Lvl.3 Flashcards

1
Q

How much excess air is supplied to an atmospheric burner?

a) 10% of the primary air
b) 25% of the primary air
c) 50% of the air required for stoichiometric combustion

A

c)

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2
Q

How much Co2 is produced by burning 50ft3 of C3H8?

a) 10ft3
b) 25ft3
c) 50ft3
d) 150ft3

A

c)

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3
Q

When we increase excess air, our efficiency increases. True or False?

A

False

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4
Q

What two factors have the greatest effect of stack draft?

a) volume and temperature
b) height and volume
c) volume and size
d) height and temperature

A

d)

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5
Q

What will happen to relative humidity during winter in a house if the vapour barrier has not been made continuous?

a) RH will increase
b) RH will decrease
c) RH not affected

A

a)

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6
Q

On an older home that has undergone some updates, where will the greatest heat loss occur?

a) walls
b) ceilings
c) windows
d) unknown until an assessment of the envelope is done

A

c)

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7
Q

Which of the following pipe sizes must be welded?

a) 2”
b) 2-1/2”
c) 4”
d) 4-1/2”

A

c)

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8
Q

An underground steel piping system, using factory-coated pipe and operating at 7’‘w.c, shall be tested at a min of

a) 7psig
b) 15psig
c) 30psig
d) 100psig

A

d)

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9
Q

If an individual is convicted of an offence under the BC Safety Standards Act, they can be liable to a fine, or Imprisonment, or both up to

a) 12mo and 10k
b) 18mo and 200k
c) 12mo and 200k
d) 18mo and 100k

A

d)

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10
Q

Metallic pipe installed underground as a permanent installation must be

a) covered in plastic
b) painted with anti rust paint
c) catholically protected
d) oversized

A

c)

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11
Q

A CH4 natural draft appliance with an input of 30,000btuh has its air for combustion being supplied by mechanical means, the air supply required is

a) 30,000ft3
b) 30ft3
c) 900ft3
d) 300ft3

A

c)

30cuft for every btuh burned

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12
Q

A 210ft low-pressure gas piping system shall be pressure tested to __________

a) 15psi for 30min
b) 15psi for 60min
c) 50psi for 60min
d) 50psi for 180min

A

b) 15psi for 60 min

60min over 200ft and min less than 200ft

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13
Q

When a CSST piping is connected to the piping near the meter, and installed along the exterior of a residential building, it is required to be

a) painted along its entire length
b) installed with a swing joint
c) have a union at the connection point the steel
d) be bonded at the point of connection

A

d)

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14
Q

The diameter of dirt pocket on a 3” piping system shall be

a) 3”
b) 2”
c) 1”
d) 1/2”

A

b)

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15
Q

The length of a dirt pocket on a 12” piping system shall be

a) 12”
b) 3”
c) 2”
d) 6”

A

a)

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16
Q

What should a gas fitters tag have on it?

a) name and registration number
b) type of appliances
c) date of affixation
d) all of the above

A

d)

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17
Q

When a direct vent appliance draws its combustion air from inside the building, it is still classified as a direct vented appliance. True or False?

A

False

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18
Q

Why is digester gas considered a renewable resource?

a) it does not cost any money to make
b) generates no net co2

A

b)

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19
Q

Propane-Air systems do not require additional gas trains, piping, or special fuel delivery systems within the building it serves. True or False?

A

True

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20
Q

All combustion chambers are suitable for alternate fuel combustion. True or False?

A

False

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21
Q

What are all the conditions that must be met to ensure correct application and selection of a conversion burner?

a) fan speed and colour
b) combustion air geometry, fan speed
c) firing rate, combustion chamber geometry, and flue gas travel

A

c)

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22
Q

Why is biomass fuel considered to be a renewable energy source?

a) it does not cost any money to make
b) generates an abundance of co2
c) photosynthesis cycles the co2 back into new crops

A

c)

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23
Q

If a liner cannot be installed in a masonry chimney, what must be done to accommodate a conversion from oil to natural gas?

a) new venting system must be installed
b) special draft inducer
c) special concrete wash

A

a)

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24
Q

Drilled port, drilled pipe, slotted port, and ribbon port are all types of what?

a) single port atmospheric burners
b) radiant head atmospheric burners
c) multiport atmospheric burners
d) pulse combustion atmospheric burners

A

c)

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25
Q

Flashback on an atmospheric burner may be causes by

a) excessive gas pressure
b) lack of primary air
c) using undersized burner ports
d) a partially plugged orifice

A

d)

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26
Q

Flame lift-off on an atmospheric burner can be caused by

a) under-firing
b) high gas pressure
c) any condition that reduces the flow velocity through the burner port

A

a)

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27
Q

When the flame speed exceeds the velocity of the air gas mixture, the resulting condition will be

a) flame lift-off
b) flashback
c) wavy flame
d) reaching flame

A

b)

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28
Q

The low-pressure area in the Venturi of an atmospheric burner is created by

a) low gas pressure in the manifold
b) high velocity through the orifice
c) low velocity gas flow through the orifice

A

b)

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29
Q

If the primary air shutter is adjusted incorrectly, not allowing sufficient primary air, what will the result be?

a) flame lift off
b) flashback
c) noisy
d) luminous flame

A

d)

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30
Q

The fan can overcome the resistance of the burner only, is a good description off a fan-assisted burner. True or False?

A

True

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31
Q

A seismic valve will reset automatically once the vibration stops. True or False?

A

True

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32
Q

Cable releases fire suppression gas valves can only be activated manually. True or False?

A

False

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33
Q

What device is used to regulate gas supply to an aspirator-type burner?

a) zero governor
b) orifice
c) nozzle mixer
d) blower mixer

A

a)

34
Q

If the Eco device in a rod and tube gas valve breaks while the appliance main burner is operating, what happens to the gas supply to the main burner?

a) its flow is reduced to low fire
b) stops all gas flow
c) pilot stat coil will be de-energized and cause the pilot valve to close, this will Stovall gas flow to main burner

A

c )

35
Q

Thermocouples and thermopiles operate on which principle?

a) Electro-magnetism
b) Thermoelectric effect
c) Thermal expansion of solids
d) thermal expansion of liquids

A

b)

36
Q

What feature acts as extra protection on a redundant gas valve?

a) on-off switch
b) pilot adjustment
c) servo regulator
d) a second automatic shutoff valve

A

d)

37
Q

When air-supply fans, compressors, or blowers for supply air fans are require for use with an appliance combustion system, what shall be provided?

a) solenoid-operated, pilot diaphragm has valve
b) airflow pricing devices of the differential type

A

b)

38
Q

Propane delivers a _________ pressure and requires a __________ orifice

A

higher, smaller

39
Q

Natural gas delivers a _________ pressure and requires a _________ orifice

A

lower, bigger

40
Q

What changes must the gas fitter make when converting an appliance from propane to natural gas?

a) reduce gas pressure and reduce orifice
b) reduce has pressure and increase orifice
c) increase gas pressure and increase orifice

A

b)

41
Q

In order to double the flow of gas through a number 30 orifice, the gas pressure must be increased by how much?

a) 1.5 times
b) 2 times
c) 3 times
d) 4 times

A

d)

42
Q

If a continuity test is performed on a HSI and the reading is OL, this would suggest there is a break in the element?

a) true
b) false

A

a)

43
Q

The drop-out point of a standard thermocouple is approximately

a) 25 to 30mv
b) 15-17mv
c) 9 to 10mv
d)n 5 to 2mv

A

d)

44
Q

In a flame rectification system, what is measured by the control to determine flame presence?

a) volts DC
b) volts AC
c) millivolts DC
d) DC microamps

A

d)

45
Q

What is the minimum size ratio between the flame grounding surface and the flame electrode?

a) 2:1
b) 4:1
c) 6:1
d) 8:1

A

b)

46
Q

On an oven safety valve, the HSI must warm up sufficiently before electricity can pass to open the gas valve. True or False?

A

True

47
Q

Non-integrated ignition control modules designed for intermittent pilot, direct spark, or hot surface ignition will also manage all the other appliance activities such as humidistat, electronic filters, etc. True or False?

A

False

48
Q

What type of gas appliance would a rod and tube (unitrol) valve typically be installed?

a) gas range
b) gas boiler
c) gas furnace
d) gas water heater

A

d)

49
Q

What device is used to sense combustion air or flue gas flow on any appliance that uses an inducer fan?

a) flow switch
b) pressuretrol
c) gas pressure switch
d) air proving switch

A

d)

50
Q

Select the combustion safety controls that work on the principle of flame ionization?

a) thermopile
b) infrared flame sensor
c) ultraviolet flame sensor
d) flame rectifier

A

d)

51
Q

If ice forms and completely blocks the vent opening on a direct operated regulator while it is in lockup, what will occur, when there is demand for gas flow downstream to appliances.

a) it will operate as normal
b) it will operate with a much higher downstream pressure than the set point
c) it will likely not open
d) it will operate at exactly half its set pressure

A

c)

52
Q

For a space to be considered “well ventilated” the accumulation of gas escaping through a vent leak limiting device installed on a regulator shall not exceed

a) 25% of the gas LEL
b) 4% of the gas LEL
c) 9.5% of the gas UEL

A

a)

53
Q

What occurs when the downstream pressure exceeds the loading elements set pressure on a regulator?

a) gas will continue to flow at a higher pressure
b) equilibrium has occurred
c) lockup will occur
d) setpoint droop is achieved

A

c)

54
Q

a 2lb propane system has a vent limiter installed in the regulator, what is the permissible amount of gas that can escape

a) 1 cubic foot/hr
b) 2.5 cubic foot/hr
c) 5.5 cubic foot/hr

A

a)

55
Q

The servo regulator built into a combination gas valve serves as which type of gas pressure regulator?

a) system regulator
b) service regulator
c) appliance regulator
d) over pressure protection regulator

A

c)

56
Q

If the vent was left open on a line regulator located outside and water filled the space eon the top of the measuring element while it was in the fully open position, this will cause

a) restricting element to close
b) measuring element to flute
c) restricting element to either remain open or lockup under much higher than normal downstream pressure

A

c)

57
Q

A 2psi natural gas piping run is to be sized and installed to the minimum available size, the total longest run is 212’. What inlet pressure should be used to size the line regulator that is to be installed before the appliance?

a) 2psig
b) 16’‘wc
c) 10’‘wc
d) 14’‘wc

A

d)

58
Q

When installing a condensing appliance, how do new determine how long the vent can be?

a) there is no limit
b) 100’ for every 100,000btuh of input
c) 150’ for every 100,00btuh of input
d) From the venting information supplied or obtained by the appliance / vent manufacturer

A

d)

59
Q

What type of BH vent are PVC, CPVC, and Polypropylene?

a) Class I A, B, and C
b) Class II A, C, and D
c) Class II A, B and C
d) Class I A, C and D

A

c)

60
Q

What is the minimum termination height for a BH vent for a flat roof?

a) 18”
b) 24”
c) 36”
d) 12”

A

a)

61
Q

A non-condensing positive vent pressure appliance has possible flue gas temperature of 470F, which vent would be acceptable for use with this appliance?

a) b vent
b) a vent
c) class 2 D BH vent
d) class 1 BH vent

A

d)

62
Q

At what temperature os a T&P relief valve set at?

a) 150f
b) 180f
c) 210f
d) 212f

A

c)

63
Q

Relief valve piping must always be piped in such a way that no water or sediment can sit on the relief valve seat. True or False?

A

True

64
Q

Relief valve piping may reduce in size from its connection size at the valve. True or False?

A

False

65
Q

A safety valve is acceptable to be used on both liquid and vapour service. True or False?

A

False

66
Q

At what pressure is a low pressure water boilers relief valve set at?

a) 15psi
b) 30psi
c) 100psi
d) 150psi

A

b)

67
Q

What does an automatic vent damper actuator have to control a boilers burner?

a) proving switch
b) igniter
c) transformer
d) circulator

A

a)

68
Q

Normal operating pressure for a residential hydronic heating system is 12-15psig. True or False?

A

True

69
Q

If the pressure in a hydronic system quickly increases after the burner comes on, and the relief valve blows off, what is likely the cause?

a) expansion tank is water logged
b) distribution piping is too large
c) gas pressure is too low

A

a)

70
Q

What prevents the water in a hydronic heating system for boiling into steam when the system is operating above the atmospheric boiling temperature?

a) natural convection
b) make up water is added
c) pressurization of the system

A

c)

71
Q

Air in the system can cause what problem?

a) noise
b) high velocities
c) condensation

A

a)

72
Q

When adjusting the minimum heat input to a gas fired refrigerator, what can happen if the setting is not low enough?

a) flashback
b) over-cooling
c) under-cooling

A

b)

73
Q

What temperature should a high limit aqaustat be set at?

a) same temp as operating aqauastat
b) 20f below operating aqaustat
c) max operating temperature of the appliance
d) 20f above the operating aqaustat

A

d)

74
Q

Which of the following is not a location that should be checked when testing for combustible gasses?

a) all conduit entry points
b) below grade cracks
c) around windows
d) floor drains

A

c)

75
Q

One of the methods to manage a condition within a structure with a level of gas detected over the UEL is to open the doors and windows. True or False?

A

False

76
Q

If the pressure switch on a furnace is getting 24v, but the ignition does not start, this indicates

a) gas pressure wrong
b) inducer fan is on
c) confirm blower is operating
d) the air supply differential is not enough

A

d)

77
Q

Where is a good place to test when checking combustible gas if the natural gas appliances are located in the basement?

a) at the top of the basement stairs
b) around the exterior windows and doors
c) in the floor drains

A

a)

78
Q

Where to check for propane leaks in the basement?

a) top of stairs
b) windows and doors
c) floor drains
d) all conduit entry points

A

c)

79
Q

On a ladder diagram the source/hot line is drawn on the right hand side. True or False?

A

False

80
Q

The sequence of operation of a circuit can be determined from what kind of drawing?

a) schematic drawing
b) connection diagram
c) block diagram

A

a)

81
Q

A wiring diagram always shows the switches and other devices in a circuit drawn in the “rest state”. True or False

A

True

82
Q

The purpose of a ladder and schematic diagram is?

a) to show how circuits work and the function of their components
b) to show component location
c) show wiring identification

A

a)