Lvl.2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the flame temperature of methane?

a) 1000f
b) 2500f
c) 3600f

A

c)

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2
Q

What is the calorific value of propane?

A

2520btu

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3
Q

Which gas has the lowest specific gravity (relative density)?

a) air
b) ch4
c) c3h8
d) c4h10

A

b)

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4
Q

What is the specific density of water?

A

1

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5
Q

True or False

All hydrocarbon fuel gases require approximately 10cuft of air for every 1000btuh of energy for complete combustion?

A

true

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6
Q

How many btuh is 96kw?

A

96 x 3414

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7
Q

What are the liquefied petroleum gases (LPG)?

a) butane and air
b) propane and air
c) propane and butane
d) methane and butane

A

c)

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8
Q

The expansion ratio of propane liquid to propane gas is?

a) 1:600
b) 1:270

A

1:270

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9
Q

What is the purpose of adding mercaptan to fuel gases?

A

Make it readily detectable in the atmsophere

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10
Q

Approximately how much oxygen is present in air?

a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 35%

A

b)

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11
Q

What are the lower and upper explosive limits of methane?

A

4% - 15%

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12
Q

What is the air to fuel ratio required to achieve stoichiometric combustion?

a) 1:1
b) 2:1
c) 5:1
d) 10:1

A

d)

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13
Q

How much total air is required for the complete combustion process per 1000btu’s in an atmospheric nature draft appliance?

a) 10ft3
b) 15ft3
c) 25ft3
d) 30ft3

A

d

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14
Q

Theoretically how much co2 is produced by burning 50ft3 of ch4?

a) 10ft3
b) 25ft3
c) 50ft3

A

c) 50ft3

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15
Q

How much excess air is supplied to an atmospheric burner?

a) 10% of primary air
b) 25% of primary air
c) 50% of the air required for stoichiometric combustion

A

c)

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16
Q

How much dilution air is required for an atmospheric appliance?

a) 30cuft per 1000btuh
b) 15 cut per 1000btuh
c) 10cuft per 1000btuh

A

b)

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17
Q

What is the yield formula for the stoichiometric combustion of methane?

A

= 1,2,8

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18
Q

What is the approximate percentage of the air that is supplied through the primary air openings on a premix atmospheric burner?

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 33%
d) 80%

A

c)

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19
Q

What percentage is primary air and secondary air?

A

Secondary is 66%
Primary 33%

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20
Q

What two factors have the greatest effect on stack draft?

a) height and temperature
b) volume and temperature
c) height and volume

A

a)

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21
Q

What effect does dilution air have on the stack draft?

a) it cools the flue gases and increases the draft
b) it cools the flue gasses and decreases the draft
c) it cools the flue gases and reverses the draft
d) it has no effect

A

b)

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22
Q

The movement of warm air from a buildings interior to the outside environment is known as?

a) exfiltration
b) infiltration
c) natural draft
d) chimney effect

A

a)

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23
Q

The temperature rise in a buildings interior is caused by the sun shining through windows is called

a) conductive heat gain
b) exfiltration
c) infiltration
d) radiant heat gain

A

d)

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24
Q

Cold dense outdoor air enters through openings in the lower portion of the building, is then heated, rises, and exits through openings in the upper building is known as

a) balancing
b) infiltratrion
c) exfiltration
d) stack effect

A

d)

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25
Q

Negative pressure in a building is caused by

a) excessive removal of air
b) inward pressure on walls
c) outwards pressure on walls

A

a)

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26
Q

Minimum thickness of vapour barriers in a building is

a) 0.06”
b) 6 mil
c) 6mm

A

b)

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27
Q

Ideal relative humidity is?

a) 5%-15%
b) 15% - 35%
c) 35%-50%

A

c)

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28
Q

What is the maximum depressurization that a building with natural draft vented appliances should be exposed to?

a) 0.02 pa
b) 2pa
c) 5pa (0.02” WC)

A

c)

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29
Q

Depressurization of mechanical rooms can cause?

a) increased thermal drafting
b) increased stack effect
c) decreased input to appliances
d) spillage and back drafting

A

d)

30
Q

Which of the following pieces of equipment preheats at the supply air with heat from the exhaust air?

a) heat balancing ventilator
b) heat exchange ventilator
c) heat recovery ventilator

A

c)

31
Q

Which of the options below ensures that negative building pressure never causes pressure-induced back drafting in a gas appliance?

a) installation of direct vent appliances
b) installation of supply only ventilation
c) installation of direct ducted ventilation systems

A

a)

32
Q

What is the biggest danger presented by backdraft and spillage of flue gases into a building?

a) humidity is driven into walls
b) infiltration of CO
c) mould and fungus

A

b)

33
Q

The air break on a T&P discharge line is the diameter of the pipe or __” whichever is larger

A

1”

34
Q

Which o the following devices is used for steam or vapour service only?

a) relief valve
b) safety valve
c) rupture disc

A

a)

35
Q

At what temperature is a pressure relieve valve set at?

a) 150f
b) 180f
c) 210f
d) 212f

A

c)

36
Q

Safety, safety relief, and relief valves shall be of the

a) direct spring loaded type
b) indirect spring loaded type
c) internally weighted type
d) rupture disc type

A

a)

37
Q

what type of valve may be installed between a boiler and relief valve?

a) ball valve
b) gate valve
c) globe valve
d) no valve

A

d)

38
Q

When a vacuum relief is used for low pressure steam services. A _________ must be installed to prevent live steam from damaging the device

a) air eliminator
b) isolation valve
c) expansion tank
d) pigtail

A

d)

39
Q

What pressures at propane tank safety valves set at?

a) 250 or 312psi
b) 250 or 375psi
c) 295 or 375psi

A

a)

40
Q

What is the LNG secondary relief pressure set at?

a) same pressure as the MAWP of the tank
b) 1.5 times the MAWP
c) 2 times the MAWP

A

b)

41
Q

When is the vacuum relief valve required?

a) in all cold water plumbing systems
b) in all hot water plumbing systems
c) when a system may be subject to back siphonage
d) when a tank may be subject to back siphonage

A

d)WH

42
Q

Who can install a pressure relief device?

a) A person who is trained and confident
b) homeowner
c) gas contractor
d) gas safety officer

A

a)

43
Q

Relief valve piping must always be piped in such a way that no water or sediment can sit on the relief valve seat? T or F

A

true

44
Q

A correctly sized piping system will have how much of a pressure drop at the end of the piping run?

A

1”

45
Q

When purchasing a T & P sch.40 black iron pipe, the fitting supplied with and attached to one end is used for?

a) coupling to join dissimilar metals
b) protecting pipe thread during transport

A

b)

46
Q

What type of fitting can be used to join black iron pipe?

a) brass
b) copper
c) cast iron
d) malleable iron

A

d)

47
Q

What type of copper tubing can be used for a gas installation?

a) G,K,L
b) K,L,M
c) G,H,K

A

a)

48
Q

What is required when burying type L copper tubing?

A

Manufacturer must coat the tubing with polyethylene

49
Q

Piping can be supported by other piping as long as the supporting pipe is made of steel? T or F

A

False

50
Q

Soldering or brazing is an acceptable way of joining copper piping in a gas piping system? T or F

A

False

51
Q

Which of the following is not a joining method for thermoplastic pipe?

a) butt fusion
b) cold fusion
c) saddle fusion
d) socket fusion

A

b)

52
Q

What type of copper tubing is approved for direct underground burial without a manufacturer applied polyethylene coating?

a) G
b) K
c) L
d) M

A

b)

53
Q

How shall the volume of gas to an appliance be determined?

a) Rating plate or appliance manufacturer
b) size of piping
c) provincial regulations

A

a)

54
Q

What is meant by the term “nesting of bushings”

a) installing a bushing inside of a coupling
b) installing a bushing inside another bushing
c) installing a bushing inside of a 90 elbow

A

b)

55
Q

What is done to protect CCST from damage if energized due to a lightning strike?

a) CCST is covered with yellow insulating coating
b) CCST is electrically bonded to the buildings electrical service

A

b)

56
Q

As pipe schedule number increases the internal diameter of the pipe ________

a) increases
b) decreases
c) same
d) sometimes both

A

b)

57
Q

Correct size of a dirt pocket for a 4” piping system is

a) 3” long and 2” diameter
b) 4” long and 2” diameter
c) 4” long and 4” diameter

A

b)

58
Q

What temperature is domestic hot water stored

a) 100f
b) 115f
c) 140f
d) 165f

A

c)

59
Q

The burner on a tankless water heater is activated by?

a) temperature
b) pressure
c) flow
d) wall switch

A

c)

60
Q

Which of the following is not found on an appliance rating plate?

a) input
b) manifold pressure
c) serial number
d) gas fitters certification number

A

d)

61
Q

Boiler that has water surrounding the outside of the tubes is called a?

a) water tube
b) fire tube
c) water/fire tube
d) fire/water tube

A

b)

62
Q

A low mass boiler requires what type of water flow?

a) turbulent flow
b) high flow
c) no flow
d) reverse flow

A

b)

63
Q

In a down-flow furnace the blower is _________ the heat exchanger

a) above
b) below
c) beside
d) behind

A

a)

64
Q

What is the primary purpose of the furnace filter?

a) decrease combustion efficiency
b) protect furnace components
c) decrease air flow

A

b)

65
Q

What must be done to the condensate created from the high efficient furnace?

a) neutralized by passing through acidic limestone
b) neutralized by passing it though alkaline limestone
c) nothing
d) no condensate to deal with

A

b)

66
Q

A defective residential furnace heat exchanger must be?

a) repaired by a welder
b) repaired by a gas fitter
c) repaired temporarily
d) replaced

A

d)

67
Q

Which of the following furnace configurations can be installed in a 42” crawl?

a) upflow
b) downflow
c) horizontal

A

c)

68
Q

Except where permitted by b149, the minimum clearance for the back and sides of a domestic gas range to a combustible material is ?

a) 18”
b) 24”
c) 30”
d) 6”

A

d)

69
Q

A direct vent appliance draws in combustion air from inside the building? T or F?

A

false

70
Q

High intensity infrared heaters are vented with which type of venting?

a) type b
b) type
c) type bh (plastic)
d) not connected to a vent

A

d)