M1 FINAL COACHING Flashcards by Sam Agao

Which of the following represents the index of the protective power of colloids?

A. Nuggets
B. Lumina
C. Poise
D. Zsigmondy

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What is formed when an atom or cation acts as the center about which anions or molecules arrange themselves?

A.
Covalent compounds

B.
Ionic compounds

C.
Complexes

D.
Ionic-covalent compounds

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What does enthalpy refer to in thermodynamics

A.
Latent heat

B.
Heat content

C.
Degree of total molecular randomness

D.
Heat of fusion

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The following are characteristics of active transport, EXCEPT:

A.
Higher to lower concentration gradient

B.
Follow saturation kinetics

C.
Carrier mediated

D.
Expenditure of energy

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Calcium sulfate dihydrate is also names as

A.
Fluorspar

B.
Limestone

C.
Talc

D.
Selenite

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What is quartz?

A.
Silicon dioxide

B.
Magnesium oxide

C.
Carbon dioxide

D.
Aluminum oxide

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Which is the LIGHTEST of all metals

A.
Platinum

B.
Lithium

C.
Nickel

D.
Magnesium

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Which paired elements belong to Group VII-A

A.
F, Br

B.
Na, Ca

C.
F, Na

D.
Na, F

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. Which group is referred to as “alkali metals”?

A.
Group I-A

B.
Group II-A

C.
Group IV-A

D.
Group III-A

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Which are properties of ammoniated mercury?

I. Volatilizes at red heat

II. Occurs as white amorphous powder

III. Soluble in water and alcohol

IV. Decomposes without fusion

A.
II, III, IV

B.
I, II, IV

C.
I, II, III, IV

D.
I, III, IV

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Which of the following binary compounds is called arsine?

A.
CH3

B.
AsH3

C.
PH3

D.
NH3

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Which of the following represents the chemical formula of calomel?

A.
HgCl

B.
HgO

C.
HgCl2

D.
SnCl4

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Elements that can exists in two or more crystalline forms are said to be:

A.
Amphoteric

B.
Polymorphic

C.
Amorphous

D.
Allotropic

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Cream of tartar is known chemically as

A.
Potassium bitartrate

B.
Sodium potassium tartrate

C.
Zinc oxide

D.
Potassium nitrate

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The following elements form basic hydrides, EXCEPT:

A.
Calcium

B.
Sulfur

C.
Strontium

D.
Magnesium

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Which of the elements is the MOST electronegative

A.
I

B.
Br

C.
Cl

D.
F

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Amalgams is an alloy of which of the following elements?

A.
Mercury

B.
Iron

C.
Copper

D.
Zinc

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The following compose group V cations, EXCEPT:

A.
Manganese

B.
Lithium

C.
Potassium

D.
Sodium

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Which of the following elements are referred to as the triad of Group VIII?

I. Co

II. Mn

III. Ni

IV. Fe

A.
I, III, IV

B.
I, II, III

C.
I, II, IV

D.
II, III, IV

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Which of the following elements are referred to as volatile metals?

I. Cadmium

II. Mercury

III. Beryllium

IV. Zinc

A.
I, III, IV

B.
II, III, IV

C.
I, II, IV

D.
I, II, III

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Determine the valence of chromium in potassium chromate with the chemical formula: K2CrO4

A.
6

B.
5

C.
8

D.
7

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Which of the following elements are amphoteric?

I. Beryllium

II. Zinc

III. Aluminum

IV. Calcium

A.
I, III

B.
II, III

C.
III, IV

D.
I, II

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What is liberated when potassium permanganate is reacted with hydrochloric acid?

A.
Manganous oxide

B.
Hypochlorous acid

C.
Chlorine

D.
Hydrogen

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When acids are in solution, which of the following is released?

A.
Positrons

B.
Neutrons

C.
Protons

D.
Electrons

E.
Photon

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When water undergoes electrolysis forming hydrogen and oxygen molecules, which of the following phrases BEST describes this occurrence?

A.
Substitution reaction

B.
Chemical change

C.
Physical change

D.
Evaporation

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Which law describes the relationship between pressure, volume, and temperature of gases as depicted in the equation: PV = nRT?

A.
Law of Definite Proportions

B.
Ideal gas law

C.
Gay Lussac’s law

D.
Boyle’s law

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In sulfate conjugation, which of the following groups is transferred during functionalization phase of biotransformation of xenobiotics?

A.
Sulfide

B.
Sulfonate

C.
Sulfhydryl

D.
Sulfate

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Which of the following is NOT a condition that can occur during metabolic acidosis

A.
Diabetic acidosis

B.
Renal failure

C.
Diarrhea

D.
Hypertension

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Replacement therapy is needed when there is:

I. Heavy loss of water

II. Prolonged fever

III. Fracture

IV. Diarrhea

A.
I, II, III

B.
I, II, IV

C.
II, III, IV

D.
I, III, IV

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Which of the following compounds exhibits amphoteric properties making it suitable to prevent systemic alkalosis?

A.
Aluminum hydroxide

B.
Calcium hydroxide

C.
Magnesium sulfate

D.
Barium sulfate

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Which statements BEST describe the properties of elements in the Periodic Table, from the upper right corner, going down and then to the left?

I. Elements increase in metallic character

II. Elements become more electronegative

III. Elements become more basic

IV. Elements become less electronegative

A.
I, III, IV

B.
I, II, III

C.
II, III, IV

D.
I, II, IV

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Which of the following is a wax obtained from whales used in the preparation of cosmetic creams and fine wax candles

A.
Spermaceti

B.
Carrageenan

C.
Fucoidan

D.
Prostaglandins

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Which ion gives a Turnbull’s blue precipitate upon addition with potassium ferricyanide*

A.
Stannic

B.
Ferric

C.
Stannous

D.
Ferrous

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Which among the following characteristics differentiates Calcium containing antacid forms from Aluminum containing antacids?

A.
Calcium is odorless

B.
Calcium does not cause alkalosis

C.
Calcium does not have amphoteric properties and does not cause systemic alkalosis

D.
Calcium does not have amphoteric properties

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Which of the following elements is NOT found as component of extracellular fluids in humans?

A.
Calcium ion

B.
Sodium ions

C.
Iodide

D.
Chloride

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Which salt is found in the bicarbonate buffer system of the extracellular fluid of the human body?

A.
Magnesium bicarbonate

B.
Potassium bicarbonate

C.
Sodium bicarbonate

D.
Sodium chloride

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Surfactants are characterized by the presence of which of the following?

A.
Water solubilizing and fat solubilizing groups in the same molecule

B.
Positive and negative charges

C.
Water solubilizing groups only

D.
Fat solubilizing groups only

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Which of the following refers to a substance that absorbs moisture but does not dissolve in it?

A.
Hygroscopic

B.
Dehydrating substance

C.
Efflorescent

D.
Deliquescent

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Which of the following describes potential energy

A.
Boiling water

B.
Water inside a big dam

C.
Water flowing over a dam

D.
Burning gasoline

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Which among the following is used as solar ray protective or sun block

A.
Barium sulfate emetic

B.
Titanium dioxide

C.
Sodium nitrite

D.
Antimony chloride

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Which among the following is the allotropic form of phosphorus made by heating phosphorus at 200 degree Celsius under a pressure of 1.2 GPa?

A.
Black phosphorus

B.
White phosphorus

C.
Red phosphorus

D.
Yellow phosphorus

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Which of the following type of radiation has the greatest penetrating power?

A.
Beta radiation

B.
Gamma radiation

C.
Sun rays

D.
Alpha radiation

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Which of the following pharmaceutical products requires that the method of preparation must be reflected in the label?

A.
Sterile water for injection USP

B.
Bacteriostatic water for injection USP

C.
Purified water USP

D.
Milk of magnesia

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A drug receptor may be all of the following, EXCEPT?

A.
Isolable enzyme

B.
Functional component of a cell membrane

C.
Nucleic acid

D.
Chelate

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Compounds that results from a combination of electron donor and a metal forming a ring structure

A.
Chelate

B.
Prodrug

C.
Lactam ring

D.
Ligand

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Conformation of organic molecules is most commonly determined by which of the following analytical methods?

A.
Nuclear magnetic resonance

B.
Mass spectrophotometry

C.
Optical rotation

D.
pK determination

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Which of the following statements describes cis- and trans isomerism?

I. Occurs only in organic compounds

II. Occurs in both organic and inorganic compounds

III. Trans-alkenes have lower solubility in inert solvents than their cis counterparts

IV. Cis- and Trans- isomers often have different physical properties.

A.
I, III, IV

B.
II, III, IV

C.
I, II, IV

D.
I, II, III

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Which of the following characterizes facilitated diffusion?

A.
Energy requiring

B.
Involves shifting of solvent

C.
Carrier-specific

D.
The movement against a concentration gradient

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Which are the pharmaceutical applications of partition coefficient?

I. Predicts where drug will concentrate in the body

II. Predicts adverse drug interactions in the body

III. Predicts solubility of a drug in water and fatty tissues in the body

IV. Predicts how well a chemical ingredient will mix with creams in consumer products

A.
II, III, IV

B.
I, II, IV

C.
I, II, III

D.
I, III, IV

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Which of the following is the major organ for drug metabolism?

A.
Liver

B.
Small intestines

C.
Kidney

D.
Lungs

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Which of the following therapeutic advantages CANNOT be obtained by the use of prodrugs?

Increase___

A.
Water solubility

B.
Oral absorption

C.
Duration of action

D.
Potency

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Which of the following are benzodiazepine derivatives used as anxiolytics?

I. Imidazopyridine

II. Chlordiazepoxide

III. Alprazolam

IV. Diazepam

A.
I, II, III, IV

B.
I, II, IV

C.
I, III, IV

D.
II, III, IV

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Which antibiotic is obtained from Streptomyces noursei?

A.
Amphotericin B

B.
Griseofulvin

C.
Clindamycin

D.
Nystatin

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Simethicone is a component of several antacid formulation, how is it chemically classified?

A.
Wax

B.
Ketone

C.
Silicone

D.
Alcohol

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Hydroxybenzoic acid is more commonly known as:

A.
Citric acid

B.
Oxalic acid

C.
Salicylic acid

D.
Lactic acid

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Sensitivity of gram negative bacilli to amoxicillin is attributed to its:

A.
Carboxyl group

B.
Nitro group

C.
Hydroxyl group

D.
Amino group

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Which of the following is a first generation urinary tract anti-infective

A.
Nalidixic acid

B.
Griseofulvin

C.
Salicylic acid

D.
Norfloxacin

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Which of the following is the expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil Fagus grandiflora?

A.
Tyloxapol

B.
Guiafenes

C.
Potassium iodide

D.
Emetine

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Which of the following is the metabolite of the red prontosil responsible for antimicrobial activity?

A.
Sulfacetamide

B.
Sulfamethoxazole

C.
Sulfanilamide

D.
Sulfapyridine

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Which of the following combination therapy is the treatment of choice for P. carinii pneumonia (PCP)

A.
Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole

B.
Emetine and Dehydroemetine

C.
Metronidazole and iodoquinol

D.
Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine

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A combination of non-ionic surfactant with iodine is known as:

A.
Povidone iodine

B.
Tincture of iodine

C.
Iodine in potassium iodide solution

D.
Strong iodine solution

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Which of the following is the strongest acid? (BEQ)

A.
Lactic acid

B.
Benzoic acid

C.
Trichloroacetic acid

D.
Acetic acid

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Paracetamol chemically is a/ an:

A.
Salicylate derivative

B.
Azocaine derivative

C.
Aniline derivative

D.
Pyrazolone derivative

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Although the prostaglandins are hormone like, they may be closely resemble which of the following chemically?

A.
Proteins

B.
Porphyrins

C.
Lipids

D.
Enzymes

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What statement can BEST describe fats chemically?

A.
Fats are steroids with one or more hydroxyl groups

B.
Fats are esters of glycerin and fatty acids

C.
Fats are compounds of glycerol, fatty acids, phosphoric acid, and choline

D.
Fats are polypeptides

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Which one of the following acid will undergo the least amount of ionization in water?

A.
Acetic acid

B.
Lactic acid

C.
Salicylic acid

D.
Boric acid

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Petrolatum USP is NOT soluble in:

A.
Chloroform

B.
Ethyl alcohol

C.
Ether

D.
Benzene

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All of the following substances are present in opium extract, EXCEPT:

A.
Thebaine

B.
Papaverine

C.
Codeine

D.
Methadone

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Derivatives of benzylsulfonyl urea are useful as:

A.
Diuretic

B.
Oral hypoglycemic

C.
Anti-inflammatory

D.
Spasmolytics

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Which of the following anesthetics is NOT a volatile liquid?

A.
Halothane

B.
Ethyl chloride

C.
Ether

D.
Cyclopropane

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The following are preservatives, EXCEPT:

A.
Potassium sorbate

B.
Undecylenic acid

C.
Methyl paraben

D.
Benzoic acid

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Piperazine citrate, gentian violet, pyrvinium pamoate, and thiabendazole are examples of:

A.
Antibiotics

B.
Antiseptics

C.
Anthelmintics

D.
Dyes

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Which are the uses of antimalarials?

I. Prevention of infection in individuals visiting malaria-endemic region

II. Treatment of malaria in individuals with suspected or confirmed infection

III. Prevention of antimalarial resistance

IV. Routine intermittent treatment of certain groups in endemic regions

A.
II, III, IV

B.
I, II, III

C.
I, II, IV

D.
I, III, IV

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Which of the following antimalarials are used for chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum?

I. Pyrimethamine

II. Sulfonamide

III. Mefloquine

IV. Atovaquone

A.
II, III

B.
I, III

C.
I, II

D.
III, IV

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Which of the following Angiotensin II receptor blockers has the greatest bioavailability?

A.
Irbesartan

B.
Losartan

C.
Candesartan

D.
Olmesartan

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All of the following physicochemical constants may be useful to predict the solubility of a compound, EXCEPT:

A.
pH of solution

B.
pKa of the compound

C.
Dielectric constant

D.
Valence of the atoms

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What is the role of citric acid in promoting the analgesic potency of fentanyl effervescent tablets?

A.
It improves the palatability of the fentanyl buccal tablet so it can be used in children

B.
It increases salivary pH

C.
It promotes the formation of fentanyl free base needed for absorption

D.
It promotes dissolution of fentanyl into saliva

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Which of the following is NOT a solvent for polyethylene glycol?

A.
Ethyl alcohol

B.
n-propanol

C.
Water

D.
Mineral oil

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Which of the ff is NOT an alcohol?

A.
Terpin hydrate

B.
Sorbitol

C.
Menthol

D.
Eucalyptol

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Which of the following are classified as GABA receptor modulators

I. Benzodiazepines

II. Barbiturates

III. Chloral hydrate

IV. Ethanol

A.
II, III, IV

B.
I, II, III

C.
I, II, IV

D.
I, III, IV

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Which of the following functional group is susceptible to hydrolysis

A.
R-CO-R

B.
R-COOH

C.
R-O-R

D.
R-COOR

Mescaline is a/ an __ derivative

A.
Steroid

B.
Xanthine

C.
Indole-ethylamine

D.
Phenyl-ethylamine

Which of the following antineoplastic agents are obtained from biological sources?

I. Vinblastine

II. Nitrogen mustard

III. Alkyl sulfonate

IV Paclitaxel

A.
I, IV

B.
I, III

C.
I, II

D.
II, III

Which of the following terms BEST describes a cofactor that is firmly bound to an apoenzyme?

A.
Prosthetic group

B.
Transferase

C.
Holoenzyme

D.
Cofactor

Which of the following statements best characterize gamma amino butyric acid?

I. It is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain

II. It is biosynthesized from glutamic acid

III. High levels of GABA may be linked to anxiety or mood disorders

IV. GABA is degraded by a pyridoxal-dependent enzyme, producing butyric acid and succinic acid semi-aldehyde

A.
III, IV

B.
II, III

C.
I, IV

D.
I, II

Which of the following antineoplastic agents are alkylating agents?

I. Nitrosoureas

II. Purine antagonists

III. Methyl hydrazine

IV. Taxanes

A.
I, III

B.
III, IV

C.
II, III

D.
I, II

Weight of solute in a given quantity of solvent is referred to as:

A.
Solvation

B.
Volume

C.
Solubility

D.
Concentration

The milliequivalent weight of an acid depends on its:

A.
Number of moles

B.
Number of replaceable hydroxyl ions

C.
Molecular weight

D.
Number of replaceable hydrogen atoms

In the preparation of standard silver nitrate solution, care must be observed because it easily:

A.
Dissolved and liquefies

B.
Reduced by light

C.
Oxidized by light

D.
Adsorbed

Iodometry is an indirect analysis of:

A.
Acids

B.
Reducing agents

C.
Oxidizing agents

D.
Complex salts

In quantitative analysis, a burette with a glass stopcock is used to accurately measure ___ solutions

A.
Acid

B.
Blank

C.
Alkali

D.
Buffer

Which of the following is used as a precipitant for barbiturates?

A.
Ethyl alcohol

B.
Nitric acid

C.
Fehling’s solution

D.
Magnesia mixture

The method used for observing changes in the crystalline form of a drug is:

A.
Visual appraisal

B.
X-ray diffraction

C.
Microscopic examination

D.
Differential thermal analysis

In the bisulfite method of analysis, which among apparatus listed is used in the assay of aldehyde or ketone content of volatile oils?

A.
Babcock bottle

B.
Cassia flask

C.
Biuret

D.
Distilling apparatus

Chlorides may be precipitated by:

A.
Potassium nitrate

B.
Calcium chloride

C.
Sodium nitrate

D.
Silver nitrate

Ferric thiocyanate, produced by the reaction of ferric salts with ammonium thiocyanate has a __ color

A.
Dark blue

B.
Light violet

C.
Dark yellow

D.
Blood red

Which of the following is the concentration of a solution that contains one gram equivalent weight of solute in a liter of solution?

A.
Formal solution

B.
Molal solution

C.
Normal solution

D.
Molar solution

Elements in atmosphere (BEQ)

I. Hydrogen is 14 times lighter than air

II. Nitrogen is heavier than Oxygen

III. Hydrogen was discovered by Cavendish

A.
I only

B.
I and II

C.
I and III

D.
II and III

E.
I, II, III

States that the entropy of a pure, crystalline solid at absolute zero temperature is zero

A.
Third law of thermodynamics

B.
Second law of thermodynamics

C.
Zeroth law of thermodynamics

D.
First law of thermodynamics

If the ion product is greater than Ksp, the solution is: (BEQ)

A.
Saturated

B.
Supersaturated

C.
Unsaturated

D.
Cannot be determined

Has greatest factor among the quantum numbers in determining the atomic radius:

A.
Principal quantum number

B.
Azimuthal quantum number

C.
Magnetic quantum number

D.
Spin quantum number

Property that reflects how strongly an atom attracts a shared pair of electrons.

A.
Electron affinity

B.
Ionization energy

C.
Electronegativity

D.
Ionization Strength

Arrange the elements according to increasing electronegativity (BEQ)

A.
I > Br > Cl > F

B.
Cl > Br > F > I

C.
Br > Cl > I > F

D.
F > Cl > Br > I

Which halogen has the highest reactivity? (BEQ)

A.
Cl

B.
Br

C.
F

D.
I

Which of the elements is the most metallic? (BEQ)

A.
Br

B.
I

C.
Cl

D.
F

Which of the following is the most acidic? (BEQ)

A.
HF

B.
HCl

C.
HBr

D.
HI

Which of the following do not cause a shift in chemical equilibrium?

A.
Catalyst

B.
Cations

C.
Anions

D.
Concentration

Second law of thermodynamics deals with which state function?

A.
Free Gibbs energy

B.
Enthalpy

C.
Entropy

D.
AOTA

Substances that shows strong conductivity property and a high degree of ionization: (BEQ)

A.
HCl, NaOH, NaCl

B.
Glucose, ethanol

C.
Ammonia, HF

D.
Buffer

E.
Two of the above

Which of the following refers to the amount of a strong acid or base that must be added to a liter of solution to change the pH by one unit?

A.
Ionization constant

B.
Equilibrium constant

C.
Concentration

D.
Buffer Capacity

Which has the formula = moles solute/ kg solution

A.
Osmolality

B.
Molality

C.
Normality

D.
NOTA

If hydrogen bonds in a molecule increased in number, the polarity ________ & water-solubility _______

A.
Increases; decreases

B.
Increases; increases

C.
Decreases; increases

D.
Decreases; decreases

Which of the following statements is NOT true about half – life of radioisotopes?

A.
The faster the isotope decays, the more stable it is

B.
Half-life is the time it takes for the amount of radioactivity to reduce by 50%

C.
The faster the isotope decays, the more unstable it is

D.
The half-life is unique for any given isotope

The alcohol resulting from hydrolysis of octyl acetate is used as:

A.
Lubricant

B.
Cleansing

C.
Standard for partition coefficient analysis

D.
Co-solvent for tinctures

The greater the value of distribution coefficient (D), the higher the hydrophilicity of the drug. Lipid solubility is usually expressed by the partition between water & octanol.

A.
First statement is true, second is false

B.
Second statement is true, first is false

C.
Both statements are false

D.
Both statements are true

What metal is unaffected by body fluids hence it is used in surgical repair of bones, nerves, & muscles? (BEQ)

A.
Aluminum

B.
Tantalum

C.
Cobalt

D.
Palladium

The following are Group V cations, EXCEPT:

A.
Manganese

B.
Lithium

C.
Potassium

D.
Sodium

In the process of purifying water by chlorination, what is the rationale of adding chlorine dioxide? (BEQ)

A.
To ensure the pH of the water is 7

B.
To destroy unpleasant odor & taste

C.
To further disinfect the water

D.
To act as bleaching agent

Which test is used for nitrate, giving a positive blue color?

A.
Marsh test

B.
Turmeric paper test

C.
Perchromic acid test

D.
Lunge test

Which anion evolves a gas with a fruity odor when treated with concentrated sulfuric acid & ethanol?

A.
ClO4-

B.
SO4-2

C.
CH3COO-

D.
BrO3-3

Mineral chameleon is the synonym of this powerful oxidizing agent (BEQ)

A.
Manganese dioxide

B.
Potassium nitrate

C.
Potassium permanganate

D.
Sodium iodide

Which of the following is the chemical name for Baker’s Ammonia?

A.
Ammonium Hydroxide

B.
Ammonium Chloride

C.
Ammonium Carbonate

D.
Ammonium Molybdate

Which of the following common names is the other name for Beryl?

A.
Borax

B.
Lime

C.
Marble

D.
Aquamarine

Which of the following reduces Iodine?

A.
Sodium Hydroxide

B.
Magnesium Sulfate

C.
Sodium Thiosulfate

D.
Potassium iodide

Form of sulfur used for Vleminckx’s solution

A.
Precipitated sulfur

B.
Sublimed sulfur

C.
Sulfurated potash

D.
NOTA

Fehling’s & Benedict’s reagent, used to determine the presence of reducing sugars, contain what salt?

A.
CaSO4

B.
CuSO4

C.
MgSO4

D.
SrSO4

Which of the following elements is found in Grignard Reagent?

A.
Co

B.
Pb

C.
Fe

D.
Mg

Antidote for barium poisoning

A.
NaCl

B.
Magnesium sulfate

C.
Sodium bicarbonate

D.
Sodium Formaldehyde Sulfoxylate

Which of the following will be used to correct acute metabolic alkalosis?

A.
NaCl

B.
NaHCO3

C.
CaCl2

D.
KCl

Used as treatment for mental ailments

A.
NaHCO3

B.
Li2CO3

C.
MgSO4

D.
Na2CO3

Which of the following gases are official & used as artificial atmosphere?

I. Nitrogen

II. Oxygen

III. Neon

IV. Carbon Dioxide

A.
II, III, IV

B.
I, III, IV

C.
I, II, IV

D.
I, II, III

Homolytic cleavage results to

A.
Electrophiles

B.
Radicals

C.
Nucleophiles

D.
A & C

Which of the following is NOT soluble or miscible in Alcohol, USP?

A.
Ether

B.
Phenobarbital

C.
Formaldehyde

D.
Acacia

Which of the following is the type formula for aldehydes?

A.
RCOOH

B.
RCOX

C.
RCHO

D.
ROH

Which of the following is the strongest acid? (BEQ)

A.
Lactic acid

B.
Benzoic acid

C.
Trichloroacetic acid

D.
Acetic acid

The hydrogen will be received by the less stable vinyl carbon based on the

A.
Markovnikov rule

B.
Huckel’s rule

C.
Hund’s rule

D.
Zaitsev’s rule

Chromic acid (OA) will convert acetaldehyde to

A.
Ethanol

B.
Ethanoic acid

C.
Acetic acid

D.
Two of the above

Arrange from least to most water soluble

A.
Toluene < methanol < acetone

B.
Methanol < toluene < acetone

C.
Toluene < acetone < methanol

D.
methanol < toluene < acetone

What class of organic compounds will result after a Friedel-Crafts acylation?

A.
Carboxylic acid

B.
Alkyl halide

C.
Aldehyde

D.
Ketone

The following depicts the structures of isoproterenol & metaproterenol, respectively. They are what type of isomers?

A.
Geometric

B.
Optical

C.
Positional

D.
Skeletal

Susceptibility to hydrolysis from most susceptible to least susceptible: (BEQ)

A.
Amides > Esters > Anhydrides > Acyl Halide

B.
Acyl Halide > Anhydrides > Esters > Amides

C.
Esters > Acyl Halides > Anhydrides > Amides

D.
Anhydrides > Esters > Amides > Acyl Halides

Which of the tests WILL NOT give a positive result with acetone?

I. Brady test

II. Iodoform test

III. Fehling’s test

IV. Jones oxidation

V. Hinsberg test

A.
I, II, IV, V

B.
I & II

C.
III, IV, V

D.
I, II, III, IV, V

Product in the reaction between a primary amine & aldehyde

A.
Imine

B.
Enamine

C.
Amide

D.
Lactone

Enol is not a stable compound because it undergoes

A.
Electrophilic attack

B.
Hydrophobic attack

C.
Hydrophilic attack

D.
Hydrogen shift

E.
Tautomerization

Trans-2-alkene: (BEQ)

I. Asymmetrical

II. Non-polar

III. Higher melting point

IV. Lower boiling point

A.
I, II, III

B.
II, III, IV

C.
I, III, IV

D.
I, II, III, IV

The ring common among Penicillins & Cephalosporins is____

A.
Beta-Lactam ring

B.
Thiazole Ring

C.
Benzene Ring

D.
Phenothiazine Ring

Attachment of bulky groups to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render: (BEQ)

A.
Activity against Pseudomonas

B.
Acid stability

C.
Activity against Gram (–) bacteria

D.
Penicillinase resistance

The only part of penicillin that is always present but not essential.

A.
Sulfur

B.
Cis-stereochemistry

C.
Lactam ring

D.
Free carboxylate

Aryloxypropanolamine (structure below) is the chemical classification of what group of drugs?

A.
ARBs

B.
Opioids

C.
B-blockers

D.
Cholinergic agonists

Which of the following is chemically a fluoroquinolone?

A.
Econazole

B.
Methenamine

C.
Pipemidic Acid

D.
Norfloxacin

Which among the following is an alternative antibiotic for patient allergic to penicillin? (BEQ)

A.
Aureomycin

B.
Erythromycin

C.
Chloramphenicol

D.
Tetracycline

Which of the following agents is NOT used for local candidiasis?

A.
Nystatin

B.
Miconazole

C.
Gentian Violet

D.
Griseofulvin

Azole antifungals are a group of medicines that contain an azole ring & inhibit the growth of a wide range of fungi. They are classified into two groups: imidazole & triazole. Which of the following is an example of a triazole?

A.
Fluconazole

B.
Imidazole

C.
Miconazole

D.
Ketoconazole

The structure above is classified as:

A.
Ultra-short acting

B.
Short acting

C.
Intermediate acting

D.
Long acting

The onset & duration of Barbiturate action is a function of its __ (BEQ)

A.
Lipid solubility

B.
Renal excretion

C.
Plasma binding

D.
Mode of administration

An example of Barbiturate with intermediate action? (BEQ)

A.
Phenobarbital

B.
Thiopental

C.
Pentobarbital

D.
Amobarbital

The structure below can cause what adverse effect?

A.
Stevens-Johnson syndrome

B.
Bradycardia

C.
Addiction

D.
Cycloplegia

The structure above is classified as?

A.
Penicillin

B.
Cephalosporin

C.
Carbapenem

D.
Monobactam

What is the other name for phenylmethanol?

A.
Chloretone

B.
Benzyl Alcohol

C.
Diphenylethanol

D.
Carvacrol

The following drugs undergo acetylation reaction upon metabolism EXCEPT:

A.
Sulfanilamide

B.
Procainamide

C.
Ethanol

D.
Hydralazine

In sulfate conjugation, which of the following groups is transferred during conjugation phase of biotransformation of xenobiotics?

A.
Sulfhydryl

B.
Sulfonate

C.
Sulfide

D.
Sulfate

Which of the following is a Monoamine oxidase inhibitor used as an Anti-depressant drug?

A.
Amitriptyline

B.
Thioridazine

C.
Tranylcypromine

D.
Clozapine

Which of the following derivatives of Benzimidazole is used as an anthelmintic?

A.
Mefloquine

B.
Mebendazole

C.
Primaquine

D.
Chloroquine

What are the risks of the long-term use of Benzodiazepines? (BEQ)

I. Developing Tolerance

II. Developing acute stress reactions

III. Developing dependence

IV. Developing serious sleep problems

A.
I, III

B.
II, III

C.
I, II

D.
III, IV

ACEI are associated with high incidence of which of the following adverse reaction?

A.
Hypokalemia

B.
Agranulocytosis

C.
Hepatitis

D.
Proteinuria

Which of the following antineoplastics is NOT considered as antimetabolite?

A.
Methotrexate

B.
Thioguanine

C.
Etoposide

D.
Cytarabine

All of the following hormonal drugs possess a steroidal nucleus, EXCEPT:

A.
Ethinyl Estradiol

B.
Norethindrone

C.
Liothyronine

D.
Danazol

Which of the following is a progesterone derivative used in the treatment of endometrial cancer?

A.
Goserelin

B.
Tamoxifen

C.
Flutamide

D.
Depo-Provera

Which of the following substance when present in the urine is the most likely positive sign of pregnancy?

A.
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

B.
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

C.
Interstitial Cell Stimulating Hormone (ICSH)

D.
Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)

Which of the following anesthetics are amino esters? (BEQ)

I. Cocaine

II. Lidocaine

III. Benzocaine

IV. Prilocaine

A.
III, IV

B.
I, III

C.
II, III

D.
I, II

An antipyretic aniline derivative with weak anti-inflammatory activity: (BEQ)

A.
Acetylsalicylic acid

B.
Mefenamic acid

C.
Sulindac

D.
Acetaminophen

E.
Indomethacin

Which of the following metabolite of methoxyflurane is responsible for its nephrotoxicity?

A.
Fluoride Ion

B.
Oxalic acid

C.
Difluoromethoxyacetic acid

D.
Methane

Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of ________ which is chemically a _________.

A.
Meperidine; Phenylpiperidine

B.
Pethidine; Pyridine

C.
Methadone; Phenylheptylamine

D.
Pentazocine; Benzomorphan

The Structure of Prochlorperazine is shown. Which of the following medications, because of its chemical relationship to Prochlorperazine, would most likely cause similar side effects?

A.
Fluphenazine

B.
Thioridazine

C.
Alprazolam

D.
Buspirone

Which of the following prostaglandin analogs is used specifically for the treatment of Glaucoma?

A.
Alprostadil

B.
Latanoprost

C.
Carboprost

D.
Dinoprostone

Which of the following diuretics is most similar in chemical structure to the antihypertensive agent Diazoxide?

A.
Furosemide

B.
Spironolactone

C.
Mannitol

D.
Chlorothiazide

The termination of heparin activity by protamine sulfate is a result of:

A.
Chelating Action

B.
Inhibition of gastrointestinal absorption of heparin

C.
Displacement of heparin

D.
Acid-base interaction

All of the following classes of drugs are used to treat hypertension, EXCEPT:

A.
Aryloxypropanolamines

B.
Thiazides

C.
Fibrates

D.
Dihydropyridines

An anxiolytic drug that does not possess either hypnotic or anticonvulsant properties

A.
Tranylcypromine

B.
Imipramine

C.
Buspirone

D.
Fluoxetine

E.
Phenelzine

A prototype tricyclic antidepressant with antimuscarinic properties that makes it useful in treatment of enuresis

A.
Tranylcypromine

B.
Imipramine

C.
Buspirone

D.
Fluoxetine

E.
Phenelzine

An antidepressant that inhibits serotonin reuptake & may cause adverse effects such as impaired memory, akathisia & menstrual irregularities

A.
Tranylcypromine

B.
Imipramine

C.
Buspirone

D.
Fluoxetine

E.
Phenelzine

Organic compounds that are weak or acids or weak bases that response to the change in pH (BEQ)

A.
Analyte

B.
Indicator

C.
Titrant

D.
Primary standard

The color of phenolphthalein in vinegar (BEQ)

A.
Pink

B.
Yellow

C.
Colorless

D.
Orange

Which of the following is not a primary standard? (BEQ)

A.
Potassium biphthalate

B.
Anhydrous calcium carbonate

C.
Potassium hydroxide

D.
Potassium dichromate

The following are examples of anionic hydrocolloids, EXCEPT:

A.
Carboxymethylcellulose (CMC)

B.
Agar

C.
Chitosan

D.
Bentonite

Most toxic vitamin (BEQ)

A.
Vitamin E

B.
Ascorbic acid

C.
Folic acid

D.
Retinol

A polysaccharide that is used as plasma expander is: (BEQ)

A.
Starch

B.
Insulin

C.
Dextrose

D.
Dextran

Nos. 188 – 193: Marine sources

Which of the following are B-Carboline derivatives isolated from sponges (Subphylum Tunicata)? (BEQ)

A.
Fucoidan

B.
Carrageenan

C.
Alginic Acid

D.
Eudistamines

Which of the following is a sulfated polysaccharide compound extracted from Brown algae Laminaria spp. active against Herpes Simplex Virus? (BEQ)

A.
Alginic Acid

B.
Fucoidan

C.
Eudistamine

D.
Carrageenan

Purified carbohydrate extracted from brown seaweed by treatment of dilute alkali (BEQ)

A.
Eudistomins

B.
Carrageenan

C.
Algin

D.
Fucoidan

Which of the following is a wax obtained from whales used in the preparation of cosmetic creams & fine wax candles? (BEQ)

A.
Prostaglandins

B.
Fucoidan

C.
Spermaceti

D.
Carrageenan

Which of the following is a polysaccharide obtained from Red Seaweeds used in preparation of toothpaste as emulsifying agent? (BEQ)

A.
Prostaglandins

B.
Spermaceti

C.
Carrageenan

D.
Fucoidan

Which of the following are obtained as products of hydrolysis of Carrageenan? (BEQ)

I. Galactose

II. Glucose

III. Arabinose

IV. Xylose

A.
I, II, III

B.
III, IV

C.
II, IV

D.
II, III, IV

Which of the Structure/s in Figure 1 is/are said to be derived from the Isoquinoline ring?

A.
Structures I & II

B.
Structures III & IV

C.
Structures V & VI

D.
Structure I & VI

Which of the Structure/s in Figure 1 is/are said to be derived from the Indole ring?

A.
Structures I & II

B.
Structures III & IV

C.
Structures V & VI

D.
Structure I & VI

Which of the Structures is said to be used as a skeletal muscle relaxant to secure muscle relaxation in surgical procedures without deep anesthesia?

A.
Structure II

B.
Structure III

C.
Structure IV

D.
Structure V

Which of the Structures is said to be an Indole derivative used in the treatment of migraine headaches?

A.
Structure III

B.
Structure II

C.
Structure IV

D.
Structure V

Which of the Structures is said to be an Isoquinoline used as Antiamebic agent?

A.
Structure I

B.
Structure II

C.
Structure III

D.
Structure IV

Which of the Structures is said to be an indole derivative that inhibits polymerization of tubulin?

A.
Structure I

B.
Structure II

C.
Structure III

D.
Structure IV

Which of the Structures is said to be derived from Claviceps spp.?

A.
Structure I

B.
Structure II

C.
Structure III

D.
Structure IV

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