. Red
At the location where you’re going to feel for a vein, wrap the tourniquet around the arm approximately ________ above the area.
A. Nine to ten inches
B. One foot
C. Three to four inches
D. One inch
C. Three to four inches
The cephalic, medial cubital and basilic veins are _________ used for venipuncture.
A. Seldom
B. Never
C. Dangerous when
D. Primarily
D. Primarily
When collecting blood by skin puncture from an infant, you should use a ______ .
A. 25g needle
B. Lancet
C. Scalpel
D. 23g needle
B. Lancet
The tube used to collect blood for a Complete Blood Count (CBC) is a ________ .
A. Red top, No additive
B. Blue top Sodium Citrate additive
C. Lavender top, Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid additive
D. Green top, Lithium Heparin additive
C. Lavender, Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid additive
Which of these lab tests monitor anti-coagulation therapy?
A. PT and APTT
B. T3 and T4
C. Hb and Hct
D. ABO and Rh
A. PT and APTT
Which one of the following evacuated tubes would be drawn first?
A. Red
B. Lavender
C. Gray
D. Green
A. Red
Making sure that a tube is correctly labeled with the patient’s complete name and Identification number is part of the facilities ________ plan.
A. Exposure Control
B. Incident Report
C. Quality Control
D. All Choices
C. Quality Control
When performing a venipuncture, if no blood flows into the tube, how would you correct this situation?
A. Gently insert the needle a little deeper.
B. Gently pull the needle out just a little.
C. Remove the needle and tourniquet and prepare another site.
D. All choices would be correct
D. All choices would be correct
If during a venipuncture procedure a patient has a syncopial episode, what would be your best course of action?
A. Continue the draw, you need the specimen
B. Remove the needle and tourniquet and lower the patient’s head and arms.
C. Begin CPR and contact 911.
D. Restrain the patient to keep them from causing bodily injury.
B. Remove the needle and tourniquet and lower the patient’s head and arms.
The most appropriate site for performing a capillary puncture on a healthy adult is the _______ .
A. Great toe
B. Earlobes
C. Fingers
D. Forearms
C. Fingers
It’s very important while performing a capillary puncture to do which of the following?
A. Wipe away the first drop of blood.
B. To forcefully make the puncture.
C. Not use alcohol to clean the site.
D. it’s important to do all of the above.
A. Wipe away the first drop of blood.
Performing a _______ as part of a Complete Blood Count (CBC) determines the ratio of the volume of packed Red Blood Cells to that of Whole Blood.
A. Differential
B. Hematocrit
C. Hemoglobin
D. Glucode
B. Hematocrit
_________ values are increased in infections and inflammatory disease.
A. Glucose
B. Hematocrit
C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rates
D. Coagulation
C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rates
NB: ESR is the blood test to check for inflammation and infections.
What type of blood sample will be needed to perform a hemoglobin test?
A. EDTA additive
B. Serum Only
D. White Blood Cells
D. No correct answer
A. EDTA additive
In drug testing, the ______ regulations describe how evidence is to be collected and handled.
A. Chain of Command
B. Chain of Custody
C. Person in/Charge
D. Local Law Enforcement
B. Chain of Custody
A(n) ________ requires the patient to be fasting and then blood taken every hour for a predetermined time.
A. Cholesterol test
B. White Blood Cell count
C. Differential
D. Glucose Tolerance Test
D.Glucose Tolerance Test
The sebaceous glands, skin, hair and nails make up the _____system.
A. Nervous
B. Cardiovascular
C. Sensory
D. Integumentary
D. Integumentary
The heart, lymphatic organs, and blood vessels are in the _____system
A. Respiratory
B. Cardiovascular
C. Digestive
D. Urinary
B. Cardiovascular
The upper middle area of the abdomen is called the \_\_\_\_\_. A. Hypogastic region B. Epigastric region C. Umbilical region D. No correct answer
B. Epigastric region
The lower middle area of the abdomen is called the _____.
A. Hypogastic region
B. Epigastric region
C. Umbilical region
D. No correct answer
A. Hypogastric region
The central middle area of the abdomen is called the _____.
A. Hypogastic region
B. Epigastric region
C. Umbilical region
D. No correct answer
C. Umbilical region
The ulna is located in the ________.
A. Back
B. Foot
C. Leg
D. Arm
d. Arm
The smaller of the lower leg bones is called the _______.
A. Fibula
B. Tibia
C. Patella
D. Femur
A. Fibula
The muscle that flexes and supinates the forearm is called the ______.
A. Deltoid
B. Biceps brachii
C. Rectus femorus
D. Vastus lateralis
B. Biceps brachii
One of the arteries that supplies the hand and forearm is called the _____.
A. Intercostal
B. Ulnar
C. Brachial
D. Renal
B. Ulnar
The major artery that supplies the abdomen is called the _____ artery.
A. Celiac
B. Carotid
C. Brachial
D. Iliac
A. Celiac
The major artery that supplies the thorax is called the _____ artery.
A. Renal
B. Intercostal
C. Radial
D. Aorta
B. Intercostal
The major artery that supplies the kidney is called the _____artery.
A. Celiac
B. Renal
C. Ulnar
D. Brachial
B. Renal
The windpipe which conducts air between the larynx and the lungs is called the _______.
A. larynx
B. pharynx
C. trachea
D. lungs
C. trachea
The divisions of the trachea which enter the lungs are called the ______.
A. Pharynx
B. Trachea
C. Bronchi
D. Larynx
C. Bronchi
Located between the pharynx and trachea and containing the vocal cords is the _____.
A. larynx
B. pharynx
C. nasal cavity
D. trachea
A. larynx
Inflammation of the pleura is called _____ .
A. Pneumonia
B. Pleurisy
C. Atelactasis
D. Pleural Effusion
B. Pleurisy
Escape of fluid into the thoracic cavity is called-_____ .
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Pleural Effusion
C. Emphysema
D. Pneumonia
B. Pleural Effusion
Infected pressure soars on the skin are called ____ .
A. Decubitus Ulcers
B. Carbuncles
C. Furuncles
D. Hernias
A. Decubitus Ulcers
The healthy adult excretes daily approximately _____ of urine.
A. 1000 to 1500 milliliters
B. 5 to 100 milliliters
C. 4000 to 6000 milliliters
D. 100 to 500 milliliters
A. 1000 to 1500 milliliters
A drug that causes the pupil of the eye to dilate is called a \_\_\_\_\_ . A. Myotic B. Mydriatic c. Placebo D. Vaccine
B. Mydriatic
A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of oil in water, such as castor oil is called a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_ . A. Solution B. Emulsion C. Elixir D. Tincture
B. Emulsion
Hydrocortisone is a drug that is used to suppress _____.
A. Swelling
B. Appetite
C. Inflammation
D. Excretion of Urine
C. Inflammation
Schedule IV drugs include______ .
A. includes various narcotics such as opium
B. substances that have no accepted medical use and high potential for abuse
C. minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse
D. no correct answer
C. minor tranquilizers ad hypnotics that have lesser potential for abuse
Oxygen is ordered as a percentage of oxygen concentration and it's rate of delivery is written as \_\_\_\_\_\_ . A. liters per minute B. volume per minute C. degrees per minute D. percentage per minute
A. liters per minute
The abbreviation for elixir is \_\_\_\_\_ . A. elix B. exr C. elx D. EX
A. elix
The abbreviation for emulsion is \_\_\_\_\_ . A. emul B. eml C. els D. EML
A. emul
The abbreviation for syrup is \_\_\_\_\_ . A. sup B. syr C. spp D. syp
B. syr
The abbreviation for right ear is _____ .
A. AD
B. RE
C. re
D. rter
A. AD
The abbreviation for both ears is _____ .
A. AU
B. BE
C. bthe
D. BERS
A. AU
The _____ pages of the Physician’s Desk Reference is where a MA would be able to locate a medication by brand or generic name.
A. white
B. blue
C. pink
D. gray
C. pink
The medical term for straightening of a body part is
called _____ .
A. extension
B. flexion
C. dorsiflexion
D. pronation
A. extension
The medical term for moving a body part away from the body is _____ .
A. rotation
B. abduction
C. dorsiflexion
D. pronation
B. abduction
The medical term for bending a body part is ______ .
A. dorsiflexion
B. external rotation
C. flexion
D. range of motion
C. flexion
The medical term for bending backward is ______ .
A. contracture
B. dorsiflexion
C. hyperextension
D. extension
B. dorsiflexion
The medical term for tube feeding is _____ .
A. IV
B. gavage
C. IVN
D. esophageal introduction
B. gavage
The common term for a decubitus ulcer; a pressure sore is ______ .
A. blister
B. pimple
C. fever blister
D. bedsore
D. bedsore
The term “phlebo” means ______ .
A. vein
B. breathing
C. air, lungs
D. alongside of
A. vein
The word elements “algia, aglesia” refer to ______ .
A. artery
B. pain
C. against
D. air
B. pain
The word element “emisis” means _____ .
A. vomiting
B. kill
C. weakness
D. no correct answer
A. vomiting
The abbreviation for chief complaint is ______ .
A. CC
B. CCom
C. chf
D. CCDF
A. CC
The abbreviation for grain is ______ .
A. gr
B. g
C. gn
D. grn
A. gr
A flat, colored spot on the skin is called a_____ .
A. Cyst
B. Pustule
C. Macule.
D. Wheal
C. Macule
Example: freckle
A small, solid skin elevation is called a _____ .
A. Pustule
B. Nodule
C. Papule
D. Cyst
C. Papule
Example: Skin tag or Basil Cell Carcinoma
A small knot-like mass on the skin is called a _____ .
A. Macule
B. Nodule
C. Pustule
D. Cyst
B. Nodule
Example: Lipoma, Metastatic carcinoma, rheumatoid nodule
A round, itchy elevation of the skin is called a_____ .
A. Papule
B. Pustule
C. Cyst
D. Wheal
D. Wheal
Example : Urticaria (hives)
A small elevation of epidermis containing liquid is called_____ .
A. Cyst
B. Pustule
C. Nodule
D. Vesicle
D. Vesicle
Example: herpes zoster (shingles), herpes simplex virus type 1, contact dermatitis
An elevation on the skin containing pus is called a ______ .
A. Pustule
B. Cyst
C. Vesicle
D. Wheal
A. Pustule
Example: impetigo, acne
A closed sac on the skin containing fluid or semisolid material is called _____ .
A. Macule
B. Papule
C. Cyst
D. Vesicle
C. Cyst
Example: acne
Can a Cyst also be a pustule?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Neither
D. Trenton, NJ
A. Yes
The word element “stomato” means_____ .
A. mouth or the ostium uteri
B. Upper Intestine
C. psychogenic symptoms
D. gallstones
A. mouth or ostium uteri
“Contact with blood, or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply through per-cutaneous inoculation, or contact with an open wound, non-intact skin, or mucous membrane during the performance of normal duties” this definition (found in the Federal Register) applies to _____ .
A. human exposure
B. exposed worker
C. worker stress
D. stressed worker
A. Human Exposure
All workers whose jobs involve participation in tasks, or activities with exposure to blood, or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply, should be vaccinated with _____ vaccine.
A. human immunodeficiency
B. hepatitis C
C. small pox
D. hepatitis B
D. hepatitis B
______ testing should be made available by the employer to all workers who may be concerned they have been infected with HIV through a occupational exposure.
A. Serologic
B. Blood
C. Immediate
D. Bacterial
A. Serologic
Studies show that the potential for salivary transmission of HIV is _____ .
A. Frequent
B. 25%
C. Remote
D. As frequent as blood transmission
C. Remote
Vaccinations against HBV infection provide 90% protection against Hepatitis B for _____ or more years following vaccination.
A. Seven
B. Ten
C. Four
D. Twelve
A. Seven
Viruses can reproduce only in ______ .
A. dead cells
B. living cells
C. both A. and B.
D. no correct answer
B. living cells
the process of killing microorganisms in a certain place is called _____ .
A. disinfection
B. washing
C. sterilization
D. dusting
C. sterilization
Practices to achieve asepsis are know as _____ .
A. medical asepsis
B. contamination
C. clean technique
D. both A. and C.
D. both A. and C.
You should wash you hands for approximately _____ .
A. 15 seconds
B. 1 to 2 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 5 minutes
B. 1 to 2 minutes
The least reliable measurement
for body temperature is taken _____ .
A. Rectally
B. Orally
C. Axillary
D. All are equally reliable
C. Axillary
The most accurate and reliable measurement of body temperature is _____ .
A. Rectal
B. Oral
C. Axillary
D. Nasal
A. Rectal
AKA Core Temperature
A respiratory rate greater than 24 RPM is called \_\_\_\_\_ . A. Apnea B. Hypoventilation C. Tachypnea D. Bradycardia
C. Tachypnea
The blood pressure reading should not be taken on an arm if _____ .
A. the patient has had breast surgery on that side
B. on an arm with an IV infusion
C. on an arm with a cast
D. all answers are correct
D. all answers are correct
When the patient is breathing with only the upper part of the lungs, this is referred to as _____ .
A. shallow respiration
B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
C. stertorous respiration
D. abdominal respiration
C. shallow respiration
When the patient makes abnormal noises like snoring sounds while breathing, it is called _____ .
A. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
B. irregular respiration
C. abdominal respiration
D. stertorous respiration
D. stertorous respiration
When the heart is contracting, the pressure is highest. This pressure is called the _____ .
A. systolic pressure
B. diastolic pressure
C. air pressure
D. high pressure
A. systolic pressure
When taking the pulse, you must be able to report _____ .
A. rhythm
B. rate
C. force
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
The instrument used for auditory and sensory perception is called the _____ .
A. percussion hammer
B. tuning fork
C. tape measure
D. speculum
B. tuning fork
An apical pulse is the preferred method of taking temperature for _____ .
A. infants and young children
B. children over four
C. adolescents
D. adults aged 20 to 40
A. infants and young children
A(n) _____ report includes information relating to the patient’s main reason for scheduling an appointment to see the physician.
A. consultation
B. operative
C. history and physical exam
D. referral
C. history and physical
Which method can be used to enter a health history into the health record?
A. The pt completes it on a computer
B. Pt completes a paper form, and it’s scanned into the record
C. The provider enters the information while interviewing the pt.
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
How do insurance companies used procedural codes?
A. To decide if there is enough information in the medical record
B. To determine the level of care the pt received
C. To determine if the pt is being cared for properly
D. To decide weather the care being given corresponds to the patient’s disease.
E. To bill the pt.
D. To decide weather the care being given corresponds to the patient’s disease.
Which must always be completed on the insurance claim form?
A. Referring physician name B. Employer's name C. Date of the onset of illness D. If the physician accepts assignment of benefits E. All of the above
D. If the physician accepts assignment of benefits
Open punctuation is characterized by:
A. Enclosure notation B. Absence of punctuation after the salutation and a comma after the complimentary close C. Modified block style D. Use of a colon after the salutation E. Block style
B. Absence of punctuation after the salutation and a colon after the complimentary close
A numeric filing system require the use of:
A. Lateral files B. An alphabetic cross reference C. Color-coding D. A tickler file E. Subject headings
B. An alphabetical cross reference
Which of the following is an addition to the ICD-10 compared to the ICD-9?
A. Greater number of codes B. More information on ambulatory care C. Expansion of injury codes D. Additional letters and digits E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Which of the following pieces of correspondence is best sent by certified mail with a return receipt requested?
A. Pt records requested by another provider
B. Fragile items with a high value
C. Bill payments
D. Letter to pt who has missed several appointments to find a new provider
E. All of the above
D. Letter to a pt who has missed several appointments to find a new provider
Which of the following are E& M descriptors?
A. Physical Exam B. School Physical C. Well Baby check D. Pr-op physical E. All of the above
E. All of the above
The correct way to indicate an enclosure notation is:
A. encl: B. Enclosure C. enclosure D. enc E. encl
B. Enclosure
An encounter form/superbill provides which of the following?
A. Insurance claim B. Fee schedule C. Deposit slip D. Dictation E. Abnormal test results
A. Insurance claim
Which coding system is not associated with medical procedures?
A. CPT
B. International Classification of Diseases, 10th edition, Clinical Modification (ICD-10-CM)
C. Health Care Financing Administration Common Procedure System (HCPCS)
D. Relative Value Scale
E. Resource Based RVS (RBRVS)
B. International Classification of Diseases, 10th Edition,Clinical Modification (ICD-10-CM)
Which is not an indexing rule:
A. Unit 1 is the surname B. A hyphen is disregarded C. Initials come after complete names D. Apostrophes are disregarded E. Names are divided into units
C. Initials come after complete names
The appointment system in the ooffice should take into account the needs of the :
A. Staff B. Physician C. Patients D. A and B only E. B and C only
E. B and C only
“Dear Mrs. May:” is an example of:
A. Open punctuation B. Mixed punctuation C. Block punctuation D. Semi-block punctuation E. Modified block
B. Mixed punctuation
The master list of equipment inventory includes all of the following except:
A. Date of purchase B. Cost C. Operating Manuals D. Estimated life of the piece E. Description
C. Operating Manuals
The notation “c: Julia Jones, MD” means:
A. A copy is made for Dr Jones
B. A copy of the letter is sent to Dr. Jones
C. The receiver has been notified that a letter has been sent to Dr. Jones
D. Dr. Jones will answer the letter
E. The copy was sent to Dr. Jones via certified mail
B. A copy of the letter is sent to Dr. Jones
The most common color-coded system color codes the:
A. Pt Soc Sec number B. Pt DOB C. Pt given name D. Pt surname E. Pt account number
D. Pt surname
A major advantage of using a computer for word processing is :
A. Extensive editing capability B. Speed of processing C. Spell-check D. Column layout E. Storage capacity
A. Extensive editing capability
Which is not true of certified mail?
A. Insurance coverage is available
B. Receipt of delivery can be obtained for a fee
C. Only 1st Class mail can be certified
D. Record of delivery is kept by the PO
E. Restricted delivery can be obtained for a fee
A. Insurance coverage is available
Which letter style requires that the complimentary closing and typed signature be placed in line with he left margin of the body of the letter?
A. Block style B. Semi-block style C. Full Block style D. Indented style E. Semi-indented Style
C. Full Block style
The second page of a two page letter contains which of the following in the heading:
A. Name and date B. Name and page number C. Name, page number and date D. Name, page number date and subject E. Name, writers name, subject and date
C. Name, page number and date
The complimentary close of a letter is typed how many lines below the last line of the body?
A. Two B. Three c. Four D. Five E. Ten
A. Two
A good telephone technique is a:
A. High-pitched voice B. Low-pitched and expressive voice C. Monotone voice D. Breathless and excited voice E. Soft-spoken voice
B. Low-pitched and expressive voice
Blood that is low in oxygen exits the heart through the:
A. Aorta
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Pulmonary vein
D. Inferior Vena Cava
B. Pulmonary Artery
Spermatozoa is the product of the :
A. Epididymis
B. Seminiferous tubules
C. Prostate Gland
D. Vas Deferens
B. Seminiferous tubules
A pt whose husband recently died comes into the office due to malaise. She tells the MA that she wishes that she were dead. Which would be the most sensitive response to this pt?
A. “Please tell me more about those feelings!”
B. “Why is that?”
C. “You need to talk to the doctor about this.”
D. “That’s natural to feel that way after the death of a spouse.”
A. “Please tell me more about those feelings!”
What’s the best 1st step when dealing with a pt that is angry distraught?
A. Escort the pt to a private area
B. Ask the pt to calm down
C. Inform the pt that the doctor will see them shortly
D. Ask the pt to have a seat in the waiting room
B. Ask the pt to calm down
An elderly pt wishes to move into a facility that will allow her to remain autonomous. Where would the MA refer this pt?
A. An assisted living community
B. A retirement complex with individual apartments
C. An extended care facility
D. A rehabilitation hospital
B. A retirement complex with individual apartments
Which od the following allows data to be saved on a compact disk to be read but not altered?
A. A. Clipboard
B. Save as
C. Write-protect
D. Read-only memory
C. Write-protect
A spreadsheet would be commonly used for which of
the following?
A. Word processing
B. Appointment scheduling
C. Electronic mailings
D. Accounting
D. Accounting
Which tax is paid entirely by the employer?
A. Soc Sec
B. Health Insurance
C. FICA
D. Unemployment tax
D. Unemployment tax
Which is not an indexing rule?
A. Unit 1 is the surname
B. A hyphen is disregarded
C. Initials come after complete names
D. Apostrophes are disregarded
C. Initials come after complete names
The correct way to indicate an enclosure notation is:
A. encl:
B. Enclosure
C. enclosure
D. enc
B. Enclosure
In a double entry accounting system, an asset would be:
A. The amount owed to a creditor
B. Properties owned by the business
C. Money owed to the practice by patients
D. The amount by which liabilities exceed the equity
C. Money owed to the practice by patients
Which of the following is an example of an indirect filing system?
A. Alphabetic
B. Chronological
C. Numerical
D. Subject
C. Numerical
When is the most appropriate time to discuss payment arrangements with a new patient?
A. When the pt calls to make an appointment
B. When their insurance form is processed
C. When statements are sent out
D. At the time of the first visit
A. When the pt calls to make an appointment
When the word “Confidential” is to be typed on an envelope, it should be placed:
A. Lower Right corner
B. Lower left corner
C. Below the return address
D. Both B and C
C. Below the return address
Which needle length and gauge would the MA choose to administer an IM injection?
A. 1”, 25 gauge
B. 1 1/2”, 22 gauge
C. 1”, 18 gauge
D. 1/2”, 22 gauge
B. 1 1/2”, 22 gauge
The setup for an exam for a pt with vaginitis, all of the following would be used except:
A. Vaginal Speculum
B. Microscope slide
C. Potassium hydroxide (KOH)
D. Cytologic fixative
D. Cytologic fixative
When performing an electrocardiogram, which chest leads would be places on the fifth intercostal space and the midclavicular line?
A. V1
B. V2
C. V3
D. V4
D. V4
Which of the following UA results are abnormal?
A. Color: Yellow
B. pH: 5.2
C. Specific Gravity: 1.005
D. Leukocytes: ++
D. Leukocytes: ++
The first group of leads to be recorded on a n electrocardiogram consists of:
A. Leads I, II and III
B. aVR, aVL, and aVF
C. Leads V1 through V3
D. Leads V1 through V6
A. Leads I, II and III
A pt has a nosebleed. What is the appropriate first action by the MA?
A. Apply ice to the patient’s nose
B. Call 911
C. Tell the pt to lie down
D. Tilt the patient’s head forward
D. Tilt the patient’s head forward
The abbreviation for both eyes is :
A. OS
B. OD
C. OU
D. BE
C. OU
On a gram stain, gram negative bacteria appear:
A. Blue
B. Pink or Red
C. Green
D. Purple
B. Pink or Red
Which of the following substances in urine might indicate liver dysfunction?
A. Albumin
B. Glucose
C. Ketones
D. Urobilinogen
D. Urobilinogen
Which injury would be classifies as a “closed” wound?
A. Puncture
B. Laceration
C. Ecchymosis
D. Avulsion
C. Ecchymosis
During manual audiometry, the pt should be positioned:
A. Facing away from the examiner
B. Behind the examiner
C. Facing the examiner
D. Next to the examiner
A. Facing away from the examiner
Disposable, single use gloves should be worn:
A. When talking BP B. When handling specimens C. When performing venipuncture D. All of the above E. B and C
E. B and C
Pulse rate is decreased by:
A. Sleep B. Brain injury, causing increased pressure C. Hypothyroidism D. A and B E. All of the above
E. All of the above
A patient’s reaction to stress, use of defense mechanisms and resources for support would be recorded under:
A. CC B. Past History C. History of Present Illness D. Social History E. Family History
D. Social History
Subjective information includes:
A. How the pt feels B. Information about the patient's family C. Previous pregnancies D. All of the above E. A and B
D. All of the above
A pt in the Sim’s position is lying on the :
A. R side with L leg flexed B. L side and chest with R leg flexed C. Back with both legs bent D. R side with R leg flexed E. L side with L leg flexed
B. L side and chest with R leg flexed
For an obstetrics exam, urine is routinely checked for the presence of:
A. glucose and protein B. glucose and ketones C. HCG D. Proteins and ketones E. Blood And Glucose
A. glucose and protein
To administer an IM injection on an adult, which needle would you use?
A. 1", 25 g B. 1 1/2", 21g C. 1", 18g D. 1/2", 22g E. 2", 20g
B. 1 1/2”, 21g
The wave on an EKG that represents contraction of the atria is the :
A. P B. QRS C. T D. V E. R
E. R
The standard speed for recording an EKG is:
A. 5 mm/ sec B. 10 mm/ sec C. 20 mm/ sec D. 25 mm/ sec E. 50 mm/ sec
D. 25 mm/ sec
The purpose of having the pt empty their bladder before a physical exam includes all of the following except:
A. obtain urine specimen for testing B. To make the exam go easier C. To prevent urinary incontinence D. To provide for pt comfort E. None of the above
C. To prevent urinary incontinence
Which lab result should be called to the attention of the physician?
A. WBC: 7200/mm B. RBC: 4.4million/mm C. Hgb: 12g/dL D. ESR: 30mm/hr E. Total cholesterol: 180 mg
E. Total cholesterol: 180 mg
Most drugs are metabolized in the:
A. Lungs B. Blood C. Stomach D. Liver E. Intestines
D. Liver
The two most important factors in hand washing are:
A. Water temperature and soap B. Friction and running water C. Position of hands in hot water D. Time and soap E. Friction and soap
E. Friction and soap
At what age is the first mumps, measels, rubella (MMR) vaccination recommended?
A. 2 mo B. 4 mo C. Birth D. 12 mo E. 5 years
D. 12 mo
The reaction of the purified protein derivative (PPD or TB) test is read at:
A. 12 to 24 hr B. 48 to 72 hr C. Immediately D. 24 to 36 hr E. 4 to 8 hr
B. 48 to 72 hr
The technique that provides a three dimensional look at soft tissue is :
A. US B. CT C. Myelography D. Tomography E. IVP
B. CT
Massive and prolonged exposure to radiation can cause:
A. Cancer B. Anemia C. Leukemia D. Arthritis E. Death
A. Cancer
The 1st dose of DTaP vaccine should be given at:
A. 2 mo B. 4 mo C. 12 mo D. 5 yr E. 12 yr
A. 2 mo
The abbreviation for the L ear is:
A. AD B. AS C. AU D. OD E. OS
B. AS
The body cavity that contains the intestines is the:
A. Thoracic B. Spinal C. Abdominal D. Pleural E. Peritoneal
C. Abdominal
Which nerve stimulates the diaphram?
A. Trochlear B. Accessory C. Sciatic D. Phrenic E. Vagus
D. Phrenic
Which is an example of “social” personal space?
A. 12 to 15 feet B. Touching to 1 1/2 feet C. 4 to 12 feet D. 1 1/2 to 4 feet E. Private
C. 4 to 12 feet
A breast mass is found in a woman whose mother and sister have died of breast cancer. She cancels her next three appointments. Which defense mechanism is she using?
A. Denial B. Anxiety C. Acceptance D. Isolation E. Suppression
A. Denial
Which of the following is not an example of stereotyping?
A. Similar people have similar needs
B. Elderly patients have hearing deficits
C. Medicaid patients are lazy
D. Educated patients have no fear of illness
E. Children react differently to stressful situations
E. Children react differently to stressful situations
The cell from which a muscle develops is called a(n):
A. Myeloblast B. Osteoblast C. Myoblast D. Myoclast E. Erythroblast
C. Myoblast
Unconsciously avoiding an unpleasant reality is:
A. Regression B. Denial C. Suppression D. Rationalization E. Repression
B. Denial
A sexually transmitted disease caused by a protazoal infestation is called:
A. Herpes B. Gonorrhea C. Trichomoniasis D. Crabs E. Syphylis
C. Trichomoniasis
The type of membrane that lines cavities of the body that don’t open to the outside is:
A. Cutaneous B. Serous C. Mucous D. Pleural E. Peritoneum
B. Serous
The ventral region of the body is known as:
A. Superior B. lateral C. Medial D. Anterior E. Posterior
D. Anterior
The acute infectious skin disease is caused by Staphylococci.
A. Impetigo B. Psoriasis C. Athlete's foot D. Melanoma E. Eczema
A. Impetigo
The surgical removal of the Gallbladder is called:
A. Cholectomy B. Colostomy C. Cholecystectomy D. Laparoscopy E. Gastrectomy
C. Cholecystectomy
Restrictions of confidentiality would apply to which of these situations?
A. A minor requesting confidential services B. Anything the pt tells the provider C. Information on the medical record D. Demographic information E. All of the above
E. All of the above
