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M4 DRILSS Flashcards

1
Q

Drugs are better absorbed in what form?

A

Nonpolar, Hydrophobic Form

Lipophilic, unionized, nonpolar drugs are absorbed better.

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2
Q

According to Fick’s Law of Diffusion, which of the following is inversely proportional to the rate of diffusion?

A

Thickness of Membrane

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3
Q

Which of the following describes carrier-mediated transport processes?

A

Displays Michaelis-Menten Kinetics

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4
Q

The most variable parameter in bioavailability that measures the rate and extent of drug entry into the systemic circulation is?

A

Cmax

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5
Q

Ceiling dose is:

A

The Minimum Dose That Will Produce The Maximum Achievable Response

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6
Q

Acidic Drugs Are Usually Bound To Which Blood Protein?

A

Albumin

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7
Q

It is the hypothetical or apparent volume of body fluid needed to dissolve a given amount of drug to a concentration equal to that in the plasma.

A

Volume Of Distribution

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8
Q

Diclofenac sodium and Diclofenac potassium are considered:

A

Pharmaceutical Alternatives

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9
Q

In the presence of a full agonist, a partial agonist becomes a/an:

A

Antagonist

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10
Q

Arrange the drugs in increasing potency.

A

C < B < A

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11
Q

Which of the following statements are true?

A

II only

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12
Q

Compute for the TD50 for a 70kg person if the TI is 3 and the ED50 is 20mg/kg.

A

4200

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13
Q

Drug A is an agonist and Drug B is a combination of Drug A and another drug, this other drug added to Drug A is most likely a/an:

A

Noncompetitive Antagonist

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14
Q

Which of the following increases the rate of gastric emptying?

A

I, II, IV

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15
Q

Certain groups of people require an increased dose of procainamide because of their fast acetylating mechanism. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

A

Egyptians

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16
Q

Methadone undergoes what kind of drug metabolism?

A

Carbonyl Reduction

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17
Q

As kidney disease progresses, the serum creatinine _________ and the creatinine clearance __________.

A

Increases; Decreases

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18
Q

Alteration of pH can alter renal elimination of certain toxins. Which of the following may be safely eliminated by alkalinization of urine?

A

II, III

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19
Q

Calculate for the total body clearance of a 58 kg patient if the drug follows a first order kinetics and has an elimination half-life of 4 hours and volume of distribution of 250mL/kg.

A

2.51 L/Hr

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20
Q

The following drugs are under zero order kinetics, except:

A

NOTA

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21
Q

A theory which states the effectiveness does not depend on the actual occupation of receptor by the drug, but upon obtaining the proper stimulus.

A

Hypothesis of Paton

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22
Q

Frequency of occurrence of adverse reactions upon exposure to the poison is called?

A

Risk

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23
Q

The primary mechanism of neurotransmitter release is accomplished by what process?

A

Exocytosis

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24
Q

Which receptor is responsible for piloerection?

A

Alpha-1

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25
Phenylephrine is an alpha-1 agonist used as a nasal decongestant. Which of the following could be an adverse effect of this drug?
Worsening of BPH Symptoms
26
Patient ABC has asthma and is taking a beta blocker for his hypertension. Which of the following beta blockers does not increase the risk of asthma exacerbation?
Atenolol
27
Abrupt discontinuation of beta blockers can lead to rebound hypertension or tachycardia. This is due to:
Receptor Up-regulation
28
Amphetamines are indirect-acting sympathomimetics. What mechanism do they target?
Release from the Vesicles
29
Fenoldopam is used for the acute treatment of hypertension. It is a/an:
Dopamine-1 Agonist
30
Catecholamine depleter that inhibits storage of catecholamines into the VMAT (Vesicular Monoamine Transporter)
Reserpine
31
Pheochromocytoma is defined as a:
Neuroendocrine Tumor Releasing High Amounts of Catecholamines
32
Telenzepine is used for the treatment of peptic ulcers. What receptor does it target?
M1
33
Which of the following is/are not symptoms of Sarin poisoning?
Two of The Above
34
True about succinylcholine, except:
I and III
35
Malignant hyperthermia is an inheritable disorder that occurs upon use of general anesthetics. What test is usually used for establishing the diagnosis of malignant hyperthermia?
Caffeine-Halothane Contracture Test
36
Reversible MAO-A inhibitor is?
Moclobemide
37
What is the active metabolite of hydroxyzine which is also available as an H1 antagonist without significant sedating effect?
Cetirizine
38
Which vitamin will have decreased absorption from food sources when a patient is taking an H2 blocker?
Vitamin B12
39
A given drug is known to target the 5HT-1D receptor. What is most likely the clinical indication of this drug?
Migraine
40
What is required for Vitamin B12 to be absorbed from food sources?
An acidic environment ## Footnote H2 blockers inhibit HCl production in the stomach, leading to decreased absorption of Vitamin B12.
41
What is the clinical indication for a drug targeting the 5HT-1D receptor?
Migraine
42
What class of agents is associated with retroperitoneal fibrosis?
Ergot Alkaloids
43
What is the prostaglandin analogue of misoprostol?
PGE1
44
What type of calcium channels are antagonized by Calcium Channel Blockers?
L-Type
45
Which dosing of an organic nitrate is least likely to induce tolerance?
As necessary dose of ISDN 5mg sublingually ## Footnote To avoid tolerance, nitrates must be given on a prn basis only.
46
What is the mechanism of action of Levosimendan?
Calcium Sensitizer
47
Which diuretic may be useful in epileptic women experiencing seizure exacerbations during menses?
Acetazolamide
48
Which ACE inhibitors are acute and not prodrugs?
Captopril and Enalaprilat
49
What side effect is common to Hydralazine, Diazoxide, and Minoxidil?
Reflex Tachycardia
50
What is the prodrug neprilysin inhibitor used in combination with valsartan?
Sacubitril
51
Which drug is a sodium channel blocker that prolongs the duration of action potential?
Disopyramide
52
What should be monitored in patients on Amiodarone?
Thyroid function, Liver enzymes, Pulmonary function
53
Which hormone is not produced by the pituitary gland?
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
54
Which zone of the adrenal cortex produces glucocorticoids?
Zona Fasciculata
55
What is the most commonly used glucocorticoid for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?
Dexamethasone
56
Which statement about thioamides is incorrect?
PTU has an additional mechanism which is inhibition of proteolysis.
57
What is secreted by pancreatic beta cells to facilitate glucose transport?
Insulin
58
Insulin is stored as a:
Hexamer
59
What type of insulin are Humalog and Apidra?
Rapid-Acting Insulins
60
Which sulfonylurea is most cardiotoxic?
Tolbutamide
61
What is the recombinant human insulin-like growth factor-1 used for?
Treatment of severe IGF-1 deficiency not responsive to GH
62
What is a prevalent side effect of norethindrone?
Breakthrough Bleeding
63
What is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain?
GABA
64
Which of the following inhibits D4 receptors in the brain?
I and III
65
What atypical antipsychotic is not given as first line due to adverse effects?
Clozapine
66
Which drug has been associated with extrapyramidal symptoms?
Metoclopramide
67
What are the advantages of SSRIs compared to other depression drugs?
Lesser lethality with overdose, Generally, no dose titration is necessary, Minimal cholinergic effects
68
What adverse effect led to the withdrawal of Nefazodone?
Hepatotoxicity
69
What is Bupropion classified as?
Norepinephrine-Dopamine Reuptake Inhibitor
70
Which drug is used with levodopa to prevent its peripheral conversion to dopamine?
Carbidopa
71
Diazepam acts on what type of receptor?
Ligand-Gated Ion Channel
72
What is the antidote for benzodiazepines?
Flumazenil
73
What is an intermediate-acting barbiturate?
Amobarbital
74
Which opioid is unlikely to induce bradycardia and biliary tract contraction?
Meperidine
75
Which of the following are ester-type local anesthetics?
Procaine and Tetracaine
76
What causes neurolept anesthesia?
Droperidol + Fentanyl + N2O
77
What is the mechanism of inhalational anesthetics?
Hyperpolarization Via Activation of Potassium Currents
78
What is the drug of choice for malignant hyperthermia?
Dantrolene
79
What antiplatelet drug reversibly inhibits adenosine diphosphate?
Clopidogrel
80
What is the DOC for malignant hyperthermia?
Dantrolene
81
Which antiplatelet reversibly inhibits adenosine diphosphate?
Ticagrelor
82
Which anticoagulant is monitored by aPTT?
Unfractionated Heparin
83
What is the pregnancy category of unfractionated heparin?
C
84
What does low molecular weight heparin specifically inactivate?
Factor Xa
85
Which patients are most likely to be prescribed filgrastim?
Patients with Chemotherapy-Induced Neutropenia
86
Complete the analogy: Chief cells: Pepsin: Parietal cells: _______
HCl
87
Therapy with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors is associated with which complications?
Rhabdomyolysis and myositis
88
Which drug should not be given to a patient allergic to sulfonamides?
Torsemide
89
Which statements about proton pump inhibitors are true? (Choose all that apply)
I, II, IV
90
What type of channel does Lubiprostone activate in the intestines?
Chloride channel
91
Which oral gold preparation is used for rheumatoid arthritis?
Auranofin
92
Which NSAID is associated with a higher risk of PUD?
Piroxicam
93
Which pyrazolone derivative is a uricosuric?
Sulfinpyrazone
94
Azathioprine and allopurinol should not be taken together because _______.
Allopurinol interferes with the metabolism of azathioprine
95
This immunosuppressant reversibly inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase.
Mycophenolate
96
Which drug is not an alkylating agent?
Irinotecan
97
What rescue drug can prevent cardiotoxicity caused by doxorubicin?
Dexrazoxane
98
Disulfiram inhibits which enzyme?
Aldehyde Dehydrogenase
99
Which area of toxicology focuses on direct toxicity testing?
Descriptive Toxicology
100
Which is not part of the universal antidote?
Magnesium Hydroxide
101
Characteristic of phosphorus intoxication is _______.
Luminous Vomit
102
What toxin is associated with sardines?
Venerupin
103
Which toxin is associated with stale peanuts?
Aflatoxin
104
What toxin is associated with oysters?
Clupeotoxin
105
Which toxin is associated with poison toad?
Tetrodotoxin
106
What toxin is associated with dinoflagellates?
Saxitoxin

m4 drills (3 decks)

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