M5_Practice Questions Flashcards
DF&DDS:
What do you call a drug product that is designed to contain a specified quantity of medication and a number of non-therapeutic ingredients
A. Dosage form
B. Drug Delivery System
C. Drug
D. Excipients
A. Dosage Form
DF&DDS:
Which of the following cosmetics is regulated as drug product?
A. Sunscreen lotions
B. Antiperspirants
C. Hair dyes
D. Lipsticks
B. Antiperspirant
DF&DDS:
Which of the following drug products provide systemic effects?
A. Kamillosan spray
B. Beta done solution
C. Lanoxin Elixir
D. Vaseline petroleum jelly
C. Lanolin Elixir
DF&DDS:
How is a powder composed of particles that all pass through a No. 80 sieve classified?
A. Fine powder
B. Coarse powder
C. Very fine powder
D. Very coarse powder
C. Very fine powder
DF&DDS:
A method of preparing powders which may be employed both to comminute and mix the ingredients; for comminution purposes, a porcelain or wedgewood mortar with a rough inner surface is preferred.
A. Levigation
B. Pulverization by intervention
C. Geometric dilution
D. Trituration
D. Trituration
DF&DDS:
These are finely divided powders that are intended to be applied in a body cavity using a special device.
A. Insufflations
B. Douche powders
C. Dusting powders
D. Dentifrices
A. Insufflations
DF&DDS:
If the powder contains hygroscopic or deliquescent materials, the type of paper used to hold the powder should be:
A. Bond paper
B. Glassine paper
C. Vegetable parchment paper
D. Waxed paper
D. Waxed paper
DF&DDS:
The following statements are TRUE regarding granules, EXCEPT:
A. Granules have better flow characteristics than powders
B. Granules are less likely to cake upon standing than powders
C. Granules are less easily wetted by liquids than powders
D. Granules are more stable to humidity than powders
C. Granules are less easily wetted by liquids than powders
DF&DDS:
In preparing effervescent granules, using citric acid alone results in:
A. Sticky mixture
B. Granules that readily crumble
C. Uncontrollable effervescence
D. Firm granules
A. Sticky mixture
DF&DDS:
These are tablets that allow the compaction of a dry coating around a tablet core, produced on the same machine:
A. Enteric-coated tablets
B. Sugarcoated tablets
C. Layered tablets
D. Compression-coated tablets
D. Compression-coated tablets
DF&DDS:
Which of the following formulation approaches would be useful to prevent oxytocin’s destruction by gastrointestinal peptidase?
A. Preparation as buccal tablet
B. Preparation as chewable tablet
C. Preparation as orally disintegrating tablet
D. None of the above
A. Preparation as buccal tablet
DF&DDS:
These are soft, readily soluble tablets that were originally used for the preparation of solutions to be injected:
A. Dispensing tablets
B. Hypodermic tablets
C. Compounding tablets
D. Tablets triturates
B. Hypodermic tablets
DF&DDS:
These statements BEST describe hard gelatin capsules, EXCEPT:
A. Also known as two-piece capsules
B. May contain SO2 to prevent microbial growth
C. Become soft and deformed iof stored at high humidity
D. No. 0 is the largest size that can be swallowed by human
D. No. 0 is the largest size that can be swallowed by human
DF&DDS:
This drug delivery system achieves slow release of drug over an extended period of time
A. Delayed release
B. Sustained release
C. Receptor release
D. Site-specific release
B. Sustained release
DF&DDS:
TRUE about rectal suppositories:
A. Also known as pessaries
B. Shaped like a pencil
C. Usually about 32 mm long
D. Weigh about 5g each
C. Usually about 32 mm long
DF&DDS:
The following are examples of oleaginous suppository bases, EXCEPT:
A. Wecobee
B. Polyethylene glycol
C. Fattibase
D. Cocoa butter
B. Polyethylene glycol
DF&DDS:
Classify the following ointment base: Polyethylene Glycol Ointment, NF
A. Oleaginous
B. Absorption
C. Water-removable
D. Water-soluble
D. Water-soluble
DF&DDS:
Classify cold cream as semi-solid base
A. W/O emulsifiable base
B. W/O emulsified base
C. O/W emulsifiable base
D. O/W emulsified base
B. W/O emulsified base
DF&DDS:
It is the contraction or shrinkage of gels as a result of squeezing out of dispersion medium from the gel matrix.
A. Imbibition
B. Swelling
C. Syneresis
D. Thixotropy
C. Syneresis
DF&DDS:
A solid or semi-solid mas supplied on a backing material and intended to provide prolonged contact with the skin.
A. Paste
B. Poultice
C. Plaster
D. Pledget
C. Plaster
DF&DDS:
How many percent of ZnO is contained Zinc glycerogelatin?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 35%
D. 40%
A. 10%
DF&DDS:
Which of the following terms is used to describe the solubility of a drug if 1 part of it completely dissolved in 30 to 100 parts of water?
A. Sparingly soluble
B. Soluble
C. Slightly soluble
D. Freely soluble
A. Sparingly soluble
DF&DDS:
Purified Water, USP may be prepared by:
A. Distillation
B. Reverse Osmosis
C. Ion-exchange treatment
D. A and B
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
DF&DDS:
For OTC oral products intended for children under 6 years of age, the recommended alcohol content limit is:
A. 0.5 %
B. 1%
C. 5%
D. 10%
A. 0.5%
DF&DDS:
Glycerin is a clear syrupsy liquid used in a wide variety of pharmaceutical formulation as a/an:
A. Solvent
B. Humectant
C. Antimicrobial preservative
D. Viscosity-increasing agent
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
DF&DDS:
The following are the advantages of pharmaceutical solutions over solid dosage forms, EXCEPT:
A. Easier to swallow
B. More quickly effective
C. Less prone to microbial growth
D. Easier to adjust dose
C. Less prone to microbial growth
DF&DDS:
The following solution are classified as aqueous solution, EXCEPT:
A. Agua oxinada
B. Listerine mouthwash
C. White flower embrocation
D. Diluted hydrochloric acid
E. Fleet enema
C. White flower embrocation
DF&DDS:
A viscous oral liquid that contains one or more active ingredients dissolved in a suitable base that generally contains a higher concentration of sugar or other sugars
A. Linctus
B. Jelly
C. Syrup
D. Mucilage
E. Honey
A. Linctus
DF&DDS:
Select the oral dosage form which is a clear, flavored oral liquid containing one or more active ingredients dissolved in a suitable base that contains a high proportion of sucrose and may also contain ethanol (95%)or a diluted ethanol
A. Elixir
B. Tincture
C. Spirit
D. Fluid extract
A. Elixir
DF&DDS:
These preparations were once called “embrocations” which may be alcoholic or oil based solutions that are rubbed onto the affected area
A. Oleovitamins
B. Liniments
C. Pyroxylin
D. Colloidons
B. Liniments
DF&DDS:
A method of drug extraction where the properly comminuted drug is permitted to soak in the menstruum, and repeatedly agitated for 3 days or until the soluble matter is dissolved.
A. Decoction
B. Digestion
C. Infusion
D. Maceration
E. Percolation
D. Maceration
DF&DDS:
These are the main features desired Ina pharmaceutical suspension, EXCEPT:
A. The suspension should pour readily and evenly from its container
B. The suspended particles should settle rapidly and should be readily redispersed upon gentle shaking
C. The particle size should remain fairly constant throughout long periods of undisturbed standing
D. The particles that settle to the bottom do not form a cake
B. The suspended particles should settle rapidly and should be readily redispersed upon gentle shaking
DF&DDS:
Identify the pharmaceutical dispersed system that is a low-viscosity liquid preparation intended for application to the skin
A. Lotion
B. Gel
C. Mixture
D. Magma
A. Lotion
DF&DDS:
If the oleaginous phase is the internal phase, then the emulsion referred to as:
A. O/W emulsion
B. O/W/O emulsion
C. W/O emulsion
D. W/O/W emulsion
A. O/W emulsion
DF&DDS:
This theory of emulsification assumes monomolecular layers of emulsifying agent curved around a droplet of the internal phase of the emulsion
A. Interfacial film theory
B. Plastic theory
C. Oriented-wedge theory
D. Viscosity theory
E. Surface tension theory
C. Oriented-wedge theory
DF&DDS:
In this method of emulsion preparation, a mucilage is formed first before slowly incorporating the oil:
A. Continental method
B. English Method
C. Forbes bottle method
D. In-situ soap method
B. English Method
DF&DDS:
Intrathecal administration is the injection of a drug into the:
A. Heart chamber
B. Joint fluid
C. Cerebrospinal fluid
D. Artery
C. Cerebrospinal fluid
DF&DDS:
Aqueous vehicle for parenteral product include:
A. Water for injection
B. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection
C. Sodium Chloride Injection
D. A and B
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
DF&DDS:
Thimerosal is commonly added in parenteral solutions to act as:
A. Buffer
B. Tonicity adjuster
C. Preservative
D. Cosolvent
C. Preservative
DF&DDS:
The following sterile fluids are classified as large volume injection, EXCEPT:
A. Total parenteral nutrition
B. Ringer’s solution
C. Dextrose 5% injection
D. Humulin R
D. Humulin R
DF&DDS:
Characteristics of opthalmic preparations, EXCEPT:
A. Sterile
B. Free of grit
C. Usually absorbed in great extent
D. Solution, ointment and suspension form may be employed
E. None of the above
C. Usually absorbed in great extent
DF&DDS:
These are drugs or solutions or suspensions of one or more drug substances administered to the nasal or oral respiratory route for local or systemic effects.
A. Inhalers
B. Inhalations
C. Inhalants
D. Irrigations
B. Inhalations
DF&DDS:
Because irrigation solutions come in contact with exposed tissues, they must meet stringent requirements of the USP such as:
A. Sterility
B. Total solids
C. Bacterial endotoxins
D. A and B
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
DF&DDS:
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of transdermal drug delivery systems?
A. Useful for drugs with narrow therapeutic indices
B. Non-invasive
C. Avoids the GI tract
D. Larger doses can be administered
D. Larger doses can be administered
DF&DDS:
Part of a TDDS which protects the drug during storage and is removed prior to use to enable drug release:
A. Release liner
B. Rate-controlling membrane
C. Adhesive layer
D. Drug reservoir
A. Release liner
DF&DDS:
Identify which transdermal patch is placed on the back, abdomen, upper arms, or thighs for treatment of testosterone deficiency.
A. Androderm
B. Testoderm
C. Climara
D. Duragesic
A. Androderm
DF&DDS:
These are pressurized dosage forms that contain one or more active ingredients, which upon activation emit a fine dispersion of liquid and/or solid materials in a gaseous medium.
A. Inhalers
B. Inhalations
C. Insufflators
D. Aerosols
D. Aerosols
DF&DDS:
These are aerosols which release particles that are quite small to ensure that the product remains dispersed in air for a long time:
A. Surface sprays
B. Surface coatings
C. Space sprays
D. A and B
C. Space sprays
DF&DDS:
Select the part of the aerosol valve assembly which is placed snugly with the stem and serves to prevent leakage of the formulation when the valve is closed.
A. Mounting cup
B. Housing
C. Gasket
D. Dip tube
C. Gasket
DF&DDS:
Which of the following is NOT a radiopharmaceutical?
A. Rho(D) immune globulin injection
B. Co-57 capsules
C. I-131 injection
D. TC-99m macro aggregated albumin
A. Rho(D) immune globulin injection
MANUF:
The production of the active pharmaceutical ingredient or drug is known as:
A. Primary packaging
B. Secondary packaging
C. Tertiary packaging
D. Toll packaging
A. Primary packaging
MANUF:
TS Pharma Inc. is engaged in the distribution of anti-hypertensive drugs across the Philippines. Their product are sourced from cGMP-certified manufacturing plants in India. Hence, their company is:
A. Drug trader
B. Drug distributor - importer
C. Drug distributor - exporter
D. Drug distributor - wholesaler
B. Drug distributor - importer
MANUF:
Select the department in a manufacturing company that is responsible for formulating new products.
A. Regulatory Department
B. QA Department
C. R&D Department
D. QC Department
C. R&D Department
MANUF:
A standard document which give instructions to the Production Department to produce a pharmaceutical product for distribution/sale in the market
A. Master Formula
B. Batch Manufacturing Record
C. Manufacturing Order
D. Standard Operating Procedure
C. Manufacturing Order
MANUF:
Select the department in a pharmaceutical company that is mainly involved in the registration of drug products with the FDA
A. QA Department
B. QC Department
C. Medical Department
D. Regulatory Department
D. Regulatory Department
MANUF:
Determine the role of starch, clays, cellulose, gums, algins, and cross-linked, polymers in a tablet formulation.
A. Disintegrants
B. Lubricants
C. Flavors
D. Sweetening agents
A. Disintegrants
MANUF:
The preferred bulking agent for chewable tablets, which provides an excellent mouth-feel, due to its pleasant, cooling effect:
A. Sucrose
B. Microcrystalline cellulose
C. Mannitol
D. Lactose
C. Mannitol
MANUF:
Which of the following problems may arise if the amount of binder is too low or inadequate?
I. Under wet
II. Over wet
III. Too soft granules
IV. Too hard granules
A. I, III
B. II, III
C. I, IV
D. II, IV
A. I, III
MANUF:
This dye, also known as FD&C Yellow No. 5, may cause allergic type reactions in certain people:
A. Sunset Yellow
B. Tartrazine
C. Indigotine
D. Eyrthrosine
B. Tartrazine
MANUF:
A common lubricant added to tablet granulation:
A. Starch
B. Magnesium stearate
C. Mannitol
D. Acacia
B. Magnesium stearate
MANUF:
Select the technique for solving flavoring problems that involves forming a complex of the drug with ion-exchange resins or complexing agents.
A. Overshadow
B. Blending
C. Chemical
D. Physical
E. Physiological
C. Chemical
MANUF:
The following are examples of sweetening agents, EXCEPT:
A. Sorbitol
B. Splenda
C. Aspartame
D. Veegum
D. Veegum
MANUF:
Which of the following shows the correct order of the unit processes used in manufacturing of tablets?
I. Milling
II. Granulation
III. Tableting
IV. Dispensing
V. Mixing
A. IV-II-V-III-I
B. I-II-III-IV-V
C. IV-I-V-II-III
D. I-IV-V-III-II
C. IV-I-V-II-III
MANUF:
Type of milling equipment which makes use of high-velocity air stream to cause turbulence inside a chamber:
A. Fluid energy mill
B. Roller mill
C. Hammer mill
D. Cutter mill
A. Fluid energy mill
MANUF:
Which equipment is ideal for mixing powder mixtures in large volume quantity?
A. Drum roller
B. V-shell blender
C. Planetary mixer
D. Compactor mills
B. V-shell blender
MANUF:
In this dry granulation process, the powders are compressed into large flat tablets using a tablet press:
A. Roller compaction
B. Melt molding
C. Compression coating
D. Slugging
D. Slugging
MANUF:
Tablet granulations should possess:
A. Flowability
B. Compressibility
C. Solubility
D. Both A and B
D. Both A and B
MANUF:
This most widely used method of tablet granulation preparation, due to the greater probability that the granulation will meet all the physical requirements for the compression of good tablets:
A. Wet granulation
B. Dry granulation
C. Fluid-bed granulation
D. Direct compression
A. Wet granulation
MANUF:
Poor flow may result to:
A. Arching
B. Bridging
C. Rat-holing
D. A and B
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
MANUF:
Identify the part of a tableting machine which controls the sizes and shapes of the finished tablets.
A. Hopper
B. Cam tracks
C. Feed shoe
D. Die
E. Punches
D. Die
MANUF:
Examples of diluents used in direct compression technology include:
A. Spray-dried lactose
B. Microcrystalline cellulose
C. Crospovidone
D. A and B
E. All of the above
D. A and B
MANUF:
Wurster process involves the use of a:
A. Standard coating pan
B. Perforated coating pan
C. Fluidized bed coater
D. A or B
E. AOTA
C. Fluidized bed coater
MANUF:
This defect occurs at the top of the tablet and the top or cap, separates itself form the body of the solid tablet; it is often caused by air trapped in the powder material during the compression stage
A. Capping
B. Lamination
C. Chipping
D. Picking
A. Capping
MANUF:
This step in sugarcoating usually involves alternating gum solution with dusting powder until the desired shape is achieved:
A. Polishing
B. Sealing
C. Smoothing
D. Color coating
E. Subcoating
E. Subcoating
MANUF:
This film-coating component provide water solubility or permeability to the film:
A. Plasticizer
B. Surfactant
C. Alloying substance
D. Glossant
E. Film former
C. Alloying substance
MANUF:
This defect encountered in pharmaceutical film coating is due to core-swelling caused by excessive moisture uptake into tablet cores during application of coating.
A. Film cracking (Type I)
B. Film cracking (Type II)
C. Orange Peel
D. Twinning
B. Film cracking (Type II)
MANUF:
The most common method of manufacture or hard-gelatin capsules that uses completely automatic-machine, consisting of mechanisms for dipping, spinning, drying, stripping and joining the capsules:
A. Plate process
B. Pin method
C. Rotary die process
D. Reciprocating die method
B. Pin method
MANUF:
A special technique for HGCs which provides a tamper-proof feature to filled capsules, to prevent its unjoining:
A. Imprinting
B. Locking
C. Sealing
D. Coating
C. Sealing
MANUF:
This method of manufacturing ointments where the ingredients are melted together in a vessel and cooled with constant stirring until congealed:
A. Melt molding method
B. Pour molding method
C. Fusion method
D. Incorporation method
C. Fusion method
MANUF:
The oldest and simplest method of manufacturing soft gelatin capsules
A. Accogel Process
B. Plate Process
C. Rotary Die Process
D. Reciprocating Die Process
B. Plate Process
MANUF:
Choose the gelling agent that is NOT obtained from a natural source.
A. Methylcellulose
B. Starch
C. Bentonite
D. Tragacanth
A. Methylcellulose
MANUF:
Mixing tanks for manufacturing of liquid dosage forms are commonly made of stainless steel. Which grade of stainless steel is considered the most inert?
A. SS 304
B. SS 306
C. SS 314
D. SS 316
D. SS 316
MANUF:
This mixer is used frequently for the comminution of solids and dispersion of suspensions:
A. Ultrasonifier
B. Mechanical stirrer
C. Colloidal mill
D. Homogenizer
C. Colloidal mill
MANUF:
Which of the following preservatives can be classified as a quaternary ammonium compound?
A. Cetrimide
B. Chlorobutanol
C. Benzoic acid
D. Methyl Paraben
E. Thimerosal
A. Cetrimide
MANUF:
The following are considered true antioxidants, EXCEPT:
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Butylated hydroxyanisole
C. Alpha tocopherol
D. Propyl gallate
A. Ascorbic acid
MANUF:
Aluminum subacetate topical solution, USP is manufactured by:
A. Simple solution
B. Solution by chemical reaction
C. Solution by extraction
D. Percolation
B. Solution by chemical reaction
MANUF:
The following statements regarding manufacturing of solutions are true, EXCEPT:
A. One way to hasten the dissolution of Ca(OH)2 is to reduce the temp inside the mixing tank.
B. Solutions with high amounts of volatile oils must undergo storage and aging.
C. In series filtration, the solution passes through 2 or more filters.
D. Gravimetric filing is design to fill containers with an exact volume of solution
D. Gravimetric filing is design to fill containers with an exact volume of solution
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