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M2 DRILLS Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is an advantage eukaryotes have over prokaryotes?

A. Increased stability of genetic information due to double-stranded DNA
B. Increased compartmentalization allowing for specialization
C. Streamlined transcription / translation process due to clear step-wise mechanism
D. Improved cell motility due to protein-based flagella

A

B.
Increased compartmentalization allowing for specialization

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2
Q

Plays a variety of roles, but an especially notable role is the processing of exogenous chemicals (chemicals originating outside the cell) such as drugs.

A. Golgi Complex
B. Smooth ER
C. Lysosome
D. Secretory granules
E. Rough ER

A

B.
Smooth ER

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3
Q

Select the correct statements about membrane channels:

I. Membrane permeability is conferred by 3 classes of membrane proteins: pumps, carriers and channels

II. Pump action is an example of passive transport

III. Channels provide a membrane pore through which ions can flow very rapidly in a thermodynamically downhill direction

IV. The transport of molecules across a membrane is always by active transport

A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, III, IV
C. I, III
D. II, IV

A

C.
I, III

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4
Q

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. Amino acids, consisting of a central carbon linked to an amino group, a carboxyl group, a distinctive side chain and a hydrogen atom, are chiral with the exception of Proline.

II. Only the L isomer exist in natural proteins.

III. Lysine, arginine and histidine are positively charged at neutral pH.

IV. A human adult can synthesize enough arginine to meet his or her needs.

A. I, II, III
B. II and III
C. III only
D. II, III, and IV
E. All of the above

A

D.
II, III, and IV

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5
Q

The amino acid Histidine has 3 ionizable groups with pKa values of 1.82, 6.00 and 9.17. Calculate the pI of Histidine.

A. 3.91
B. 5.50
C. 5.66
D. 7.59

A

D.
7.59

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6
Q

Separating proteins on the basis of size.

A. Gel-filtration chromatography
B. Ion-exchange chromatography
C. Affinity chromatography
D. High pressure chromatography
E. Isoelectric focusing

A

A.
Gel-filtration chromatography

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7
Q

Which of the following properties of a protein is least likely to be affected by changes in pH?

A. Tertiary structure
B. Net charge
C. Secondary structure
D. Primary structure

A

D.
Primary structure

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8
Q

Refers to the spatial arrangement of amino acid residues that are far apart in the sequence.

A. Secondary structure
B. Supersecondary structure
C. Tertiary structure
D. Quaternary structure

A

C.
Tertiary structure

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9
Q

In this condition, which can vary from mild to very severe, other amino acids replace the internal glycine residue resulting in a defective collagen.

A. Scurvy
B. Osteogenesis imperfecta
C. Osteoporosis
D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A

B.
Osteogenesis imperfecta

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10
Q

Which of the following pairs is correct?

A. Hemoglobin: storage protein
B. Fibrinogen: defensive protein
C. Fibroin: enzymatic protein
D. Ferritin: transport protein

A

B.
Fibrinogen: defensive protein

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11
Q

Which of the following amino acids is essential and both glucogenic and ketogenic?

A. Isoleucine
B. Leucine
C. Lysine
D. Histidine

A

A.
Isoleucine

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12
Q

In the binding of oxygen to myoglobin, the relationship between the concentration of oxygen and the fraction of binding sites occupied can best be described as:

A. Hyperbolic
B. Linear with positive slope
C. Parabolic
D. Sigmoidal

A

A.
Hyperbolic

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13
Q

Which of the following is a function of chaperone protein?

A. It degrades proteins that have folded improperly
B. It provide a template for how the proteins should fold
C. It rescues proteins that have folded improperly and allows them to refold properly
D. It degrades proteins that have folded properly

A

C.
It rescues proteins that have folded improperly and allows them to refold properly

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14
Q

Indole ring is detected using this qualitative test.

A. Sakaguchi test
B. Hopkins-Cole
C. Millonase test
D. Pauly’s Diazo test

A

B.
Hopkins-Cole

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15
Q

Neurodegenerative diseases such as Mad Cow and Kuru diseases are caused by infectious particles called

A. Coronavirus
B. Viroids
C. Retrovirus
D. Prions

A

D.
Prions

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16
Q

Enzymes catalyze biochemical reactions by altering which of the following quantities associated with the reaction?

A. The enthalpy of formation, DH
B. The activation energy, Ea
C. The change in Gibb’s free energy, DG
D. The equilibrium constant, Keq

A

B.
The activation energy, Ea

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17
Q

Phosphoglucomutase, which catalyzes the formation of glucose-6-phosphate from glucose-1-phosphate, is best classified as which of the following enzyme type?

A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
E. Class V

A

E.
Class V

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18
Q

Molecule ‘X’ is an enzyme inhibitor that reversibly binds to an enzyme at a site that is distinct from its active site. Molecule ‘X’ must NOT be what type of inhibitor?

A. Mixed inhibitor
B.Competitive inhibitor
C.Noncompetitive inhibitor
D.Uncompetitive inhibitor

A

B.
Competitive inhibitor

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19
Q

The catalytic efficiency of two distinct enzymes can be compared based on which of the following factor.

A. Km
B. Product formation
C. Size of the enzymes
D. pH of optimum value

A

A.
Km

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20
Q

Asparaginase is sometimes used as a chemotherapy agent. The illustration shows the Michaelis–Menten curves for two asparaginases from different sources, as well as the concentration of asparagine in the environment (indicated by the arrow). Which enzyme would make a better chemotherapeutic agent?

A.Enzyme 1
B.Enzyme 2
C.Both are equally effective
D.Information is insufficient

A

B.Enzyme 2

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21
Q

Noncompetitive inhibition illustrated in a double reciprocal plot:

A. Fig. A
B. Fig. B
C. Fig. C

A

B. Fig. B

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22
Q

The vitamin required as coenzyme for the action of transaminases is

A. Niacin
B. Pantothenic acid
C. Pyridoxal phosphate
D. Riboflavin

A

C. Pyridoxal phosphate

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23
Q

Which of the following pairs of vitamin-deficiency is correct?

A. Pantothenic acid: Burning feet syndrome
B. Thiamine: Microcytic anemia
C. Cobalamin: Neural tube defects
D. Pyridoxine: Beri-beri
E. Biotin: Scurvy

A

A. Pantothenic acid: Burning feet syndrome

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24
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding enzymes?

A.They catalyze only a particular type of reaction
B.They remain active even after separation from the source
C.They are destroyed after the completion of the reaction they catalyze
D.They are irreversibly destroyed at high temperature
E.Their activity depends on the pH of the solution

A

C.They are destroyed after the completion of the reaction they catalyze

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25
Q

Which of the following is true about phosphodiester linkage?

A. 5’-phosphate group of one nucleotide unit is joined to the 3’-hydroxyl group of the next nucleotide
B. 3’-phosphate group of one nucleotide unit is joined to the 5’-hydroxyl group of the next nucleotide
C. 5’-phosphate group of one nucleotide unit is joined to the 5’-hydroxyl group of the next nucleotide
D. 3’-phosphate group of one nucleotide unit is joined to the 3’-hydroxyl group of the next nucleotide

A

A. 5’-phosphate group of one nucleotide unit is joined to the 3’-hydroxyl group of the next nucleotide

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26
Q

Which of the following statements is not true about RNA?

A. Does not have a double stranded structure
B. Thymine is present
C. Does not obey Chargaff’s rule
D.The sugar contained in RNA is a ribose

A

B. Thymine is present

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27
Q

Which of the following statements is true about the DNA?

A. The template strand matches the sequence of the RNA transcript
B. The two strands of DNA run parallel to each other
C. G-C bonds are much more resistant to denaturation than A-T rich regions
D. The common form of DNA is left handed

A

C. G-C bonds are much more resistant to denaturation than A-T rich regions

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28
Q

Which of the following involves carrying genetic information from DNA for protein synthesis?

A. m-RNA
B. t-RNA
C. r-RNA
D. sn-RNA

A

A. m-RNA

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29
Q

Which of the following is true about RNA synthesis?

A. Synthesis of RNA is always in the 5’ to 3’ direction
B. RNA polymerase requires a primer for initiating transcription
C. U is inserted opposite T in transcription
D. New nucleotides are added on the 2’-OH of the ribose sugar

A

A. Synthesis of RNA is always in the 5’ to 3’ direction

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30
Q

Which of the following mechanisms will remove uracil and incorporate the correct base?

A. Direct repair
B. Base excision repair
C. Mismatch repair
D. Nucleotide excision repair

A

B. Base excision repair

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31
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

           I.         In glucose, the C-1 aldehyde in the open-chain form of glucose reacts with the C-5 hydroxyl group to form an intramolecular hemiketal.

          II.         Most natural occurring sugars belong to the D-series.

        III.         The anomeric carbon atom in ketoses is C-2 in their cyclic forms.

        IV.         Glycogen has more branch points formed by a-1,6 linkages than starch and thus less soluble.

A. I and II

B. II and III

C. I, II, III

D. II and IV

E. All of the above

A

B. II and III

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32
Q

Which of the following pairs are correct?

A. D-glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone: enantiomers
B. D-ribose and D-ribulose: Epimers
C. a-D-glucose and b-D-glucose: Diastereomers
D. D-glucose and D-mannose: Anomers

A

C. a-D-glucose and b-D-glucose: Diastereomers

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33
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

  I.         Carbohydrates are drawn as straight chains in Haworth and ring structures in Fischer projections.

 II.         The ring forms are furanoses and pyranoses and contain 5 and 6 members, respectively.

III. In solution mutarotation occurs.

IV. a-D-glucopyranose predominates in solution

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II, III
D. II and IV
E. All of the above

A

B. II and III

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34
Q

Glucose on oxidation does not give

A. Glycoside
B. Glucosaccharic acid
C. Gluconic acid
D. Glucuronic acid

A

A. Glycoside

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35
Q

The distinguishing test between monosaccharides and disaccharides is

A. Bial’s test
B. Seliwanoff’s test
C. Barfoed’s test
D. Hydrolysis test

A

C. Barfoed’s test

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36
Q

Specific test for ketohexoses:

A. Seliwanoff’s test
B. Osazone test
C. Orcinol test
D. Phloroglucinol test

A

A. Seliwanoff’s test

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37
Q

Which of the following is/are correct?

  I.         Glycolipids are derivative of the lipid sphingosine.

 II.         Gangliosides are the glycolipids occurring in the liver.

III. Glycolipids are involved in intracellular communication

IV. They are produced in the endoplasmic reticulum.

A. I and III
B. II and III
C. II and IV
D. All of the above

A

A. I and III

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38
Q

The serum of an individual with B blood group contains

A. Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies
B. Anti-D antibodies
C. Anti-A antibodies
D. Anti-B antibodies

A

B. Anti-D antibodies

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39
Q

Which of the following is false about fatty acids?

A. Melting point of fatty acids decreases with increase in degree of saturation
B. Lipids in tissues that are subjected to cooling are more unsaturated
C. Naturally occurring unsaturated long-chain fatty acids are nearly trans-configuration
D. The membrane lipids contain mostly unsaturated fatty acids

A

C. Naturally occurring unsaturated long-chain fatty acids are nearly trans-configuration

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40
Q

Which of the following fatty acid has 16 carbon atoms?

A. Linolenic acid
B. Oleic acid
C. Palmitic acid
D. Stearic acid

A

C. Palmitic acid

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41
Q

Which of the following is omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acid?

A. Linoleic acid
B. α-Linolenic acid
C. γ-Linolenic acid
D. Arachidonic acid

A

B. α-Linolenic acid

42
Q

The most potent Vitamin D metabolite is

A. 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
B. 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
C. 24,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
D. 7-Dehydrocholesterol

A

B. 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol

43
Q

Niemann-Pick disease results from deficiency of

A. Ceramidase
B. Arylsulphatase A
C. Sphingomyelinase
D. Hexosaminidase A

A

C. Sphingomyelinase

44
Q

Glycolysis is regulated by:

A. Hexokinase
B. Phosphofructokinase-1
C. Pyruvate kinase
D. All of the above

A

B. Phosphofructokinase-1

45
Q

Substrate level phosphorylation in TCA cycle is in the step catalyzed by:

A. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
B. Malate dehydrogenase
C. Aconitase
D. Succinate thiokinase

A

D. Succinate thiokinase

46
Q

Net ATP generation on complete oxidation of stearic acid is

A. 120
B. 144
C. 106
D. 129

A

A. 120

47
Q

The regulatory enzyme in HMP shunt is

A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
B. 6-Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these

A

A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

48
Q

Complex 1 is also called _________

A. NADH dehydrogenase
B. Succinate dehydrogenase
C. Cytochrome bc1 complex
D. Cytochrome oxidase

A

A. NADH dehydrogenase

49
Q

Every cycle of β-oxidation produces

A. 1 FAD, 1 NAD+ and 2 CO2 molecules

B. 1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 1 acetyl CoA

C. 1 FADH2, 1 NAD+ and 1 acetyl CoA

D. 1 FAD, 1 NADH and 2 CO2 molecules

A

B. 1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 1 acetyl CoA

50
Q

Preferred method of classification of drugs in Pharmacognosy

A. By morphology
B. By taxonomy
C. By therapeutic application
D. By chemical constituents

A

D. By chemical constituents

51
Q

A polymer of glucose synthesized by the action of leuconostoc mesenteroids in a sucrose medium is

A. Dextrans
B. Limit dextrin
C. Dextrin
D. Xanthan

A

A. Dextrans

52
Q

Preferred form of tragacanth gum which made from transverse incisions on the main stems and branches

A. Vermiform
B. Tragacanth sorts
C. Ribbon and flake
D. Bassorin

A

C. Ribbon and flake

53
Q

Guar

A. Shrubs or Tree Exudates
B. Marine gums
C. Seed gums
D. Plant Extracts
E. Microbial gums

A

C. Seed gums

54
Q

Tapioca or Cassava starch

A. Triticum aestivum
B. Avena sativa
C. Hordeum sp
D. Manihot utilissima

A

D. Manihot utilissima

55
Q

Used as a plasma expander at 6% concentration.

A. Pregelatinized starch
B. Sodium starch glycolate
C. Hetastarch
D. Dextrins

A

C. Hetastarch

56
Q

Salicin

A. Anthraquinone
B. Flavonol
C. Alcohol
D. Aldehyde

A

C. Alcohol

57
Q

St. John’s wort

A. Isothiocyanate
B. Saponin
C. Flavonol
D. Anthraquinone

A

D. Anthraquinone

58
Q

Contains flavonolignans with marked hepatoprotective properties

A. Sarsaparilla
B. Milk Thistle
C. Yam
D. Wild cherry

A

B. Milk Thistle

59
Q

Employed in the treatment of peptic ulcer and Addison’s disease

A. Dioscorea
B. Mustard
C. Licorice
D. Bearberry

A

C. Licorice

60
Q

Used for idiopathic vitiligo and psoriasis

A. Ammi majus
B. Arctostaphylos uva-ursi
C. Catharis vesicatoria
D. Melilotus spp.

A

A. Ammi majus

61
Q

It is a pharmaceutic aid in Compound Benzoin Tincture and a cathartic.

A

STRUCTURE

62
Q

Used for the treatment of Congestive heart failure and cardiac arrhythmia.

A

STRUCTURE

63
Q

Evaluate the following statements

  I.         Pseudotannins give positive results with goldbeater’s skin test

 II.         Tannins are mixtures of polyphenols that do not crystallize

III. Tannins are compounds of low molecular weights.

IV. Complex tannins are combinations of hydrolysable and condensed tannins

A. Only one statement is true
B. Two statements are true
C. Three statements are true
D. All statements are true
E. All statements are false

A

B. Two statements are true

64
Q

Chief source of tannic acid

A. Nutgall
B. Witch hazel leaves
C. Catechu
D. Kinos

A

A. Nutgall

65
Q

Refer to the diagram

Enzyme L:

A

PATHWAY

66
Q

Refer to the diagram

Enzyme P:

A

PATHWAY

67
Q

This is used for the symptomatic treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia

A. Safflower oil
B. Sunflower oil
C. Saw Palmetto oil
D. Persic oil

A

C. Saw Palmetto oil

68
Q

The only liquid wax

A. Sus scrofa
B. Gaddus morrhua
C. Physeter macrocephalus
D. Simmondsia chinensis

A

D. Simmondsia chinensis

69
Q

Contains a toxic principle that causes male sterility

A. Palm kernel oil
B. Germ oil
C. Rapeseed oil
D. Cottonseed oil

A

D. Cottonseed oil

70
Q

Drying oil

A. Linum ussitassimum
B. Gossypium hirsutum
C. Sesamum indicum
D. Olea europaea

A

A. Linum ussitassimum

71
Q

Solvents for IM injections, EXCEPT:

A. Corn oil
B. Cottonseed oil
C. Peanut oil
D. Soybean oil

A

D. Soybean oil

72
Q

Identify the specialized structures
Citrus limon

A.Glandular hairs
B. Modified parenchymal cells
C. Vittae
D. Lysigenous or schizogenous ducts

A

D. Lysigenous or schizogenous ducts

73
Q

Guttiferae

A. Apiaceae
B. Brassicaceae
C. Clusiaceae
D. Arecaceae
E. Asteraceae

A

C. Clusiaceae

74
Q

Identify the classification of the volatile oils:

Lavandula officinalis

A. Ketone
B. Ester
C. Alcohol
D. Phenolic ether
E. Phenol

A

B. Ester

75
Q

Identify the classification of the volatile oils:
Thymus vulgaris

A. Aldehyde
B. Alcohol
C. Phenol
D. Phenolic ether
E. Ester

A

C. Phenol

76
Q

Pistacia lentiscus

A. Resin
B. Oleoresin
C. Oleogumresin
D. Balsam

A

A. Resin

77
Q

Liquidambar orientalis

A. Resin
B. Oleoresin
C. Oleogumresin
D. Balsam

A

D. Balsam

78
Q

A drug of abuse, used in the preparation of intoxicating beverages containing styrylpyrones

A. Jalap
B. Cannabis
C. Kava-kava
D. Yerba santa

A

C. Kava-kava

79
Q

Olibanum

A. Resin
B. Oleoresin
C. Oleogumresin
D. Balsam

A

C. Oleogumresin

80
Q

Pilocarpine

A. Isoquinoline
B. Quinoline
C. Imidazole
D. Indole
E. Pyridine-Piperidine

A

C. Imidazole

81
Q

Tubocurarine

A. Quinoline
B. Imidazole
C. Isoquinoline
D. Indole
E. Purine

A

C. Isoquinoline

82
Q

Alkaloidal amines, except

A. Peyote
B. Ephedra
C. Colchicum
D. Khat
E. Ergot

A

E. Ergot

83
Q

Opium tincture

A. Dover’s power
B. Paregoric
C. Laudanum
D. Morphine + HCl

A

C. Laudanum

84
Q

Synthesized in the leaves and they accumulate in relatively large quantities in the immature seeds and fruits of some plants. The growth effect of this hormone arises by cell elongation in the subapical meristem region where young internodes are developing.

A. Auxin
B. Gibberelins
C. Cytokinins
D. Abscisic acid
E. Ethylene

A

B. Gibberelins

85
Q

Natural growth inhibitors are present in plants and affect bud opening, seed germination and development of dormancy.

A. Auxin
B. Gibberelins
C. Cytokinins
D. Abscisic acid
E. Ethylene

A

D. Abscisic acid

86
Q

Major auxin in plants

A. Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA)
B. Napthalene-1-acetic acid (NAA)
C. 2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D)
D. Indole-3-butyric acid (IBA)

A

A. Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA)

87
Q

Formed during the germination of barley grains and converts starch into maltose.

A. Zymase
B. Invertase
C. Diastase
D. Emulsin
E. Myrosin

A

C. Diastase

88
Q

A substance containing enzymes, principally amylase, lipase and protease, used as a digestive aid

A. Pepsin
B. Trypsin
C. Chymotrypsin
D. Erepsin
E. Pancreatin

A

E. Pancreatin

89
Q

They bring about the oxidation reactions that cause the discoloration of bruised fruits

A. Peroxidases
B. Zymase
C. Deoxyribonuclease
D. Lysozymes

A

A. Peroxidases

90
Q

Alkaloids that contain a ring nitrogen, but do not come from amino acids

A. Pseudoalkaloid
B. Protoalkaloid
C. True alkaloid
D. Flavonoid

A

A. Pseudoalkaloid

91
Q

Which of the following plant constituents are biosynthesized via Shikimic acid pathway?

  I.         Quinine

 II.         Diosgenin

III. Sennoside

IV. Terpineol

A. I and II
B. I, II, III
C. I and III
D. All of the above

A

C. I and III

92
Q

Which of the following compounds are biosynthesized via the Mevalonate Pathway?

  I.         Ouabagenin

 II.         Stigmasterol

III. Geranial

IV. Artemisinin

A. I and II
B. I, II, III
C. I and III
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

93
Q

The following statements are true about the shikimic acid pathway EXCEPT

A. Shikimic acid pathway produces phenylpropanoids.
B. It is also known as the Terpenoid pathway.
C. This pathway is not found in both humans and animals
D. The pathway produces the aromatic amino acids, Phe, Tyr and Trp

A

B. It is also known as the Terpenoid pathway.

94
Q

Substrate P

A

STRUCTURE

95
Q

Precursor of opium alkaloids from which they are derived

A

STRUCTURE

96
Q

The following statements are true about the methyl erythritol phosphate pathway (MEP) EXCEPT

A. Also known as Nonmevalonic acid pathway or DOXP pathway.
B. The rate limiting enzyme is DOXP synthase which catalyzes the 1st step (Pyruvate + Glyceraldehyde)
C. This pathway is absent in archaebacteria, fungi and animals
D. Plants use both MVA and MEP pathways for isoprenoid biosynthesis

A

B. The rate limiting enzyme is DOXP synthase which catalyzes the 1st step (Pyruvate + Glyceraldehyde)

97
Q

Which of the following is/are the final product/s of the dark reactions during photosynthesis?

I. ATP
II. NADPH
III. O2
IV. Glucose

A. I, II, III
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, III, IV
D. IV only

A

D. IV only

98
Q

Vitali-morin test is used to identify this alkaloid

A. Caffeine
B. Quinine
C. Atropine
D. Morphine
E. Ephedrine

A

C. Atropine

99
Q

The drug has been employed as a calmative in nervousness and hysteria. Possess principles with mild tranquilizing activity.

A. Valerian
B. Ginseng
C. Royal Jelly
D. Echinacea
E. Feverfew

A

A. Valerian

100
Q

It has been observed to provide some relief from the painful symptoms of migraine headache and arthritis.

A. Valerian
B. Ginseng
C. Royal Jelly
D. Echinacea
E. Feverfew

A

E. Feverfew

DRILLS (8 decks)

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