M1 B1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

A

Radio Frequency Transmissions

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2
Q

Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

A

Cable and Antenna Systems

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3
Q

Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program?

A

Duty Position Task

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4
Q

Who is the advisor for ALL matters affecting the career field?

A

Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

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5
Q

Who is the FINAL authority to waive Career Field Education Training Plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) Career Development Course (CDC)?

A

Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

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6
Q

Who serves as the Major Command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (UTW)?

A

Major Command Functional Managers (MFM)

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7
Q

Who assists with the identification of qualified Subject Matter Experts (SME) to help with the development of your Specialty Knowledge Test (SKT) and your Career Development Course (CDC)?

A

Major Command Functional Managers (MFM)

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8
Q

What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace Non-Commissioned Officer (NCO)?

A

Base Functional Manager (BFM)

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9
Q

Occupational surveys are used to develop the Specialty Knowledge Test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

A

Develop Career Development Courses (CDC)

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10
Q

What action is the MAIN goal of the Utilization and Training workshop (UTW)?

A

Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

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11
Q

Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

A

Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)

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12
Q

What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

A

On-the-Job Training (OJT) program

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13
Q

What are the three essential elements in the Quality Assurance (QA) program?

A
  • Quality Assessment
  • Quality System
  • Trend Analysis
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14
Q

What are the three evaluation types used in the Quality Assurance (QA) program?

A
  • Technical Evaluations
  • Personnel Evaluations
  • Managerial Evaluations
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15
Q

Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

A

Trend Analysis

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16
Q

What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

A

Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)

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17
Q

What automated information system manages the entire life cycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

A

Remedy

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18
Q

What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force and Marine Corps?

A

Title 10

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19
Q

The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

A

Title 10

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20
Q

What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

A

National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

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21
Q

Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

A

National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

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22
Q

What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces’ comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

A

National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations

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23
Q

When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

A

Title 10

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24
Q

An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as?

A

Covered Relationships

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25
Q

Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

A

Covered Relationships

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26
Q

What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

A

AF Cyber Security and Control System (CSCS) weapon system

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27
Q

What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

A

AF Cyber Security and Control System (CSCS) weapon system

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28
Q

What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

A

AF Intranet Control (AFINC) weapon system

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29
Q

Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

A

AF Intranet Control (AFINC) weapon system

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30
Q

What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

A

Cyber Command and Control Mission System (C3MS) weapon system

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31
Q

What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

A

Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter (CVA/Hunter) weapon system

32
Q

What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

A

AF Space Command and 24th Air Force

33
Q

What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing, and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion?

A

Active and Reactive

34
Q

Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

A

Military Deception (MILDEC)

35
Q

What document directs the development of the National Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

A

DoD Strategic Planning Guidance

36
Q

Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

A

Defensive Information Systems Agency (DISA)

37
Q

What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

A

85th Engineering Installation Squadron

38
Q

Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

A

Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

39
Q

What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access and storage?

A

Area Processing Center

40
Q

What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

A

Efficiency

41
Q

What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

A

2010

42
Q

What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

A

Unified Command and Subordinate Unified Command

43
Q

The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a ?

A

Joint Force Commander (JFC)

44
Q

What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

A

Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)

45
Q

What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

A

Unit Type Code

46
Q

What are the five Service Life Cycle stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)?

A
  • Service Strategy
  • Service Transition
  • Service Operation
  • Service Design
  • Continual Service Improvement
47
Q

What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

A

Continual Service Improvement

48
Q

The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower user to?

A

Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment

49
Q

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is violation of what article of the UCMJ?

A

Article 92

50
Q

How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

A

Six

51
Q

What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

A

A well-written summary

52
Q

How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a SharePoint Server?

A

Three

  • Approval Workflow
  • Collect Feedback Workflow
  • Collect Signatures Workflow
53
Q

Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an “official government record”?

A

AFI 33-322

54
Q

Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

A

Library reference or museum exhibitions

55
Q

Records that are considered to be in draft format?

A

Can be altered and are not officially released

56
Q

Who is charged with duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

A

Command Records Manager (CRM)

57
Q

Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

A

Base Records Manager (BRM)

58
Q

Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

A

Functional Area Records Manager (FARM)

59
Q

Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

A

Chief of the Office of Records

60
Q

Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?

A

Deputy Secretary

61
Q

What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities function, relationship and authority?

A

Chartering Directives

62
Q

What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

A

DODD 8570.01

63
Q

How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?

A

Two. Policy and non-policy.

64
Q

What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub subject groups?

A

The Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS)

65
Q

What joint publication (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

A

Joint Publications (JP) 6-0, Joint Communications System

66
Q

What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

A

Non-directive Publications

67
Q

What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

A

Air Force Handbook

68
Q

What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?

A

AF Policy Directives

69
Q

What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?

A

AF Policy Memorandum

70
Q

What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs and DRUs with their respective units?

A

AF Mission Directives

71
Q

What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

A

AF Instructions (AFI)

72
Q

What information about the TO system is outlined in technical order (TO) 00-5-1?

A
  • Training to manage and use TOs
  • Resources to manage and use TOs
  • Infrastructure to manage and use TOs
73
Q

What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

A

Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)

74
Q

What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

A

Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) personnel

75
Q

Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?

A

Any user that is trained and authorized to access the data

76
Q

Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with “31” and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

A

Standard Installation Practices TOs (SIPTO)

77
Q

Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IPE) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

A

Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)