Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Next Up > M2 B1 > Flashcards

M2 B1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the sections within the career field training plan (CFETP) part I?

A

Identifies the specialty training standard (STS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement for upgrade to 3D153?

A

Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which 3D career field installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems and responds to service outages and interruptions to network operations?

A

Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs voice, data and video network infrastructure systems, Internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment?

A

Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What outlines mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG)?

A

Job safety training outline (JSTO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which AF Form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

A

457

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

A

Stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which Air Force program provides a means of reporting hazards that involve flight, ground, weapons, or space safety?

A

Hazard reporting program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that result in cardiac arrest and can cause death is

A

50 mA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Within how many hours must a medical exam be conducted if non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs?

A

72

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which technical order (TO) publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?

A

TO 31–10 series

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

A

Upper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?

A

Minimize transmission loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How are connectorized cables labeled?

A

The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second is
placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?

A

Adhesive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment?

A

Flight commander/chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the three main functions of grounding?

A

Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The facility ground subsystem to uses surge arrestors is the

A

Lightning protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

A

Bonding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The RED designation is used for equipment processing

A

clear-text classified information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?

A

Class I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?

A

Walking across carpet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which distinct region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth’s atmosphere?

A

Source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What source region electromagnetic pulse region has a primarily vertical electromagnetic pulse electric field and what structures are affected?

A

Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning shielding?

A

Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates

A

enemy jamming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?

A

Rapid tuning transmitter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges?

A

Power line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders?

A

Joint Spectrum Center.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Who is the focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation?

A

Wing information assurance office (WIAO).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

A

Distances and angles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What secondary cell is prone to the memory effect?

A

Nickel cadmium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?

A

Sag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

A

Blackout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)?

A

Noise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as “offline” by technicians?

A

Passive standby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power?

A

Line interactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

A

Three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?

A

Amplitude, frequency, and phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains

A

carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband

42
Q

What factor determines the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal? a. Amplitude of the modulating signal

A

Frequency of the modulating signal

43
Q

The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the

A

percent of modulation

44
Q

Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives

A

no reduction in carrier power

45
Q

The output of the oscillator in a frequency modulation (FM) modulator increases in frequency with each

A

positive half cycle of the modulating signal

46
Q

A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index?

A

3

47
Q

What is the narrow frequency band between adjacent stations used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping?

A

Guard band

48
Q

What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts?

A

Higher data rates within a given bandwidth

49
Q

What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process?

A

The analog signal is band limited

50
Q

Quantization in the pulse code modulation process is

A

placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values

51
Q

In asynchronous transmissions, what bit is used by the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctly?

A

Parity

52
Q

If an error should occur, what transmission is lost in an synchronous transmission?

A

Block of data

53
Q

The significance the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern when using vertical redundancy check (VRC) is that it determines

A

Parity

54
Q

What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors?

A

VRC and LRC

55
Q

When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction ?

A

Receiving end

56
Q

In telecommunications cable, the “tip” or “primary” wire color group order is

A

white, red, black, yellow, and violet

57
Q

Two types of network cables are

A

straight through and crossover

58
Q

An optical transmitter is comprised of

A

a driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail

59
Q

What is the bandwidth of multimode step-index optical fiber cable?

A

10 MHz – 100 MHz/km

60
Q

Which type of cable is the hardest to splice?

A

Single mode fiber

61
Q

A short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end is called a

A

Patch cord

62
Q

What allows transportation of all active virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?

A

Trunks

63
Q

Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?

A

Router

64
Q

Which routing protocol do Internet backbones use?

A

Border gateway protocol (BGP)

65
Q

Virtual private networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

A

public network

66
Q

Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs?

A

Encapsulates data

67
Q

What software do video compression circuits use to determine the amount of change that occurs between frames?

A

Compression and decompression (codec) algorithm

68
Q

Simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for

A

future growth

69
Q

Which of the following is not a basic SNMP command?

A

Get

70
Q

Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

A

Biometrics

71
Q

Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

A

Spam

72
Q

Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

A

Patches

73
Q

What physical security implementation will ensure continuous operation of critical network equipment?

A

Uninterruptible power supply

74
Q

In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling the

A

auxiliary port

75
Q

When using a multimeter, which option should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations?

A

Display hold

76
Q

When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

A

Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested

77
Q

Which mode of triggering an oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, whether there is an input signal or not?

A

Auto

78
Q

Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire?

A

Passive 1:1

79
Q

What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations?

A

Microprocessors

80
Q

In real-time sampling, what type of interpolation is used when measuring pulse waves?

A

Linear

81
Q

The size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT) is determined by the

A

number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern

82
Q

What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?

A

Bipolar violation

83
Q

What type of error is the result of a bit not positioned where it should be?

A

Bit slip

84
Q

What is the first step in testing ground?

A

Disconnect the earth electrode under test from its connection to the site

85
Q

A known current is generated by the earth ground tester between the earth ground electrode and the

A

auxiliary current probe

86
Q

Voltage potential is measured in the fall of potential ground testing method between the

A

auxiliary potential electrode and the earth test ground electrode

87
Q

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) has recommended a ground resistance value of

A

5 ohms or less

88
Q

What component of a protocol analyzer stores all frames based on the user configuration inputs?

A

Buffer

89
Q

What component on a protocol analyzer process the frames based on the selected test and user configuration inputs?

A

Central processing unit

90
Q

What active test is selected to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

A

Packet internetwork groper (PING)

91
Q

What active test is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?

A

Trace route

92
Q

A radio frequency generator is used to

A

align telemetry receivers

93
Q

Which are the correct four classes of electronic counters?

A

Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters

94
Q

The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represented by how many decibels (dB)?

A

10 dB

95
Q

When transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, it has increased by

A

3 dB

96
Q

Plug-in elements of the wattmeter are selected based on the

A

frequency and power to be measured

97
Q

What test equipment combines the operations of many test instruments into a single compact unit?

A

Communication service monitor

98
Q

What function is not part of the communication service monitor?

A

Analog multimeter

99
Q

What operational capability of the communication service monitor produce sine, square and triangle waveforms?

A

Function generator

100
Q

Which of the following is not a type of power level displayed by a power meter?

A

Decibels

Next Up (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions