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OPT 113 > M2 Study Guide > Flashcards

M2 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

afferent

A

to CNS
sensory

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2
Q

efferent

A

away from CNS
motor

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3
Q

what does the proencephalon (forebrain) consist of

A

telencephalon (cerebrum)
- olfactory (CN I): sensory only

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4
Q

what does the diencephalon (deep brain and hypothalamus, thalamus, and epithalamus) consist of

A

optic (CN II): sensory only

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5
Q

what does the rhombencephalon (hindbrain) consist of

A

metencephalon (pons)
myelencephalon (medulla)

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5
Q

what does the mesencephalon (midbrain) consist of

A

oculomotor (CN III): motor only
trochlear (IV): motor only

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5
Q

what does the myelencephalon (medulla) consist of

A

vestibulocochlear (VIII): sensory.
glossopharyngeal (IX): mixed.
vagus (X): mixed.
spinal accessory (XI): motor.
hypoglossal (XII): motor.

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5
Q

what does the metencephalon consist of

A

Trigeminal (V): mixed.
- ophthalmic (V1): sensory
- maxillary (V2): sensory
- mandibular (V3): mixed
abducens (VI): motor
facial (VII): mixed

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5
Q

what is the midbrain

A

connector between forebrain and hindbrain

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6
Q

what type of fibers does CN I have

A

sensory only (SVA)

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6
Q

sensory ganglia of the head

A

trigeminal (V)
geniculate (VII)

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6
Q

are autonomic ganglia of the head sympathetic or parasympathetic

A

parasympathetic because the ganglion for sympathetic innervation to the head and neck is located in the thorax as the superior-most ganglion of the sympathetic trunk = superior cervical ganglion

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6
Q

what are the autonomic ganglia of the head and what do they innervate

A

Ciliary (CN III):
- pupil constriction (miosis)
- accommodation (increased focusing ability of eye).
Pterygopalatine (VII):
- lacrimal and glands in nasal cavity and maxillary sinus (increased secretion).
Submandibular (VII):
- submandibular and sublingual salivary glands (increased secretion).
Otic (IX):
- parotid salivary gland (increased secretion).

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6
Q

what can happen to CN I following trauma

A

can be sheared by olfactory foramen.
ex. acceleration-deceleration such as automobile collisions

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7
Q

location of olfactory bulb

A

rests on cribriform plate of ethmoid within anterior cranial fossa

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7
Q

where do CN I rootlets enter

A

anterior cranial fossa via olfactory foramina within cribriform plate of ethmoid

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7
Q

where do the olfactory tracts from bulb project

A

telencephalon
ex. cerebrum

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8
Q

what fibers is CN II

A

sensory only (SA)

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9
Q

what is the optic nerve comprised of

A

retinal ganglion cells (RGCs) surrounded by meninges, so there are some CNS characteristics

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10
Q

where does the optic nerve exit orbit

A

via optic canal in the middle cranial fossa above cavernous sinus

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11
Q

where does the optic nerve go after passing through the optic chiasm

A

project to lateral geniculate bodies (as optic tract), which are located within thalamus of diencephalon

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12
Q

what fibers are CN III (oculomotor nerve)

A

motor only.
GSE.
GVE

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13
Q

what is innervated by CN III

A

extraocular muscles:
- superior rectus
- inferior rectus
- medial rectus
- inferior oblique

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14
Q

where does CN III carry autonomic input to

A

carries GVE to iris sphincter muscle for pupil constriction and ciliary muscle for accommodation via ciliary ganglion (autonomic ganglion for CN III)

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15
Q

explain the “down and out” eye appearance in complete oculomotor palsy

A

superior oblique and lateral rectus are not affected because they are innervated by trochlear and abducens nerves, so the opposing muscles pull the eye “down” and “out”.
pupils may be affected: mydriasis - dilated pupil - as result of loss of pupillary constrictor muscle function as parasympathetic preganglionic fibers ‘ride’ along outside oculomotor nerve.
aneurysms of internal carotid artery in cavernous sinus typically associated with oculomotor palsies.

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16
Q

what does CN III emerge from and pass through

A

emerges from midbrain (mesencephalon), passes through cavernous sinus within middle cranial fossa and into orbit via superior orbital fissure (SOF).

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17
Q

what fiber is CN IV (trochlear nerve)

A

motor only.
GSE

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18
Q

what does CN IV innervate

A

extraocular muscle: superior oblique

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19
Q

pathway of CN IV

A

emerges from midbrain, passes through cavernous sinus and exits middle cranial fossa into orbit via SOF

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20
Q

what fibers are CN V (trigeminal nerve)

A

mixed.
GSA
SVE

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21
Q

what occurs secondary to reactivation of herpes zoster virus

A

herpes zoster ophthalmicus

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22
Q

hutchinson’s sign

A

vesicles at tip of nose, which is innervated by a branch of V1

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23
Q

assessing CN V clinically

A

CN V1: supraorbital nerve –> brach of frontal nerve of V1.
CN V2: infraorbital nerve.
CN V3: mental nerve –> branch of inferior alveolar nerve of V3.

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24
Q

main branches of the sensory division (GSA) of CN V V1

A

lacrimal
frontal
nasociliary

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25
Q

sensory innervation the sensory division of of CN V V1

A

eye and orbit
facial skin above orbits
midline region of nose to tip

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26
Q

pathway of CN V V2

A

enters middle cranial fossa from pterygopalatine fossa via foramen rotundum then passes through cavernous sinus to the pons

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27
Q

main branches of CN V V2

A

zygomatic (lateral wall of orbit) and infraorbital (runs from surface of cheek through maxilla and enters floor of orbit) pass through inferior orbital fissure into pterygopalatine fossa where it becomes maxillary

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28
Q

sensory innervation of CN V V2

A

facial skin below orbits and above mouth and lateral to orbit.
maxillary sinus - located within maxilla

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29
Q

what type of nerve is CN V V3

A

mixed nerve

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30
Q

motor innervation of CN V V3

A

major muscles of mastication (SVE):
- masseter
- temporalis
- medial pterygoid
- lateral pterygoid

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31
Q

sensory innervation of CN V V3

A

area from below mouth arcing lateral and upward to just anterior of external ear.
nasal cavity.
anterior 2/3s of tongue (lingual nerve).
all are GSE

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32
Q

lingual nerve

A

runs next to autonomic fibers from chorda tympani to the submandibular ganglion

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33
Q

what is the mental nerve a branch of

A

inferior alveolar nerve

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34
Q

what is the inferior alveolar nerve typically evaluated for

A

CN V V3 integrity during cranial nerve testing

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35
Q

what does CN V V3 exit/enter and pass through

A

exits/enters middle cranial fossa via foramen ovale but does NOT pass through cavernous sinus because ovale is in the FLOOR of middle cranial fossa BELOW cavernous sinus

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36
Q

what fibers is CN VI (abducens)

A

motor only.
GSE

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37
Q

what muscle is innervated by CN VI (abducens)

A

extraocular muscle: lateral rectus

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38
Q

what does CN VI palsy result in

A

loss of abduction - eye cannot turn outward

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39
Q

what does CN VI emerge from and pass through

A

emerges from pons.
passes through cavernous sinus and into the orbit via superior orbital fissure

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40
Q

what does CN VI pass over after emerging from the CNS and into the middle cranial fossa

A

passes over sharp-edged petrous portion of the temporal bone which makes this CN more susceptible to injury/damage from a head injury, or certain medical conditions like diabetes

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41
Q

what nerve fibers make up CN VII (facial)

A

mixed nerve.
GSA
SVA
GVE
SVE

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42
Q

where do CN VII nuclei lie

A

within the pons near those for CN VI

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43
Q

where does CN VII enter/exit

A

exits/enters posterior cranial fossa via internal acoustic (auditory) meatus and eventually exits skull at stylomastoid foramen (between styloid and mastoid processes of temporal bone)

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44
Q

what root does CN VII contain

A

large motor and smaller intermediate (sensory and autonomic) root

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45
Q

major motor root branches of CN VII and what they control

A

Stapedial: controls amplitude of sound waves to inner ear by preventing excess movement of one of the ear ossicles (stapes).
Posterior auricular: motor to occipital muscle on back of head.
Two motor branches to stylohyoid and posterior belly of digastric muscles (aids in swallowing).
Terminal branches: 5 motor branches to muscles of facial expression - from superior to inferior:
- temporal
- sygomatic
- buccal
- mandibular
- cervical

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46
Q

major intermediate (sensory and autonomic) root branches of CN VII

A

Chorda tympani (GVE and SVA fibers).
Greater petrosal nerve (GVE)

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47
Q

GVE innervation of chorda tympani

A

autonomic innervation to submandibular and sublingual glands via submandibular ganglion and alongside lingual nerve, a sensory branch of CN V V3

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48
Q

SVA innervation of chorda tympani

A

sensory innervation for taste from anterior 2/3rds of tongue.
first run alongside lingual nerve before chorda tympani

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49
Q

what axons does the greater petrosal nerve contain and where do they originate

A

contains preganglionic parasympathetic axons.
originates at geniculate ganglion and passes into the middle cranial fossa –> joins with deep petrosal nerve

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50
Q

what axons does the deep petrosal nerve contain and where do they come from and go

A

postganglionic sympathetic axons that come from superior cervical ganglion in the neck.
enter middle cranial fossa via foramen lacerum and join up immediately with the internal carotid that passes into the cranium via carotid canal immediately adjacent to lacerum

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51
Q

what does the deep petrosal nerve become

A

nerve of pterygoid canal

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52
Q

what happens within the pterygopalatine ganglion within the fossa

A

preganglionic parasympathetic fibers synapse with postganglionic fibers in pterygopalatine ganglion while postganglionic sympathetic fibers pass directly through with both innervating nasal glands and lacrimal gland

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53
Q

old pathway to lacrimal gland from pterygopalatine ganglion

A

maxillary (CN V V2) –> zygomatic branch of maxillary –> lacrimal nerve (branch of CN V V1) –> lacrimal gland

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54
Q

new pathway to lacrimal gland from pterygopalatine ganglion

A

direct innervation to lacrimal gland via nerve plaxus from pterygopalatine ganglion

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55
Q

what fibers are CN VIII (vestibulocochlear)

A

sensory only.
SSA

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56
Q

where does CN VIII enter

A

enters posterior cranial fossa (along with CN VII) via internal acoustic (auditory) meatus to medulla of hindbrain

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57
Q

how many sensory ganglia does CN VIII have

A

2 - each associated with balance and hearing

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57
Q

what are the 2 divisions of CN VIII

A

vestibular (balance) and cochlear (hearing)

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58
Q

what nerve fibers are in CN IX (glossopharyngeal)

A

mixed nerve.
GSA
GVA
SVA
GVE
SVE

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59
Q

where are CN IX nuclei located and where does it exit/enter

A

nuclei located within medulla.
exits/enters posterior cranial fossa via jugular foramen.

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60
Q

CN IX sensory innervation

A

GSA: touch to posterior 1/3rd of tongue, tympanic cavity, auditory tube (Eustachian or pharyngotympanic tube), oropharynx (back of oral cavity/mouth).
SVA: taste posterior 1/3rd of tongue.
GVA: chemoreceptors and baroreceptors in carotid aa.

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61
Q

CN IX motor innervation

A

SVE: skeletal muscle innervation to muscles of pharynx (aid in swallowing).
GVE: autonomic innervation to parotid gland via otic ganglion

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62
Q

what is the tympanic nerve a major branch of and what does it innervate

A

major branch of CN IX.
innervates tympanic plexus.

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63
Q

what does the lesser petrosal nerve innervate from

A

innervates from tympanic plexus and carries preganglionic parasympathetic the final way to the otic ganglion where it synapses with postganglionic parasympathetic fibers

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64
Q

where is the otic ganglion located

A

outside the skull and adjacent to foramen ovale

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65
Q

what do the postganglionic parasympathetic fibers from the otic ganglion ‘hop’ on to

A

outside of the auriculotemporal nerve and travel to innervate parotid gland nearby

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66
Q

what is the auriculotemporal nerve

A

sensory branch of CN V V3 as it conveys information from sensory receptors in the skin proximal to parotid gland to CNS

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67
Q

where are the parotid located

A

immediately anterior to external ear

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68
Q

what nerve fibers make up CN X (vagus)

A

mixed nerve.
GSA
GVA
SVA
GVE
SVE

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69
Q

where are CN X nuclei located and where do they exit/enter

A

within medulla.
exits/enters posterior cranial fossa via jugular foramen

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70
Q

where does CN X run

A

inferiorly within the carotid sheath - between internal carotid/common carotid aa. and internal jugular v. to supply neck, thorax, and abdominal structures (most extensive distribution of all CNs

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71
Q

CN X sensory innervation

A

GSA:
- external auditory ear canal/small portion of ear lobe
- middle ear
- larynx/laryngopharynx
- dura mater in posterior cranial fossa
SVA:
- taste from pharynx and epiglottis
GVA:
- aortic body/arch and esophagus
- heart
- lungs
- abdominal organs and viscera

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72
Q

CN X motor innervation

A

SVE:
- skeletal muscles of the soft palate, larynx/pharynx, and one muscle of the tongue
GVE:
- smooth muscle innervation to pharynx/larynx, thorax, and abdominal organs/viscera

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73
Q

what nerve fibers are CN XI (spinal accessory)

A

motor only
SVE - possibly originates from 6th branchial arch for cranial root.
GSE - spinal root

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74
Q

where are CN XI nuclei located

A

within medulla

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75
Q

where does the CN XI cranial root exit

A

exits skull along with spinal root via jugular foramen and travels with CN X

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76
Q

what does the cranial root of CN XI innervate

A

skeletal muscles of larynx

77
Q

where does the spinal root of CN XI enter/exit

A

enters cranium via foramen magnum into posterior cranial fossa and exits via jugular foramen along with cranial root

78
Q

what does the spinal root CN XI inntervate

A

2 superficial neck muscles:
- sternocleidomastoid
- trapezius

79
Q

how is the spinal root CN X clinically assessed

A

instructing patient to shrug shoulders to asses trapezius muscle (while placing your hands on their shoulders to evaluate for resistance) or having patient turn head in each direction (left and right) to assess sternocleidomastoid muscle (while placing your hands on each side of face to evaluate for difference in resistance)

80
Q

what nerve fibers is CN XII (hypoglossal)

A

motor only.
GSE

81
Q

what does CN XII innervate

A

majority of tongue muscles

82
Q

where are the CN XII nuclei located and where do they exit

A

in medulla.
exits posterior cranial fossa via hypoglossal canal (immediately superior to occipital condyles and foramen magnum)

83
Q

how is CN XII clinically assessed

A

ask patient to stick out tongue.
tongue will deviate to weakened side if there is a CN XII palsy

84
Q

what is the CNS contained within

A

dorsal body cavity with the brain in the cranial cavity and spinal cord in the spinal cavity

85
Q

what do the brain vesicles form from

A

cranial end of the developing neural tube

86
Q

what are the initial brain vesicles that form

A

primary brain vesicles, followed by development of secondary brain vesicles from the primary

87
Q

what do the primary brain vesicles develop to form

A

forebrain (proencephalon).
midbrain (mesencephalon).
hindbrain (rhombencephalon)

88
Q

what do the secondary brain vesicles develop to form

A

subdivisions of forebrain and hindbrain.
forebrain:
- cerebrum (telencephalon)
- thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus (diencephalon).
hindbrain:
- pons and cerebellum (metencephalon).
- medulla oblongata (myelencephalon)

89
Q

what does gray matter consist of

A

soma and dendrites of neurons

90
Q

where is gray matter located in the cerebrum

A

within the superficial cortex.
in isolated areas deep in the cerebrum as cerebral nuclei or basal nuclei

91
Q

where is white matter located in the cerebrum

A

deep to the cortex

92
Q

how do the positions of gray and white matter shift while moving from the cerebrum and midbrain into the hindbrain

A

ends up with gray matter being internal to the white matter in the lower portions of the brainstem (medulla oblongata) and into the spinal cord

93
Q

what are tracts

A

white matter within CNS form bundles of fibers

94
Q

how many layers do meninges have

A

3 layered connective tissue membrane

95
Q

function of meninges

A

encapsulate and protect CNS and the vasculature that supplies CNS

96
Q

where is CSF found

A

subarachnoid space - assists in circulation while moving excess CSF into dural sinuses =

97
Q

what are the 3 layers of meninges

A

pia mater: inner layer. thinnest. tightly adhered to CNS.
arachnoid: middle layer. contains subarachnoid space.
dura mater: outer layer. thickest. toughest. contains outer periosteal layer and inner meningeal layer

98
Q

what does the outer periosteal layer interface with

A

walls of the cranial and spinal cavities.
ex. skull and vertebra

99
Q

what does the inner meningeal layer interface with

A

deep arachnoid

100
Q

what are dural deflections (septa)

A

extensions of meningeal layer of the dura mater deep into cranium

101
Q

falx cerebri

A

within longitudinal fissure.
separating right and left cerebral hemispheres.

102
Q

falx cerebelli

A

within longitudinal fissure.
posteriorly separating right and left cerebellar hemispheres.

103
Q

tentorium cerebelli

A

oriented perpendicular to falx cerebri and falx cerebelli.
separates cerebrum from cerebellum (‘tent’ over cerebellum)

104
Q

diaphragma sellae

A

located adjacent to cavernous dural sinus.
smallest of the four

105
Q

what is CSF secreted into the ventricles by

A

choroid plexus by an active, pressure-dependent process

106
Q

where does CSF flow after passing through the fourth ventricle

A

into subarachnoid space within the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord or into the central canal of spinal cord

107
Q

what are the 2 meninges that CSF flows into

A

2 lateral [Luschka] apertures or single median [Magendie] aperture

108
Q

what is CSF composition closely reflective of

A

blood plasma

109
Q

does CSF have a lower or higher protein concentration than blood plasma

A

much higher protein concentration within CSF due to proteins inability to pass through tight junctions between adjacent ependymal cells that comprise part of the choroid plexus

110
Q

is CSF pressure normally greater or less than the dural sinus pressure

A

greater due to the constant secretion of CSF into ventricles, which creates a pressure gradient where the CSF passes through the arachnoid granulations and into the dural sinus

111
Q

what does the inner layers of the cerebrum contain

A

sensory and motor tracts (white matter).
basal ganglia and associated structures (small patches of gray matter).

112
Q

what is deep to the cerebrum and what does it contain

A

diencephalon, which contains areas of gray matter (ex. hypothalamus, thalamus, and epithalamus)

113
Q

what do the telencephalon and diencephalon comprise

A

forebrain, or proencephalon

114
Q

what are the lobes

A

frontal
parietal
temporal
occipital

115
Q

what are the major fissures

A

longitudinal
lateral
calcarine

116
Q

what are the major sulci

A

central
parieto-occipital

117
Q

what are the major gyri

A

precentral
postcentral
temporal

118
Q

what is the cerebral cortex in contact with

A

innermost layer of the meninges, the thin and delicate pia mater

119
Q

what does the cerebral cortex cover

A

cerebral hemispheres

120
Q

where is the cerebral cortex thinnest

A

bottom of a sulcus

121
Q

where is the cerebral cortex

A

crest of a gyrus

122
Q

how are the numerous tiny functional units that make up the cerebral cortex arranged

A

vertically through several layers of cortex and can have afferent and efferent neurons as well as interneurons

123
Q

where can sensory/afferent information in a specific area of the cerebral cortex come from

A

other areas of cortex within same cerebral hemisphere.
corresponding cortex in opposing cerebral hemisphere.
from deep brain (ex. thalamus, basal nuclei, etc.)

124
Q

where can motor/efferent information from a specific area of the cerebral cortex be sent to

A

other areas of cortex within same cerebral hemisphere.
corresponding cortex in opposing cerebral hemisphere.
lower parts of brain and spinal cord.

125
Q

what type of neurons are pyramidal cells

A

multipolar

126
Q

shape of cell body of pyramidal cells

A

pyramid shape

127
Q

what are the main efferent output of cerebral cortex

A

pyramidal cells

128
Q

where does the axon of pyramidal cells terminate

A

axon from basal surface can terminate deeper in cortex or leave cortex altogether

129
Q

what happens to pyramidal cell bodies as they are going deeper into the cortex

A

increase in size as they are positioned deeper in cortex as these cells send signals over longer distances (projection cells)

130
Q

what are stellate (granule) cells and what do they utilize

A

interneurons.
utilize GABA neurotransmitter

131
Q

where are horizontal cells (of Cajal) and what do they do

A

in superficial-most portion of cortex.
interconnect pyramidal cells.

132
Q

what are chandelier cells

A

inhibitory interneurons

133
Q

what is the homotypical cortex

A

areas of cortex that have 6 distinct layers and remains similar in organization from fetus to adulthood

134
Q

what are the 6 layers of the homotypical cortex from superficial to deep

A

Molecular layer (I)
External granular layer (II)
External pyramidal layer (III)
Internal granular layer (IV)
Internal pyramidal/ganglionic layer (V)
Multiform layer (VI)

135
Q

what is the molecular layer (I) comprised of

A

mostly comprised of tangential fibers.
majority of input initially projects to this layer

136
Q

what does the external granular layer (II) contain

A

cell bodies of stellate cells

137
Q

what does the external pyramidal layer (III) contain

A

pyramidal cells, along with other interlinking cells

138
Q

what does the internal granular layer (IV) contain

A

many stellate cell bodies

139
Q

what does the internal pyramidal/ganglionic layer (V)

A

contains larger pyramid cell bodies

140
Q

why is the granular type called the granular type

A

granular layers (II and IV) are well developed, while pyramidal layers (III and V) are not

141
Q

what do layers II through V merge into

A

one highly granular layer.
so there are none-to-minimal pyramidal layers

142
Q

what fibers project to the cells of the large granular layer

A

thalamocortical = thalamus to cerebral cortex - think sensory

143
Q

examples of the granular type in postcentral gyrus and superior temporal gyrus

A

postcentral: primary somatosensory cortex
superior temporal: primary auditory cortex

144
Q

why is the agranular type named agranular

A

poor development of granular layers (II and IV), while pyramidal layers (III and V) are very well developed

145
Q

where is the agranular type found

A

precentral gyrus (primary motor cortex) and other areas of frontal lobe associated with motor function.
ex. frontal eye fields responsible for eye movements

146
Q

what does the primary somatic sensory area (Brodmann 1, 2, 3) occupy

A

entire postcentral gyrus, which is mainly granular heterotypical cortex

147
Q

primary somatic sensory area (Brodmann 1, 2, 3) main afferent input

A

sensation from thalamic axons

148
Q

primary somatic sensory area (Brodmann 1, 2, 3) main efferent output

A

higher order sensory cortices

149
Q

what is the secondary somatosensory area (Brodmann 40) adjacent to and what does it deal with

A

adjacent to primary somatosensory cortex.
deals with pain and tactile discrimination

150
Q

location of somatic sensory association area (Brodmann 5, 7) and what does it do

A

located on superior parietal lobule.
many connections with other sensory areas of cortex.
integrates all manner of sensory information (the “where” pathway)

151
Q

location of primary visual area (Brodmann’s area 17 = V1 = Striate cortex)

A

along walls of posterior calcarine fissure of occipital lobe

152
Q

what is the primary visual area comprised of

A

granular heterotypical cortex

153
Q

where is afferent input of the primary visual area from

A

from LGN of thalamus via optic radiations through parietal lobe and temporal lobe

154
Q

where does the primary visual area receive input from

A

temporal ipsilateral retina and nasal contralateral retina, so that each half of the visual field goes to the contralateral visual cortex

155
Q

location of secondary visual area (Brodmann’s areas 18 and 19; V2 and V3)

A

surrounds primary visual cortex

156
Q

what does the secondary visual area (Brodmann’s areas 18 and 19) receive

A

receives afferent fibers from primary visual cortex and pulvinar of the thalamus

157
Q

what does the secondary visual area do with visual information

A

relates visual information with visual memory, allowing recognition

158
Q

what does the pulvinar connection from the secondary visual area help do

A

control visual attention

159
Q

where is the primary auditory area (Brodmann 41; inner region of auditory cortex) located

A

within superior temporal gyrus of the temporal lobe, which is a granular heterotypical cortex

160
Q

where are afferent fibers of the primary auditory area from

A

from the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus

161
Q

what are the cortical (Brodmann) sensory areas

A

Primary somatic sensory area
- Brodmann 1, 2, 3
Secondary somatosensory area
- Brodmann 40
Somatic sensory association area
- Brodmann 5, 7
Primary visual area
- Brodmann’s area 17 = V1 = Striate cortex
Secondary visual area
- Brodmann’s areas 18 and 19; V2 and V3
Primary auditory area
- Brodmann 41; inner region of auditory cortex

162
Q

what are the cortical (Brodmann) motor areas

A

Primary motor area
- Brodmann 4
Secondary motor area
- Brodmann 6 and portions of 8, 44, 45; premotor area
Frontal eye fields
- parts o Brodmann 6, 8, 9

163
Q

where is the primary motor area (Brodmann 4) located

A

within precentral gyrus and an agranular heterotypical cortex

164
Q

what efferent and afferent tracts are there for primary motor area (Brodmann 4)

A

most efferent tracts to the brain and spinal cord.
afferent input arrives from many different parts of the brain to help control movement.

165
Q

location of secondary motor area (premotor area; Brodmann 6 and portions of 8, 44, and 45)

A

over the anterior precentral gyrus and posterior portions of the superior, middle, and inferior frontal gyri.
6 times larger than primary motor cortex

166
Q

what does the secondary motor area control

A

motor activity patterns based on experience, external cues and coarse postural movements by sending signals to the primary motor cortex

167
Q

where does the secondary motor area receive afferent input from

A

all over to help coordinate movements

168
Q

where are the frontal eye fields (parts of Brodmann 6, 8, 9) and what are they involved with

A

within frontal lobe.
involved with voluntary scanning eye movements

169
Q

what does Wernicke-Broca locus control

A

understanding of language and our ability to express language

170
Q

where is the sensory speech area of Wernicke (Brodmann 22)

A

superior temporal gyrus of left (or dominant hemisphere) temporal lobe

171
Q

where does the sensory speech area of Wernicke receive afferent fibers from

A

primary visual and auditory cortices

172
Q

what does the sensory speech area of Wernicke control

A

understanding of written and spoken language

173
Q

where does the sensory speech area of Wernicke send efferent fibers

A

anteriorly to Broca’s area of frontal lobe (Brodmann 44, 45)

174
Q

results of injury to sensory speech area of Wernicke (Brodmann 22)

A

complete injury:
- receptive aphasia: inability to understand the spoken and written word; can understand what the word means.
injury to nearby angular gyrus: connection from visual cortex is severed
- alexia: inability to read
- agraphia: inability to write

175
Q

location of motor speech area of Broca (Brodmann 44, 45)

A

within inferior frontal gyrus of left (or dominant) frontal lobe

176
Q

what input does the motor speech area of Broca receive

A

input from many portions of the cerebral cortex

177
Q

what does the motor speech area of Broca have efferent connections with

A

motor centers of cortex

178
Q

what does broca’s area bring about

A

muscular movements involved in speech, including control of larynx, mouth, tongue, soft palate, and respiratory muscles

179
Q

injury to broca’s area

A

injury:
- expressive aphasia: inability to produce speech; can still think in words and write words.
injury that destroys entire wernicke-broca locus:
- causes global aphasia: inability to understand spoken or written words, and inability to speak

180
Q

when are hemispheres of the neonatal cerebrum identical

A

at birth

181
Q

which hemisphere is dominant in 90% of people

A

left

182
Q

left hemisphere dominant - handedness

A

dominant hemisphere of brain has more pyramidal neurons than non-dominant half.
decussate in medulla oblongata along their course, causing the opposite hand to be more dexterous of the 2

183
Q

which hemisphere are perception of language and speech

A

dominant

184
Q

what is the non-dominant hemisphere mainly involved in

A

spatial perception.
facial recognition.
understanding of music

185
Q

what does cerebral white matter form

A

majority of deep cerebrum

186
Q

what do association fibers connect

A

different parts of cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere

187
Q

what are the 2 types of association fibers and what do they connect

A

short association fibers: connect areas of cerebral cortex from different gyri within same cerebral lobe.
long association fibers: connect areas of cerebral cortex from different lobes within same cerebral hemisphere.

188
Q

what do commissural fibers connect

A

portions of the cerebral cortex in one hemisphere with its partner in the other hemisphere by crossing from one hemisphere to the other in one of 4 cerebral commissures

189
Q

4 cerebral commissures

A

Corpus callosum:
- largest cerebral commissure.
- has rostrum (most anterior part), genu (knee or bend), trunk or body, and splenium (most posterior part).
Anterior commissure:
- small area on the edge between frontal lobe and thalamus.
- carries commissural fibers that connect olfactory tracts and limbic systems together.
Posterior commissure:
- at the edge between temporal lobe and thalamus.
Habenular commissure:
- superior to posterior commissure

190
Q

what do projection fibers project to

A

elsewhere in the nervous system

191
Q

where do projection fibers travel

A

in corona radiata and internal capsule

192
Q

what are the basal nuclei (ganglia) and where are they

A

isolated centers of grey matter and neuronal soma deep within white matter of cerebrum.
Major voluntary motor control center.

193
Q

components of basal nuclei (ganglia)

A

corpus striatum - caudate and lentiform nuclei.
internal capsule.
- caudate nucleus
- lentiform nucleus: putamen and globus palladus.
amygdala
hippocampus

194
Q

what is the corpus striatum comprised up of

A

caudate and lentiform nuclei.
separated by the internal capsule

195
Q

what is the internal capsule

A

very large band of white matter that contains major projection fibers of the corticospinal tract and separates the caudate and lentiform nuclei.
also separates globus pallidus from inner thalamus

196
Q

shape and location of caudate nucleus

A

C-shaped grey matter nucleus.
its head begins anteriorly to the lentiform nucleus, then stretches superiorly and posteriorly, over the thalamus, as the caudate nucleus body.
nucleus then descends and runs anteriorly inferior to the lentiform nucleus as the tail of the caudate nucleus.

197
Q

shape and components of the lentiform nucleus

A

oval/”lens shaped.”
2 parts:
1. Putamen: lateral part.
- dark gray collection of neuronal soma and axons.
- adjacent to inferior portion of caudate nucleus head.
2. Globus palladus (palladium): medial part.
- grey matter (lighter than putamen) due to presence of some myelinated fibers.

198
Q

what do the globus palladus and putamen have between them

A

thin layer of white matter

199
Q

why the name “corpus striatum” for the caudate nucleus and lentiform nucleus

A

white matter barrier is spanned by grey matter fibers that give the area a striped appearance

200
Q

shape and location of the amygdala

A

almond-shaped grey-matter nucleus deep in the anterior temporal lobe.
emerges from the anterior end of the tail of the caudate nucleus, but is functionally more associated with the limbic system than the corpus striatum.

201
Q

what is the amygdala involved in

A

visceral changes to emotions, pain, and fear response

202
Q

location of the hippocampus

A

extension of cerebral cortex of medial temporal lobe.
contains neuronal soma and grey matter axons.
extends from anterior portion of deep temporal lobe more posteriorly, when it ends, sending its axons to the fornix.

203
Q

what system is the hippocampus involved in

A

limbic

204
Q

what is the hippocampus functionally involved in

A

transforming short-term to long-term memory

OPT 113 (6 decks)

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