M2 FINAL COACHING Flashcards

1
Q

Select the site of pyruvate formation during glycolysis

A.
Liver

B.
Muscles

C.
Heart

D.
Lungs

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Choose the organelle, found close to the endoplasmic reticulum, which receives and acts on proteins and membrane lipids to further modify them and then passes these on to other parts of the cell through budding vesicles

A.
Golgi apparatus

B.
Lysosomes

C.
Ribosomes

D.
Mitochondria

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Select the organelles that have digestive vesicles and contain enzymes that degrade proteins and nucleic acids

A.
Ribosomes

B.
Mitochondria

C.
Golgi apparatus

D.
Lysosomes

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Classify the amino acids according to their side-chain functional groups: Glutamine, aspartic acid

A.
Sulfur-containing side chain

B.
Aromatic side chain

C.
Carboxylic acids

D.
Basic side chain

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Identify the chemical bond that joins amino acids together in a protein molecule

A.
Peptide

B.
H-bonds

C.
Ionic bonds

D.
Dipole-dipole

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Identify the characteristic functional groups of amino acids

A.
Amino acid and carboxylic acid groups

B.
Amino and hydroxyl groups

C.
Hydroxyl and carboxylic acid groups

D.
Methyl and carboxylic acid groups

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Identify the simplest amino acid among the 20 common amino acids

A.
Serine

B.
Alanine

C.
Glycine

D.
Lysine

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Identify the nucleotide which is responsible for transcribing the complementary DNA message

A.
rRNA

B.
tRNA

C.
hnRNA

D.
mRNA

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Find the examples of transport and storage proteins

A.
Ribonuclease, hexokinase

B.
Actin, myosin

C.
Hemoglobin, myoglobin, serum albumin

D.
Keratin, actin

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Identify the stage in protein synthesis when the anticodon of tRNA recognizes the codon on mRNA

A.
Termination

B.
Transcription

C.
Translation

D.
Elongation

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Identify the site of the initial stage of protein synthesis

A.
Cytoplasm

B.
Golgi apparatus

C.
Ribosomes

D.
Nucleus

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Analyze and select the underlying principle in the ninhydrin test for proteins

A.
Based on the reaction of cupric ions of the reagent with the N of the peptide bonds forming a purple or violet-colored complex

B.
Based on the nitration of proteins, which leads to the formation of a yellow precipitate that turns into orange on treatment with an alkali

C.
Based on the reaction between the phenolic group of a protein with mercuric sulfate in the presence of sodium nitrite and sulfuric acid resulting in the formation of a red-colored solution

D.
Based on the reaction between the reagent and the amino group of the free amino acid of the test sample, which leads to the oxidation of the compound and its deamination and resulting in the formation of a deep blue colored solution

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Select the enzyme that hydrolyzes bacterial cell wall

A.
Carbonic anhydrase

B.
Lysozyme

C.
Lactate dehydrogenase

D.
Kinase

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Analyze the mechanism or catalytic strategy employed by restriction endonucleases

A.
Utilization of the free energy associated with the hydrolysis of ATP

B.
Achievement of a high absolute rate of reaction that is suitable for integration with other physiological processes

C.
Attainment of a high degree of specificity

D.
Promotion of a reaction that is immeasurably slow at neutral pH

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Analyze which enzyme in the Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle catalyzes the condensation of oxaloacetate and acetyl-CoA

A.
Citrate synthase

B.
Pyruvate carboxylase

C.
Aconitase

D.
Pyruvate dehydrogenase

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Classify fumarase

A.
Hydrolase

B.
Ligase

C.
Transferase

D.
Lyase

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Analyze the mechanism or catalytic strategy employed by carbonic anhydrase

A.
Utilization of the free energy associated with the hydrolysis of ATP

B.
Achievement of a high absolute rate of reaction that is suitable for integration with other physiological processes

C.
Attainment of a high degree of specificity

D.
Promotion of a reaction that is immeasurably slow at neutral pH

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Analyze which enzyme in the Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle catalyzes the carboxylation of pyruvate to give oxaloacetate

A.
Citrate synthase

B.
Pyruvate carboxylase

C.
Fumarase

D.
Pyruvate dehydrogenase

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Identify the zymogen that is activated by the enzyme trypsin

A.
Fibrinogen

B.
Pepsinogen

C.
Trypsinogen

D.
Procarboxypeptidase

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Classify nucleoside monophosphate kinase

A.
Ligase

B.
Hydrolase

C.
Lyase

D.
Transferase

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Identify the carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that finds clinical application in the treatment of glaucoma by reducing intraocular pressure

A.
Celecoxib

B.
Sulfanilamide

C.
Acetazolamide

D.
Prenoxine

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Find the complementary base pairs in DNA molecules

A.
Adenine-Thymine, Cytosine-Guanine

B.
Adenine-Thymine, Cytosine-Uracil

C.
Uracil-Thymine, Cytosine-Guanine

D.
Uracil-Thymine, Adenine-Guanine

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Select the complementary sequence for the DNA segment: GATCAA

A.
CTGCUU

B.
CUAGUU

C.
CTAGTT

D.
TTAGTT

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Determine the pathological condition that is caused by the absence of adenosine deaminase, an enzyme in the purine degradation pathway

A.
Severe combined immunodeficiency

B.
Neural tube defects

C.
Gouts

D.
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Identify the step in DNA synthesis when DNA polymerase plays a role

A.
termination

B.
Primer binding

C.
Replication fork formation

D.
Elongation

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Select the sequence of the mRNA segment synthesized from this DNA template strand: CACCGCCCGTCG

A.
GUGGCGGGCAGC

B.
GUGGGGGCCAGC

C.
GUCGCGGGCAGC

D.
GUGCCGGGCAGC

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Determine the pathological condition that is caused by a deficiency in folate derivatives during early pregnancy because of the important role of these derivatives in the synthesis of DNA

A.
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

B.
Severe combined immunodeficiency

C.
Gout

D.
Neural tube defects

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

PIck the odd one out

A.
Telomeres

B.
Okazaki fragments

C.
Leading strand

D.
Lagging strand

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Select the category to which D-glucose and D-mannose belong

A.
Enantiomers

B.
Epimers

C.
Aldose-ketose

D.
Diastereomers

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Select the carbohydrate that is administered as an intra-articular injection in cases of osteoarthritis

A.
Keratin sulfate

B.
Hyaluronic acid

C.
Heparin

D.
Beta-D-hexosaminidase-A

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Classify the carbohydrates starch, cellulose, and inulin

A.
Heteroglycans

B.
Homoglycans

C.
Trisaccharides

D.
Disaccharides

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Find the statement that is NOT correct about glycolysis

A.
The first part of glycolysis works on the six-carbon molecule, preparing it for oxidation

B.
The third part operates on one of the glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate molecules, oxidizing it to yield energy

C.
One glucose molecule generates two molecules of pyruvate and two uniits of ATP

D.
The second part of glycolysis splits the six-carbon molecule into three two-carbon fragments

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Identify the type of chemical reaction in the conversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate

A.
Phosphoryl shift

B.
Aldol cleavage

C.
Isomerization

D.
Reduction-oxidation

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Identify the type of chemical reaction in the conversion of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to glyceraldehyde-3-P and dihydroxyacetone phosphate

A.
Aldol cleavage

B.
Phosphoryl shift

C.
Isomerization

D.
Reduction-oxidation

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Identify the end product of glycolysis

A.
Phosphoenolpyruvate

B.
Pyruvate

C.
Fructose-6-phosphate

D.
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Select the carbohydrate used as an acidulant, especially in infant feeding formulas

A.
High-fructose sweeteners

B.
Xylose

C.
Lactic acid

D.
Mannitol

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Identify the carbohydrate that is used as a self-binding diluent and disintegrating agent

A.
Xylose

B.
High-fructose sweeteners

C.
Powdered cellulose

D.
Lactic acid

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

It measures the degree of unsaturation of the oil. Those which are partially resinify on exposure to air have high values.

A.
Ester value

B.
Acetyl value

C.
Iodine value

D.
Acid value

E.
Saponification value

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Refers to the number of mg of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize the acid combined by acylation of the sample.

A.
Acetyl value

B.
Peroxide value

C.
Ester value

D.
Hydroxyl value

E.
Iodine value

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Select the class to which prostaglandins belong

A.
Sphingolipid

B.
Fatty acid

C.
Glyceryl ester

D.
Terpene

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Select the major storage form of fatty acids

A.
Ester of a long chain alcohol

B.
Ester of a monohydric alcohol

C.
Triglyceride

D.
Ester of a polyhydric alcohol

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Identify the essential fatty acids for humans

A.
Linolenic acid (omega-6) and linoleic acid (omega-3)

B.
Linoleic acid (omega-6) and alpha-linolenic acid (omega-3)

C.
Oleic acid, linolenic acid

D.
Stearic acid, linoleic acid

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Identify the fatty acid referred to as “omega-3”

A.
Alpha-linoleic acid

B.
Beta-linolenic acid

C.
Oleic acid

D.
Alpha-linolenic acid

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

This is used for the symptomatic treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia

A.
Safflower oil

B.
Sunflower oil

C.
Saw Palmetto oil

D.
Persic oil

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Starflower oil

A.
Helianthus anuus

B.
Carthamus tinctorius

C.
Borago officinalis

D.
Serenoa repens

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The only liquid wax

A.
Sus scrofa

B.
Gaddus morrhua

C.
Physeter macrocephalus

D.
Simmondsia chinensis

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Contains a toxic principle that causes male sterility

A.
Palm kernel oil

B.
Germ oil

C.
Rapeseed oil

D.
Cottonseed oil

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Drying oil

A.
Linum ussitassimum

B.
Gossypium hirsutum

C.
Sesamum indicum

D.
Olea europaea

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Solvents for IM injections, EXCEPT:

A.
Corn oil

B.
Cottonseed oil

C.
Peanut oil

D.
Soybean oil

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Used to test Olive oil for Tea tree oil or Camellia oil contamination

A.
Halphen

B.
Baudouin

C.
Millon

D.
Serger

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Source of lecithin and stigmasterol

A.
Peanut oil

B.
Soybean oil

C.
Sesame oil

D.
Corn oil

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Identify the carrier molecule that transports fatty acids across the inner mitochondrial membrane

A.
Carnitine

B.
Chilomicron

C.
Aldimine

D.
GLUT

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Find the statement that is correct about lipids

A.
Thromboxanes prevent clotting

B.
Prostaglandins stimulate gastric acid secretion

C.
Eicosanoids act as messengers inside cells and between neighboring cells

D.
Linoleoyl-CoA is derived from arachidonyl-CoA

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Select the statement that BEST describes fatty acid metabolism

A.
Fatty acid metabolism is NOT tied to carbohydrate metabolism

B.
Fatty acids and their CoA esters are able to freely cross the inner mitochondrial membrane

C.
The release of fatty acids and their subsequent Beta-oxidation is a primary source of metabolic energy for the cell

D.
Fatty acid catabolism is NOT under hormonal control

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Analyze the mechanism involved in the regulation of DNA replication and synthesis of mRNA

A.
Compartmentalization

B.
Enzyme activation

C.
Hormonal control

D.
Concentration

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Select the coenzyme that is required by aminotransferases

A.
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide

B.
Pyridoxal phosphate

C.
Flavin adenine dinucleotide

D.
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Identify the precursors of gluconeogenesis

A.
Glycerol, lactic acid, pyruvic acid

B.
Glycerol, lactate, pyruvate, glucogenic amino acids

C.
Pyruvic acid, lactic acid, acetic acid

D.
Sucrose, lactic acid, pyruvate acid

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Analyze the mechanism involved in the regulation of phosphorylation and glycosylation

A.
Enzyme activation

B.
Hormonal control

C.
Concentration

D.
Compartmentalization

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Enzyme L

A.
Arginase

B.
Argininosuccinase

C.
Argininosuccinic synthetase

D.
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

E.
Ornithine transcarbamoylase

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Enzyme P

A.
Arginase

B.
Argininosuccinase

C.
Argininosuccinic synthetase

D.
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

E.
Ornithine transcarbamoylase

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Control of urea cycle involves the enzyme:

A.
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

B.
Ornithine transcarbamoylase

C.
Argininosuccinase

D.
Arginase

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Select the hormones that control glycogen metabolism

A.
epinephrine, insulin

B.
epinephrine, glucagon

C.
epinephrine, glucagon, insulin

D.
insulin, glucagon

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Identify the catecholamines derived from the metabolism of tyrosine

A.
Norepinephrine and epinephrine

B.
Norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine

C.
Norepinephrine, dopamine

D.
Dopamine, epinephrine

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Preferred method of classification of drugs in Pharmacognosy

A.
By morphology

B.
By taxonomy

C.
By therapeutic application

D.
By chemical constituents

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Final step in the preparation of crude drugs

A.
Collection or Harvesting

B.
Drying

C.
Garbling

D.
Packaging, Storage and Preservation

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Guttiferae

A.
Apiaceae

B.
Brassicaceae

C.
Clusiaceae

D.
Arecaceae

E.
Asteraceae

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Select the method of evaluating drugs which involves the use of the organs of sense, the macroscopic appearance of the drug, its odor and taste, the sound or “snap” of the fracture, and the feel of the drug to the touch

A.
Physical method

B.
Chemical method

C.
Biological method

D.
Organoleptic method

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Select the method of evaluating drugs that extensively applies physical constants to the active constituents of drugs

A.
Physical method

B.
Chemical method

C.
Biological method

D.
Organoleptic method

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which of the following plant constituents are biosynthesized via Shikimic acid pathway?

   I.         Quinine

  II.         Diosgenin

 III.         Sennoside

 IV.         Terpineol

A.
I and II

B.
I, II, III

C.
I and III

D.
All of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which of the following compounds are biosynthesized via the Mevalonate Pathway?

   I.         Ouabagenin

  II.         Stigmasterol

 III.         Geranial

IV.         Artemisinin

A.
I and II

B.
I, II, III

C.
I and III

D.
All of the above

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The following statements are true about the shikimic acid pathway EXCEPT

A.
Shikimic acid pathway produces phenylpropanoids.

B.
It is also known as the Terpenoid pathway.

C.
This pathway is not found in both humans and animals

D.
The pathway produces the aromatic amino acids, Phe, Tyr and Trp

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

An important branch-point intermediate in the Shikimate pathway

A.
Dehydroshikimate

B.
Chorismic acid

C.
Prephenic acid

D.
Anthranilic acid

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Substrate P

A.
DHAP

B.
Dehydroquinic acid

C.
Shikimic acid

D.
Chorismic acid

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Precursor of opium alkaloids from which they are derived

A.
Q

B.
R

C.
S

D.
T

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The following statements are true about the mevalonic acid pathway (MVA) EXCEPT

A.
It is found in both plants and animals

B.
The MVA pathway occurs in the plastids of plant cells.

C.
The rate-limiting step is catalyzed by HMG-CoA reductase

D.
The pathway produces 2 important isoprenes called IPP and DMAPP

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The following statements are true about the methyl erythritol phosphate pathway (MEP) EXCEPT

A.
Also known as Nonmevalonic acid pathway or DOXP pathway.

B.
The rate limiting enzyme is DOXP synthase which catalyzes the 1st step (Pyruvate + Glyceraldehyde)

C.
This pathway is absent in archaebacteria, fungi and animals

D.
Plants use both MVA and MEP pathways for isoprenoid biosynthesis

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Paclitaxel’s origin from the MVA pathway

A.
Geranyl pyrophosphate

B.
Farnesyl pyrophosphate

C.
Geranylgeranyl pyrophosphate

D.
Squalene

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Sterols’ origin from the MVA pathway

A.
Geranyl pyrophosphate

B.
Farnesyl pyrophosphate

C.
Geranylgeranyl pyrophosphate

D.
Squalene

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which of the following is/are the final product/s of the dark reactions during photosynthesis?

   I.         ATP

  II.         NADPH

 III.         O2

IV.         Glucose

A.
I, II, III

B.
I, III, IV

C.
I, II, III, IV

D.
IV only

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect about Photosynthesis?

A.
Light dependent phase of photosynthesis occurs in the thylakoid membrane

B.
It transforms light energy to chemical energy

C.
Chlorophyll b is the principal pigment in green plants.

D.
Light reactions result in the production of NADPH, O2 and ATP

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Synthesized in the leaves and they accumulate in relatively large quantities in the immature seeds and fruits of some plants. The growth effect of this hormone arises by cell elongation in the subapical meristem region where young internodes are developing.

A.
Auxin

B.
Gibberelins

C.
Cytokinins

D.
Abscisic acid

E.
Ethylene

A

B

82
Q

Natural growth inhibitors are present in plants and affect bud opening, seed germination and development of dormancy.

A.
Auxin

B.
Gibberelins

C.
Cytokinins

D.
Abscisic acid

E.
Ethylene

A

D

83
Q

It has a role in fruit ripening.

A.
Auxin

B.
Gibberelins

C.
Cytokinins

D.
Abscisic acid

E.
Ethylene

A

E

84
Q

Typical effects are cell elongation giving an increase in stem length, inhibition of root growth, adventitious root production and fruit-setting in the absence of pollination.

A.
Auxin

B.
Gibberelins

C.
Cytokinins

D.
Abscisic acid

E.
Ethylene

A

A

85
Q

They have inhibitory effect on senescence and promote cell division. They also regulate the pattern and frequency of organ production as well as position and shape.

A.
Auxin

B.
Gibberelins

C.
Cytokinins

D.
Abscisic acid

E.
Ethylene

A

C

86
Q

Select the correct triad

A.
Datura stramonium - Scopolamine - Flavor

B.
Glycyrrhiza glabra - Limonene - Expectorant

C.
Catharanthus roseus - Quinine - anticancer

D.
Citrus sinensis - Limonene - Flavor

A

D

87
Q

Find the homoglycans

A.
Cellulose, starch, inulin

B.
heparin, agarose

C.
Cellobiose, hyaluronic acid

D.
Glycogen, agar

A

A

88
Q

Determine the chemical test for monosaccharides

A.
Benedict’s test

B.
Keller-Kiliani test

C.
Biuret test

D.
Seliwanoff’s test

A

A

89
Q

Select the statement that BEST describes carbohydrates

A.
Phosphoglyceraldehyde is the first carbohydrate formed in photosynthesis

B.
Sugars are amorphous powders, water-soluble, and sweet-tasting substances

C.
The more complex, high-molecular weight heteroglycans are represented by starch, inulin, and cellobiose

D.
Cellulose, composed of glucose and fructose units, forms the primary cell walls in plants

A

B

90
Q

Identify the test for reducing sugars

A.
Biuret test

B.
Sudan red

C.
Molisch test

D.
Fehling’s test

A

D

91
Q

Determine the appropriate test for ketoses

A.
Keller-Kiliani

B.
Bial’s test

C.
Seliwanoff’s

D.
Molisch

A

C

92
Q

Select the classification and therapeutic use of glucovanillin

A.
Aldehyde, flavor

B.
Flavonol, antibacterial

C.
Anthraquinone, cathartic

D.
Saponin, analgesic

A

A

93
Q

A polymer of glucose synthesized by the action of leuconostoc mesenteroids in a sucrose medium is

A.
Dextrans

B.
Limit dextrin

C.
Dextrin

D.
Xanthan

A

A

94
Q

Purified partially depolymerized cellulose prepared by treating a-cellulose with mineral acids

A.
Purified cotton

B.
Powdered cellulose

C.
Microcrystalline cellulose

D.
Purified rayon

A

C

95
Q

Preferred form of tragacanth gum which made from transverse incisions on the main stems and branches

A.
Vermiform

B.
Tragacanth sorts

C.
Ribbon and flake

D.
Bassorin

A

C

96
Q

Algin

A.
Shrubs or Tree Exudates

B.
Marine gums

C.
Seed gums

D.
Plant Extracts

E.
Microbial gums

A

B

97
Q

Guar

A.
Shrubs or Tree Exudates

B.
Marine gums

C.
Seed gums

D.
Plant Extracts

E.
Microbial gums

A

C

98
Q

Consist of the strands of phloem fibers from the stem bark of Corchorus capsularis

A.
Jute

B.
Flax

C.
Hemp

D.
Viscose

A

A

99
Q

Tapioca or Cassava starch

A.
Triticum aestivum

B.
Avena sativa

C.
Hordeum sp

D.
Manihot utilissima

A

D

100
Q

Used as a plasma expander at 6% concentration.

A.
Pregelatinized starch

B.
Sodium starch glycolate

C.
Hetastarch

D.
Dextrins

A

C

101
Q

Inulin

A.
Dahlia variabilis

B.
Musa sp.

C.
Metroxylon rumphii

D.
Oryza sativa

A

A

102
Q

Has a characteristic fetid odor

A.
Tragacanth

B.
Acacia

C.
Karaya

D.
Ghatti/Indian

A

C

103
Q

Select the statement that characterizes flavonoids

A.
These are polyphenolic molecules that contain 15 carbon atoms and are insoluble in water

B.
Examples are rutin, quercitrin, arbutin, and hesperidin

C.
Rutin and hesperidin are called Vit F or permeability factors, which are used in the treatment of conditions characterized by capillary bleeding and increased fragility

D.
These are aglycones of flavonol glycosides

A

D

104
Q

Salicin

A.
Anthraquinone

B.
Flavonol

C.
Alcohol

D.
Aldehyde

A

C

105
Q

Aloe

A.
Lactone

B.
Anthraquinone

C.
Saponin

D.
Aldehyde

A

B

106
Q

Smilagenin

A.
Anthraquinone

B.
Saponin

C.
Flavonol

D.
Cyanophore

A

B

107
Q

St. John’s wort

A.
Isothiocyanate

B.
Saponin

C.
Flavonol

D.
Anthraquinone

A

D

108
Q

Contains flavonolignans with marked hepatoprotective properties

A.
Sarsaparilla

B.
Milk Thistle

C.
Yam

D.
Wild cherry

A

B

109
Q

Employed in the treatment of peptic ulcer and Addison’s disease

A.
Dioscorea

B.
Mustard

C.
Licorice

D.
Bearberry

A

C

110
Q

Used for idiopathic vitiligo and psoriasis

A.
Ammi majus

B.
Arctostaphylos uva-ursi

C.
Catharis vesicatoria

D.
Melilotus spp.

A

A

111
Q

It is a pharmaceutic aid in Compound Benzoin Tincture and a cathartic

A

B

112
Q

Used for the treatment of Congestive heart failure and cardiac arrhythmia.

A

A

113
Q

Synthetic analogs of this drug are used in anticoagulant therapy.

A

D

114
Q

Select the statement that characterizes Taxanes

A.
Taxol is an antimalarial drug

B.
Taxanes were originally identified from plants of the genus Taxus

C.
Taxanes bind to the microtubules and enhance their depolymerization

D.
Paclitaxel, docetaxel, sinigrin, prunasin, cabazitaxel are examples of taxanes

A

B

115
Q

Select the statement that BEST describes flavonols

A.
Flavonols are identical to flavanols

B.
Quercitrin is the aglycone of the flavonol quercetin

C.
Flavonol aglycones are potent antibiotics that protect the plant from reactive oxygen species

D.
Flavonols are a class of flavonoids; their diversity arises from the different positions of their phenolic OH groups

A

D

116
Q

Select the statement that characterizes Prunasin

A.
A cyanogenic glycoside that occurs in the bark of Prunus serotina

B.
A thiocyanogenic glycoside

C.
Its aglycone is amygdalin

D.
Yields hydrochloric acid on hydrolysis

A

A

117
Q

Find the statement that is NOT correct about the chemical composition of glycosides

A.
Both alpha- and beta-glycosides exist, but ONLY the beta form occurs in nature

B.
Natural enzymes like emulsin hydrolyze only the beta forms

C.
The sugar component is called aglycone, and the non-sugar component, glycone

D.
They are acetals in which the hydroxyl of the sugar is condensed with the hydroxyl group of the nonsugar component

A

C

118
Q

Vitamin D derived from plants

A.
Cholecalciferol

B.
Ergocalciferol

C.
Dihydrotachysterol

D.
Calcitriol

A

B

119
Q

Vitamin K2

A.
Phytonadinone

B.
Menaquinone

C.
Menadione

D.
Menadiol

A

B

120
Q

Used in the treatment of Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

A.
Thiamine

B.
Riboflavin

C.
Niacin

D.
Pyridoxine

A

A

121
Q

Hartnup disease, characterized by defective intestinal absorption of tryptophan, will affect the in-vivo synthesis of this vitamin

A.
Vitamin B1

B.
Vitamin B2

C.
Vitamin B3

D.
Vitamin B6

A

C

122
Q

Chick-antidermatitis factor

A.
Niacin

B.
Pantothenic acid

C.
Riboflavin

D.
Pyridoxine

A

B

123
Q

Vitamin H

A.
Vitamin B5

B.
Vitamin B6

C.
Vitamin B7

D.
Vitamin B9

A

C

124
Q

Select the statement that BEST describes Nonhydrolyzable Tannins

A.
Gallotannin is a condensed tannin

B.
When treated with hydrolytic agents, they tend to polymerize, yielding insoluble, red-colored products called phlobaphenes

C.
Insoluble in water and aqueous organic solvents

D.
Less resistant to microbial degradation than hydrolyzable tannins

A

B

125
Q

Evaluate the following statements

   I.         Pseudotannins give positive results with goldbeater’s skin test

  II.         Tannins are mixtures of polyphenols that do not crystallize

 III.         Tannins are compounds of low molecular weights.

IV.         Complex tannins are combinations of hydrolysable and condensed tannins

A.
Only one statement is true

B.
Two statements are true

C.
Three statements are true

D.
All statements are true

A

B

126
Q

True about Condensed tannins

   I.         Also known as Proanthocyanidins

  II.         Yields a blue-black precipitate with FeCl3

 III.         Produces Bloom leather

IV.         Decolorizes KMnO4

A.
I only

B.
I and II

C.
I, II, III

D.
I, III, IV

E.
All of the above

A

B

127
Q

True about Hydrolyzable tannins

   I.         Also called as Pyrogallotannins

  II.         Produces no precipitate with Br2

 III.         Examples are gallotannins and ellagitannins

IV.         Also decolorizes KMnO4

A.
I and II

B.
I, II, III

C.
I, IV

D.
All of the above

A

D

128
Q

Chief source of tannic acid

A.
Nutgall

B.
Witch hazel leaves

C.
Catechu

D.
Kinos

A

A

129
Q

The excrescence (gall) is caused by the puncture of a hymenopterous insect:

A.
Quercus infectoria

B.
Cynips tinctoria

C.
Rhus chinensis

D.
Aphis sp.

A

B

130
Q

Analyze which oil is suitable for painting

A.
Coconut oil

B.
Orange oil

C.
Castor oil

D.
Linseed oil

A

D

131
Q

Determine the intermediate product formed in the biosynthesis of fatty acids when malonyl-CoA reacts with acetyl-CoA; the product undergoes reduction and elimination of carbon dioxide

A.
Caproyl-CoA

B.
Butyryl-CoA

C.
Acetyl-CoA

D.
Glycerophosphate

A

B

132
Q

Determine the method by which Peppermint oil is obtained

A.
Enfleurage

B.
Extraction with a volatile solvent

C.
Expression

D.
Steam distillation

A

D

133
Q

Classify the terpenes retinol and phytol

A.
Monoterpenes

B.
Diterpenes

C.
Triterpenes

D.
Sesquiterpenes

A

B

134
Q

Analyze and identify the group of terpenes that contain 20 carbon atoms

A.
Sesquiterpenes

B.
Diterpenes

C.
Triterpenes

D.
Tetraterpenes

A

B

135
Q

Establish the type of organic compounds that are biosynthesized by the shikimic acid pathway

A.
Aromatic compounds

B.
Aliphatic compounds

C.
Branched compounds

D.
Cyclic compounds

A

A

136
Q

Identify the secretory structures found in Pinus palustris and Artemisia absinthium

A.
Modified parenchyma cells

B.
Schizogenous intercellular spaces

C.
Vittae

D.
Glandular hairs

A

B

137
Q

Analyze and choose the isoprene unit

A.
5-carbon compound with the formula: CH3-CH(CH3)-CH2CH3

B.
3-carbon compound with the formula: CH2=C=CH2

C.
4-carbon compound with the formula: CH2=CH-CH=CH2

D.
5-carbon compound with the formula: CH2=C(CH3)-CH=CH2

A

D

138
Q

Determine the immediate precursor of phenylalanine

A.
Anthranilic acid

B.
Chorismic acid

C.
Para-hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid

D.
Phenylpyruvic acid

A

D

139
Q

Classify Caraway oil and Buchu

A.
Peroxides

B.
Phenols

C.
Ketones

D.
Ethers

A

C

140
Q

Classify Lavender oil and Oil of Wintergreen

A.
Ketones

B.
Phenols

C.
Aldehydes

D.
Esters

A

D

141
Q

Mentha arvensis

A.
Glandular hairs

B.
Modified parenchymal cells

C.
Vittae

D.
Lysigenous or schizogenous ducts

A

A

142
Q

Citrus limon

A.
Glandular hairs

B.
Modified parenchymal cells

C.
Vittae

D.
Lysigenous or schizogenous ducts

A

D

143
Q

Carum carvi

A.
Glandular hairs

B.
Modified parenchymal cells

C.
Vittae

D.
Lysigenous or schizogenous ducts

A

C

144
Q

Pilocarpine

A.
Isoquinoline

B.
Quinoline

C.
Imidazole

D.
Indole

E.
Pyridine-Piperidine

A

C

145
Q

Nicotine

A.
Pyridine-Piperidine

B.
Tropane

C.
Alkaloidal amine

D.
Purine

A

A

146
Q

Tubocurarine

A.
Quinoline

B.
Imidazole

C.
Isoquinoline

D.
Indole

E.
Purine

A

C

147
Q

Lavandula officinalis

A.
Ketone

B.
Ester

C.
Alcohol

D.
Phenolic ether

E.
Phenol

A

B

148
Q

Method of obtaining volatile oils for dried or fresh plants that may be injured by boiling such as clove and cinnamon.

A.
Water distillation

B.
Water and steam distillation

C.
Steam distillation

D.
Dry distillation

A

B

149
Q

Thymus vulgaris

A.
Aldehyde

B.
Alcohol

C.
Phenol

D.
Phenolic ether

E.
Ester

A

C

150
Q

Barosma betulina

A.
Alcohol

B.
Aldehyde

C.
Hydrocarbon

D.
Ketone

E.
Phenol

A

D

151
Q

Find the statement that does NOT describe resins and their combinations

A.
The metallic salts of resins are called resinates

B.
Balsams are resinous mixtures that contain cinnamic acid, benzoic acid, or both, or esters of these acids

C.
Resins are soluble in water

D.
Chemically, resins are complex mixtures of resin acids, resin alcohols, resinotannols, esters, and resenes

A

C

152
Q

Identify the test reagent for the presence of alkaloids which is a solution of potassium bismuth iodide and gives an orange colored precipitate

A.
Dragendorff’s

B.
Mayer’s

C.
Wagner’s

D.
Hager’s

A

A

153
Q

Identify the active constituent of Rauwolfia serpentina

A.
Reserpine

B.
Scopolamine

C.
Emetine

D.
Codeine

A

A

154
Q

Analyze and identify the group to which reserpine and ergonovine belong

A.
Imidazole

B.
Purine

C.
Steroidal

D.
Indole

A

D

155
Q

Find the hormones used in the diagnosis of pancreatic disorders

A.
Cholecystokinin, secretin

B.
Secretin and Gastrin

C.
Cholecystokinin and insulin

D.
Gastrin and calcitonin

A

A

156
Q

Identify the Family to which Atropa belladona belongs

A.
Papaveraceae

B.
Fabaceae

C.
Solanaceae

D.
Berberidaceae

A

C

157
Q

Identify the anticancer agents that are derived from the bark of Pacific yew; they stabilize the microtubule polymer and protect it from disassembly

A.
Epipodophyllotoxins

B.
Camptotechin derivatives

C.
Vinca alkaloids

D.
Taxanes

A

D

158
Q

Find the pairs that are NOT correctly matched

A.
Lobelia inflata - hyoscine

B.
Hyoscyamus niger - hyoscyamine

C.
Erythroxylum coca - cocaine

D.
Datura stramonium - hyoscyamine

A

A

159
Q

Select the pair that is NOT correctly matched

A.
Tobacco - nicotine for smoking cessation

B.
Belladonna - spasmolytic agent

C.
Datura - anticholinergic agent

D.
Coca - local analgesic

A

D

160
Q

Select the statement that BEST describes Cinchona alkaloids

A.
Cinchonine is the parent alkaloid of the quinine series

B.
Classified as isoquinoline alkaloids

C.
Cinchonine is the isomer of quinidine and quinidine is the isomer of quinine

D.
Currently used, after having been proven as clinically effective and safe, in the treatment of COVID-19 patients

A

A

161
Q

Classify the alkaloid ergotamine

A.
Indole

B.
Tropane

C.
Isoquinoline

D.
Quinoline

A

A

162
Q

Deduce the mechanism of action of malt extract as an aid in digesting starch

A.
Converts into water-soluble sugars NOT less than 5 times its weight of starch

B.
Contains papain that hydrolyzes starch

C.
Contains emulsin that hydrolyzes starch

D.
Contains lactase that converts 50 times its weight of potato starch into sugars

A

A

163
Q

Evaluate which compound is converted to cholecalciferol

A.
5-dihydrocholesterol

B.
6-dehydrocholesterol

C.
7-dihydrocholesterol

D.
7-dehydrocholesterol

A

D

164
Q

Select the vitamin that does not require bile salts and dietary lipids for its efficient absorption from the intestinal tract

A.
Vit C

B.
Vit K

C.
Vit A

D.
Vit E

A

A

165
Q

Identify the antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis

A.
Nystatin, polymyxin, amphotericin B

B.
Chloramphenicol, clindomycin, gentamisin

C.
Rifampin, actinomycin D, mitomycin C

D.
Bacitracin, cephalosporins, penicillins

A

B

166
Q

Select the most abundant of the serum immunoglobulins

A.
IgG

B.
IgD

C.
IgE

D.
IgA

A

A

167
Q

Identify the vaccine recommended for children 2-3 months of age

A.
Live Oral Poliovirus Vaccine

B.
Covid-19 Vaccine

C.
Rabies Vaccine

D.
Hepatitis B Vaccine

A

A

168
Q

Identify the vaccine which is a sterile suspension of inactivated virus strains that are grown separately in primary cultures of Rhesus monkey kidney tissues bathed in a complex nutrient fluid containing more than 60 ingredients

A.
Influenza virus vaccine

B.
Rabies vaccine

C.
Poliomyelitis vaccine

D.
Smallpox vaccine

A

C

169
Q

Major auxin in plants

A.
Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA)

B.
Napthalene-1-acetic acid (NAA)

C.
2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D)

D.
Indole-3-butyric acid (IBA)

A

A

170
Q

Formed during the germination of barley grains and converts starch into maltose.

A.
Zymase

B.
Invertase

C.
Diastase

D.
Emulsin

E.
Myrosin

A

C

171
Q

A mixture of protein-digesting and milk-clotting enzymes from the pineapple plant, Ananas comosus

A.
Papain

B.
Bromelain

C.
Sutilain

D.
Pepsin

A

B

172
Q

A substance containing enzymes, principally amylase, lipase and protease, used as a digestive aid

A.
Pepsin

B.
Trypsin

C.
Chymotrypsin

D.
Erepsin

E.
Pancreatin

A

E

173
Q

They bring about the oxidation reactions that cause the discoloration of bruised fruits

A.
Peroxidases

B.
Zymase

C.
Deoxyribonuclease

D.
Lysozymes

A

A

174
Q

Substance containing proteolytic enzymes derived from the bacterium, Bacillus subtilis

A.
Fibrinolysin

B.
Urokinase

C.
Sutilains

D.
L-Asparaginase

A

C

175
Q

Catgut suture

A.
Microfibrillar collagen

B.
Absorbable surgical suture

C.
Nonabsorbable surgical suture

D.
All of the above

A

B

176
Q

Siling-labuyo

A.
Resin

B.
Oleoresin

C.
Oleogumresin

D.
Balsam

A

B

177
Q

Pistacia lentiscus

A.
Resin

B.
Oleoresin

C.
Oleogumresin

D.
Balsam

A

A

178
Q

Liquidambar orientalis

A.
Resin

B.
Oleoresin

C.
Oleogumresin

D.
Balsam

A

D

179
Q

A drug of abuse, used in the preparation of intoxicating beverages containing styrylpyrones.

A.
Jalap

B.
Cannabis

C.
Kava-kava

D.
Yerba santa

A

C

180
Q

Purgative from American mandrake

A.
Podophyllin

B.
Peltatins

C.
Podophyllotoxins

D.
Purganol

A

B

181
Q

Olibanum

A.
Resin

B.
Oleoresin

C.
Oleogumresin

D.
Balsam

A

C

182
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

   I.         Hyoscyamine is dextrorotatory, while Atropine is racemic.

  II.         Tropane alkaloids are derived from ornithine.

 III.         Scopolamine is also known as hyoscine.

IV.         Atropine is an antidote used in cholinesterase inhibitor poisonings.

A.
I, II, IV

B.
I, III, IV

C.
II, III, IV

D.
All of the above

A

C

183
Q

Alkaloidal amines, except

A.
Peyote

B.
Ephedra

C.
Colchicum

D.
Khat

E.
Ergot

A

E

184
Q

Opium tincture

A.
Dover’s power

B.
Paregoric

C.
Laudanum

D.
Morphine + HCl

A

C

185
Q

Liquid alkaloids except:

A.
Arecoline

B.
Sparteine

C.
Nicotine

D.
Atropine

A

D

186
Q

Potassium mercuric iodide

A.
Wagner’s

B.
Marme’s

C.
Mayer’s

D.
Valser’s

A

C

187
Q

Precursor of isoquinoline alkaloids

A.
Histidine

B.
Ornithine

C.
Tyrosine

D.
Tryptophan

A

C

188
Q

Alkaloids that contain a ring nitrogen, but do not come from amino acids

A.
Pseudoalkaloid

B.
Protoalkaloid

C.
True alkaloid

D.
Flavonoid

A

A

189
Q

Vitali-morin test is used to identify this alkaloid

A.
Caffeine

B.
Quinine

C.
Atropine

D.
Morphine

E.
Ephedrine

A

C

190
Q

Select the plant used as an antidiabetic

A.
Banaba

B.
Yerba Buena

C.
Tsaang Gubat

D.
Lagundi

A

A

191
Q

Identify the biological source of Paclitaxel

A.
Taxus brevifolia

B.
Camptotheca acuminata

C.
Catharanthus roseus

D.
Akapulko

A

A

192
Q

Find the scientific name of Bignay

A.
Hibiscus sabdariffa

B.
Abelmoschus esculentus

C.
Ehratia microphilla

D.
Antidesma bunius

A

D

193
Q

Identify the scientific name Tawa tawa

A.
Taxus brevifolia

B.
Ehratia microphilla

C.
Abelmoschus esculentus

D.
Grammatophyllum scriptum

A

D

194
Q

Select the correct triad of “health foods”

A.
Symphytum officinale - Comfrey - hepatotoxic

B.
Spirulina maxima - spirulina - fertility drug

C.
Glycyrrhiza glabra - licorice - antidiabetic

D.
Oenothera biennis - Evening Primrose - analgesic

A

A

195
Q

Analyze and identify the plant growth and metabolic inhibitor, acts as an antagonist to gibberellic acid, and increases the tolerance of plants to stress

A.
Abscisic acid

B.
Gibberellins

C.
Auxins

D.
Ethylene

A

A

196
Q

The milky white, highly viscous secretions from the paired salivary gland of the worker honey bee, Apis mellifera. Claims to ward off the effects of old age.

A.
Valerian

B.
Ginseng

C.
Royal Jelly

D.
Echinacea

E.
Feverfew

A

C

197
Q

Classified as an adaptogen and aphrodisiac, obtained from the roots of Panax sp.

A.
Valerian

B.
Ginseng

C.
Royal Jelly

D.
Echinacea

E.
Feverfew

A

B

198
Q

The drug has been employed as a calmative in nervousness and hysteria. Possess principles with mild tranquilizing activity.

A.
Valerian

B.
Ginseng

C.
Royal Jelly

D.
Echinacea

E.
Feverfew

A

A

199
Q

It has been observed to provide some relief from the painful symptoms of migraine headache and arthritis.

A.
Valerian

B.
Ginseng

C.
Royal Jelly

D.
Echinacea

E.
Feverfew

A

E

200
Q

It has the ability to produce nonspecific stimulation of the immune system.

A.
Valerian

B.
Ginseng

C.
Royal Jelly

D.
Echinacea

E.
Feverfew

A

D