M2 - Privacy and Data Security Standards Flashcards

1
Q

What are the “covered entities” under the Health Insurance and Portability Act (HIPAA)

A

-health care providers that transmit health information electronically
-health plans
-health care clearing houses (an institution that electronically transmits different types of medical claims data to insurance carriers)
-Service providers who need access to PHI to perform services for covered entities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The privacy rule permits a covered entity to use and disclose PHI with no further authorization required to:

A

-To the individual
-For treatment, payment and health care operations
-Incident to an otherwise permitted use and disclosure
-With valid authorization
-After giving the individual the opportunity to agree or object
-As a limited (redacted) dataset for research, public health or health care operations
-For public interest and benefit activities provided by the law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Under security rule all covered entities must comply with the following:

A

-Ensure the confidentiality, integrity and availability of all electronic PHI
-Protect against reasonably anticipated threats to the security of the info
-Protect against reasonably anticipated impermissible uses or disclosures; and
-Ensure compliance by the covered entity’s workforce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

A

For data processors located within the EU—even those who actually process the data outside of the EU—the scope of GDPR fully applies. Regardless of the locations of individual clients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the two general categories of data breaches?

A

Unintentional Data Breach: A breach resulting from negligence or error.

Intentional Data Breach: A breach resulting from bad actors illegally gaining access to data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are three examples of safeguards for covered entities or business associates?

A

Administrative safeguards, physical safeguards, and technical safeguards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the six principles that must be followed when processing data in compliance with GDPR?

A

Lawfulness, Fairness, Transparency
Purpose Limitation
Data Minimization
Accuracy
Storage Limitation
Integrity and Confidentiality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the six goals of the PCI DSS?

A

Build and maintain a secure network and systems
Protect account data
Maintain a vulnerability management program
Implement strong access control measures
Regularly monitor and test networks
Maintain an information security policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Explain the principles by which the CIS Controls were designed.

A

Align: Controls should map to top cybersecurity standards.
Measurable: Controls should be simple and measurable.
Offense Informs Defense: Controls are drafted based on data from actual cyberattacks and defense against them.
Focus: Controls should help prioritize the most critical problems.
Feasible: All recommendations should be practical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the intent of Control 01: Inventory and Control of Enterprise Assets.

A

Actively manage all enterprise assets connected to the infrastructure physically, virtually, remotely, and those within cloud environments, to accurately know the totality of assets that need to be monitored and protected within the enterprise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the intent of Control 02: Inventory and Control of Software Assets.

A

Actively manage all software on the network so that only authorized software is installed and can execute, and that unauthorized and unmanaged software is found and prevented from installation or execution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the intent of Control 03: Data Protection.

A

Develop processes and technical controls to identify, classify, securely handle, retain, and dispose of data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the intent of Control 04: Secure Configuration of Enterprise Assets and Software.

A

Establish and maintain the secure configuration of enterprise assets and software.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the intent of Control 05: Account Management.

A

Use processes and tools to assign and manage authorization to credentials for user accounts, including administrator accounts as well as service accounts, to enterprise assets and software.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the intent of Control 06: Access Control Management.

A

Use processes and tools to create, assign, manage, and revoke access credentials and privileges for user, administrator, and service accounts for enterprise assets and software.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the intent of Control 07: Continuous Vulnerability Management.

A

Develop a plan to continuously assess and track vulnerabilities on all enterprise assets within the enterprise’s infrastructure, in order to remediate and minimize the window of opportunity for attackers. Monitor public and private industry sources for new threat and vulnerability information.

17
Q

Describe the intent of Control 08: Audit Log Management.

A

Collect, alert, review, and retain audit logs of events that could help detect, understand, or recover from an attack.

18
Q

Describe the intent of Control 09: Email and Web Browser Protections.

A

Improve protections and detections of threats from email and web vectors, as these are opportunities for attackers to manipulate human behavior through direct engagement.

19
Q

Describe the intent of Control 10: Malware Defenses.

A

Prevent or control the installation, spread, and execution of malicious applications, code, or scripts on enterprise assets.

20
Q

Describe the intent of Control 11: Data Recovery.

A

Establish and maintain data recovery practices sufficient to restore in-scope enterprise assets to a pre-incident and trusted state.

21
Q

Describe the intent of Control 12: Network Infrastructure Management.

A

Establish, implement, and actively manage network devices in order to prevent attackers from exploiting vulnerable network services and access points.

22
Q

Describe the intent of Control 13: Network Monitoring and Defense.

A

Operate processes and tooling to establish and maintain comprehensive network monitoring and defense against security threats across the enterprise’s network infrastructure and user base.

23
Q

Describe the intent of Control 14: Security Awareness and Skills Training.

A

Establish and maintain a security awareness program to influence behavior among the workforce to be security conscious and properly skilled to reduce cybersecurity risks to the enterprise.

24
Q

Describe the intent of Control 15: Service Provider Management.

A

Develop a process to evaluate service providers who hold sensitive data or are responsible for an enterprise’s critical IT platforms or processes to ensure these providers are protecting those platforms and data appropriately.

25
Q

Describe the intent of Control 16: Application Software Security.

A

Manage the security life cycle of in-house developed, hosted, or acquired software to prevent, detect, and remediate security weaknesses before they can impact the enterprise.

26
Q

Describe the intent of Control 17: Incident Response Management.

A

Establish a program to develop and maintain an incident response capability to prepare, detect, and quickly respond to an attack.

27
Q

Describe the intent of Control 18: Penetration Testing.

A

Test the effectiveness and resiliency of enterprise assets through identifying and exploiting weaknesses in controls (people, processes, and technology), and simulating the objectives and actions of an attacker.