Lymphoma- Weir Flashcards

1
Q

Human T-cell leukemia virus-1 (HTLV-1) is associated with what WBC malignancy?

A

Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

EBV is associate with what WBC malignancies?

A

Burkitt lymphoma, 30-40% of Hodgkin lymphoma, many B cell lymphomas arising in the setting of T cell immunodeficiency, and rare NK cell lymphomas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Kaposi sarcoma herpesvirus/human herpesvirus-8 (KSHV/HHV-8) is associated with which WBC malignancy?

A

An unusual B-cell lymphoma that presents as a malignant effusion, often in the pleural cavity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What influence does smoking have on the incidence of acute myeloid leukemia?

A

increased 1.3-2 fold, presumably because of exposure to carcinogens, such as benzene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

All lymphomas are broken into one of two categories based on distinctive pathologic features and treatment:

A

Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and non-hodgkin lymphomas (NHLs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Plasma cell neoplasms most often arise in this tissue and only infrequently involve lymph nodes or the peripheral blood:

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2/3rds of all NHLs and virtually all HLs present as this, clinically.

A

enlarged, non-tender lymph nodes (often >2cm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most common plasma cell neoplasm and how does it most often present?

A

multiple myeloma; causes bony destruction of the skeleton and often presents with pain due to pathologic fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The lymphoid neoplasms can be sorted into these 5 broad categories based on cell of origin:

A

1) precursor B-cell neoplasms (neoplasms of immature B cells)
2) peripheral B-cell neoplasms (neoplasms of mature B cells)
3) precursor T-cell neoplasms (neoplasms of immature T-cells)
4) peripheral T-cell and NK-cell neoplasms (neoplasms of mature T cells and NK cells)
5) Hodgkin lymphoma (neoplasms of Reed-Sternberg cells and variants)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The vast majority (85-90%) of lymphoid neoplasms are of __-cell origin.

A

B-cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Are NK-cell tumors common?

A

No, very rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lymphoma staging provides generally useful prognostic information for all lymphomas, but due to the orderly spread of this particular lymphoma (sometimes restricted to one group of lymph nodes), staging is of most utility in guiding therapy in treating ________ lymphoma.

A

Hodgkin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What stage is a lymphoma pt with lymph nodes in two locations on one side of the diaphragm?

A

Stage II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common form of adult leukemia in the Western world?

A

CLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
Which of the following is commonly associated with Burkitt's lymphoma?
HIV
EBV
HHV8
HTLV1
H. pylori
A

EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which is true if a pt has an indolent (does not bother pt) lymphoma?
More likely cured than aggressive lymphoma
Must approach with aggressive therapy
May be watched until it bothers the pt
Usually localized

A

May be watched until it bothers the pt.
Indolent lymphomas are more likely to be higher stage.
Treat them when they are symptomatic because they are incurable except @ stages I-II.
Survival is independent of early treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most common indolent lymphoma?

Name the translocation associated.

A

follicular lymphoma

t(14:18) bcl-2 upregulated (anti-apoptosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is going on (chromosomally) in small lymohocytic/CLL?

A

17p deletion results in p53 loss and thus loss of control of cell cycle progression.

19
Q

Mycosis fungoides are associated with what tissues?

A

Gastic, mucosa around eye, mucosa of lung.

It is a T-cell cutaneous lymphoma

20
Q

In lymphomas, are aggressive (high grade) tumors more often found at lower or higher stages?

A

Low stages

21
Q

Are aggressive lymphomas very curable?

A

Yes. Compared to indolent that are not often curable. With appropriate treatment (complex treatment) they can be cured when attacked early on.

22
Q

Describe the lymphoma staging system.

A

Stage 1: single node or lymphoid structure
Stage 2: two or more lymph regions on ONE side of the diaphragm
Stage 3: Both sides of diaphragm involved
Stage IV: Extranodal (cancer has left lymph system)

23
Q

What is the most common lymphoma in the US?

A

Diffuse large B cell (37%) followed by follicular (29%)

24
Q

What are the treatments of indolent lymphomas?

A
Local irradiation
Alkylators and prednisone
Anthracyclines
Fludarabine
Ab therapy
Radiation labeled Abs
Combination therapy: CHOP ( ); fludarabine + mitoxantrone
25
Q

What are the treatments of aggressive lymphomas?

A
Combination chemos: rCHOP (cyclophosphamide, Hydroxydaunorubicin, vincristine, prednisone + rituximab); HyperCVAD
Ab therapy plus CHOP
Radio-immunotherapy
Short course chemo + radiation
Bone marrow transplant for relapse
26
Q

How does rituximab work to fight cancer?

A

It is a mAb for CD20. Binds to CD20 on B cells and makes them a target for phagocytosis by macrophages or killing my NK cells. Also initiates complement cascade for same effect.

27
Q

Alemtuzumab is a targeted therapy mAb for:

A

CD52

28
Q

brentuximab vedotin is a targeted therapy mAB for:

A

CD30

29
Q

ibrutinib is a targeted therapy inhibitor of:

A

Bruton Tyrosine Kinase

30
Q
Which of the following is commonly associated with lymphoma after transplants?
HIV
EBV
HHV8
HTLV1
H. pylori
A

EBV

31
Q

What infections are associated with lymphoma?

A
HIV
EBV
HHV8
HTLV1
H. pylori
32
Q

What is the most common cutaneous lymphoma?

A

Mycosis fungoides

33
Q

You see abnormal cells in the peripheral blood that have characteristic, cerebriform, large, and clefted nuclei with fine chromatin pattern and scanty cytoplasm. What are you tihinking?

A

Sezary syndrome. A type of lymphoma

34
Q

Hodgkin disease is derived from a B or T cell?

A

B cell

35
Q

If you see smudge cells, what should you be thinking?

A

CLL

36
Q

Describe the Rai staging system for CLL.

A
0= lymphocytosis
1= enlarged lymph nodes
2= hepatosplenomegaly
3= Hb < 10 (non-immune)
4= platelets <100 K/uL (non-immune)
37
Q

17p deletions and TP53 mutations are associated with which malignancies of the blood?

A

multiple myeloma and CLL

38
Q

Unmutated VH (variable heavy chain) genes are a bad prognostic indicator for CLL. Why is that?

A

It means the cells have not differentiated.

39
Q

Poor prognostic indicators (prognosis is poor) of CLL are:

A
High stage
Increased rate of lymphocyte doubling time
Beta 2 microglobulin
Deletion of 17p, TP53 mutations
Unmutated VH genes
40
Q

How do you treat CLL?

A

Alkylators: chlorambucil, cyclophosphamide, bendamustine
Purine analogues: Fludarabine
Chemotherapy combos: FCR
Immunotherapy: rituximab (CD20- ofatumumab is better), alemtuxumab (CD52)
ibrutinib (Bruton’s tyrosine kinase), Idelalisib (PI3Kinase delta inhibitor)
Radiation
Corticosteroids

41
Q

When do you start treating hairy cell leukemia (it is an indolent lymphoma)?

A

When the pt becomes cytopenic

42
Q

How do you treat hairy cell leukemia?

A

2-chlorodeoxyadenosine and deoxycoformycin

43
Q

What are 2 complications of CLL?

A

Frequent infections.

Progression to Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma