Lungs Flashcards

0
Q

What is pressure?

A
P = F / A
Pressure
Force 
Area 
Unit is Pa
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1
Q

What is Boyles law? And how does it influence gas exchange?

A

Absolute pressure exerted by gas is inversely proportional to volume it occupies if temp and amount of gas remain unchanged in closed system
P1V1 = P2V2
Creates the pump and vacuum activity in lungs that allows us to breathe

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2
Q

What is Charles’ law?

A

At constant pressure, the volume of gas changes in direct proportion to its temperature on the absolute temperature scale
V = KT (K is a constant)
V1/T1=V2/T2

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3
Q

What is the universal gas law?

A
PV = nRT
P is pressure
V is volume
n is number of moles of gas
R is gas constant
T is temperature
Allows calculation of volume changes with pressure and temperature changes
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4
Q

What is a partial pressure?

A

When two gases in a mixture do not interact, they behave independently and each exerts its own pressure

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5
Q

What is Dalton’s law?

A

In a mixture of non reacting gases, total pressure exerted is equal to sum of partial pressures

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6
Q

What is the partial pressure of O2 in air?

A

21.1 kPa

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7
Q

What factor is saturated vapour pressure dependent on?

A

Temperature

Increased kinetic energy allows more vapour to escape the surface of the liquid

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9
Q

What is Henry’s law?

A

Number of molecules of gas dissolving in solvent is directly
proportional to the pressure of the gas at the surface of the
liquid

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10
Q

What happens to tension of a gas dissolving in water at equilibrium?

A

Tension proportional to partial pressure of that gas in adjacent gas mixture

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11
Q

What does gas tension indicate?

A

How readily a gas will leave a liquid

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12
Q

What is gas tension measured as?

A

Partial pressure of solute in solvent in kPa

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13
Q

What is the content of a gas in a liquid?

A

Proportional to its solubility in that liquid and the gas tension at
equilibrium

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14
Q

What is saturated vapour pressure at 37 degrees?

A

6.28 kPa

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15
Q

What is a difference between convection and diffusion?

A

No net transport of matter in diffusion

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16
Q

How much oxygen is picked up by the blood in health?

A

12 mmol O2 per minute

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17
Q

What is an alveolus?

A

Thin spherical structure where gas exchange occurs
Surrounded by capillary plexus
Fed through tiny bronchiole called alveolar duct

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18
Q

What constitutes total content of gas in a liquid?

A

Total reacted gas and gas dissolved in liquid

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19
Q

In blood, final gas content is determined by…

A

Gas tension
Solubility of gas in liquid
Avidity of haemoglobin for oxygen

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20
Q

Where does gas exchange occur?

A

At alveolar membrane

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21
Q

How does the composition of alveolar gas differ from atmospheric?

A

Lower pO2 - 13.3 in alveolar, 21.1 kPa in atmosphere

Higher pCO2 - 5.3 in alveolar, minimal in atmosphere

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22
Q

How does mixed venous blood gas composition vary from alveolar?

A

pO2 - 6 kPa venous, 13.3 alveolar

pCO2 - 6.5 kPa venous, 5.3 alveolar

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23
Q

What factors affect diffusion rate?

A

Surface area of alveoli
Concentration gradient caused by differences in partial pressures
Resistance of alveolar capillary membrane - thickness
Solubility of gas
Molecular weight of gas
Diffusion rate = D x A x (difference in PP/thickness)
D is proportional to solubility / root of MW

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24
Q

What constitutes the diffusion barrier of the alveolar membrane?

A
Diffusion through gas to alveolar wall
Epithelium of alveolus
Tissue fluid and connective tissue 
Endothelium of capillary 
Plasma 
Red cell membrane
Cytoplasm
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25
What is solubility?
Amount of solvent that can dissolve in unit volume of solute
26
Which diffuses faster, O2 or CO2?
CO2
27
Is oxygen transfer perfusion or diffusion limited?
Perfusion
28
What may cause a change from perfusion limited oxygen delivery to diffusion limited?
Thickening of diffusion barrier - alveolar membrane
29
Other than gas exchange, what functions does the respiratory system have?
Reservoir for blood and oxygen Metabolism of circulating compounds eg ACE Filter blood
30
Which part of the airways form the anatomical dead space?
Conducting airways - bronchi and bronchioles
31
Which parts of the airways form the respiratory airway?
Respiratory bronchioles Alveolar ducts Alveolar sacs
32
What name is given to each level of branching of the bronchial tree?
Generation
33
What is hypoxic vasoconstriction?
In alveoli with low pO2 due to lower ventilation levels, pulmonary arterioles can be constricted to reduce blood flow to this area where it is not needed
34
Give an example of a disease which increases the thickness of the diffusion barrier
Pulmonary fibrosis
35
Give an example of a disease which reduces the surface area available for diffusion
COPD - chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
36
What non disease state can cause a switch from perfusion to diffusion limited oxygen delivery?
High levels of exercise as the perfusion rate is so fast that the diffusion rate cannot keep up
37
What can be used as lung function test to determine the thickness of the alveolar membrane?
Carbon monoxide as its delivery is diffusion limited
38
How can rate of gas exchange be increased when a gases delivery is diffusion limited?
Increase pO2 in alveoli
39
Which muscles are involved in ventilation?
Diaphragm | Intercostal muscles
40
What do you use spirometry for?
Measure lung volumes
41
What 4 parts make up total lung capacity?
Tidal volume Residual volume Inspiration reserve volume Expiratory reserve volume Maximum force generated by inspiratory muscles balanced by opposing forces
42
In spirometry, what is the difference between lung volumes and lung capacities?
Lung volumes change with breathing pattern | Lung capacities do not
43
What factors determine an individual's lung capacities?
Properties of lung, chest wall and muscles
44
Which lung volumes make up inspiratory capacity?
Tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume Biggest breath that can be taken from resting expiratory level (lung volume at end of quiet expiration) Inspiratory capacity typically ~3l
45
Which lung volumes form the vital capacity?
Tidal volume Inspiratory reserve volume Expiratory reserve volume Biggest breath that can be taken, often changes in disease
46
Which lung volumes make up the functional residual capacity?
Residual volume Expiratory reserve volume Volume of air in the lungs at resting expiratory level Typically ~2 litres Determined by the balance of elastic resistance between lung and chest wall
47
What is a normal value for vital capacity?
5L
48
What is minute ventilation (MV)?
Amount of air moved into and out of the lungs or minute Product of tidal volume and respiratory rate MV=Vt x RR Typically 6-8 L/min at rest
49
What must be calculated to work out the alveolar ventilation rate?
Amount of wasted ventilation into dead space
50
What volume of inspired air is within the serial dead space and therefore doesn't take part in gas exchange?
150 ml
51
What is the distributive dead space?
Dead or damaged alveoli | Alveoli with poor perfusion
52
What is the physiological dead space?
Serial and distributive dead spaces combined
53
What type of breathing amplifies dead space effect?
Rapid and shallow
54
What is the ideal V/Q ratio?
1
55
What is the main reason for defective gas exchange in disease?
V/Q mismatch
56
What would total lung V/Q mismatch cause?
Arterial hypoxaemia
57
Give an example of a disease which causes a decrease in ventilation and therefore gives a lower V/Q ratio?
Pneumonia
58
Give an example of a disease which causes decreased perfusion and therefore increases the V/Q ratio
Pulmonary embolus
59
Describe the V/Q ratio in the apex of the lung and how this differs to the base
In the apex, the ventilation rate is greater than the perfusion so the V/Q ratio is above 1 In the base, perfusion (gravity dependent) is greater than ventilation rate and so the V/Q ratio is below 1
60
Why is perfusion of the central part of the lung sporadic?
Systole and diastole of the heart mean that pressure changes
61
What causes the reduction in pH as you move down from apex to base of lungs?
Increasing CO2 levels in alveoli and capillaries. CO2 transfer is ventilation dependent
62
Why is apical alveolar pO2 relatively high?
Less perfusion | O2 transfer is perfusion dependent
63
What happens in the lung during exercise to accommodate increased CO?
Distensible apical blood vessels that are usually collapsed, open. This increases oxygen uptake at the top of the lung
64
What 5 things can cause hypoxia?
``` Shunt V/Q mismatch Limited diffusion Hypoventilation Decreased O2 in inspired air ```
65
Which pathological cause of hypoxia cannot be corrected with increasing inspired oxygen?
Pulmonary shunt
66
What factors does oxygen delivery to tissues rely on?
``` Cardiac output Haemoglobin concentration Oxygen saturation Dissolved oxygen DO2 = CO x (( Sa02 x Hb x k) x ( PaO2 x 0.023 )) ```
67
Which ribs end in costal cartilage?
1-10
68
What is flail chest?
When a segment of thoracic cage is separated from rest of chest wall. At least 2 fractures per rib which produces a free segment. This segment is unable to contribute to lung expansion, paradoxical movement
69
What can be a consequence of having an additional cervical rib?
Thoracic outlet syndrome Brachial plexus gets squashed Muscle wasting in the hand
70
What 3 parts make up the sternum?
Manubrium Body Xiphoid process
71
At what thoracic level would you find the sternal notch?
T2
72
What do you find at the sternal angle?
T4 | 2nd rib
73
What level do you find the xiphoid process at?
T9/10
74
Which part of the ribs forms a joint with the vertebrae?
Articular facets of head
75
Which ribs connect directly to the sternum?
Ribs 1-7
76
Which ribs connect to the sternum via the costal cartilage of the ribs above?
Ribs 8-10
77
What are the 3 layers of intercostal muscle?
External intercostal Internal intercostal Innermost intercostal
78
Where would you make an incision in the intercostal space?
Just above the rib to avoid the neurovascular bundle at the top of the space
79
What does an intercostal nerve supply?
``` Skin Muscle Bone Cartilage Parietal pleura ```
80
Where can pleuritic pain and shingles refer to?
Dermatome of the spinal nerve of origin
81
Where does the sympathetic chain lie in the thoracic cavity?
Posterior thoracic wall
82
What can a pancoast tumour cause?
Compression of the sympathetic chain in the apical region of the lung Can cause Horner syndrome due to compression of the T1 spinal nerve
83
Which artery can be harvested for coronary artery bypass graft?
Internal thoracic artery
84
Where does the blood supply to the thoracic wall derive from?
Intercostal arteries which form anastomotic loops
85
Where do posterior intercostal arteries branch from?
Descending aorta
86
Where do anterior intercostal arteries branch from?
Internal thoracic artery | Musculophrenic artery
87
Where does the internal thoracic artery branch from?
Subclavian artery
88
What is the venous drainage of the thoracic wall?
Azygous venous system Azygous vein on right Hemiazygous on left
89
What does the azygous vein drain into?
Superior vena cava
90
What can damage of the thoracic duct lead to?
Chylothorax
91
Which areas of mediastinum does thoracic duct run through?
Posterior | Superior
92
Where does the thoracic duct start and finish?
Starts at cisterna chyli | Ends at left subclavian vein
93
Where does the diaphragm attach?
Costal margin Ribs 10-12 Lumbar vertebrae
94
Name 2 types of congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Bochdalek hernia - posterior left sided | Morgagni hernia - retro sternal
95
Which nerve innervates the diaphragm?
Phrenic nerve C3-5
96
What can unilateral damage to the phrenic nerve cause?
Hemidiaphragmatic palsy
97
Which 3 structures pierce the diaphragm and at what levels?
Inferior vena cava T8 Oesophagus T10 Descending aorta T12
98
At what time during development does the respiratory diverticulum form as an outpouching of the gut tube?
4 weeks
99
What developmental tissue type are the lining of lungs and glands derived from?
Endoderm
100
What developmental tissue type are the blood vessels, cartilage, smooth muscle and visceral pleura derived from?
Mesoderm
101
During development, what divides the oesophagus and trachea?
Tracheo-oesophageal septum which forms weeks 4-5
102
What 2 developmental defects can occur if septation of the trachea and oesophagus fail?
Blind ended oesophagus | Fistula
103
How many bronchial buds form?
3 on right, 2 on left
104
At what time during development do segmental bronchi form?
Week 7
105
What part of respiratory development occurs at week 26? And what consequence can this have for premature babies?
Initial development of respiratory epithelia | Premature babies lungs are not fully developed and so survival rates are lower
106
What does the horizontal fissure divide?
Right middle and superior lobes
107
Which structures are closely related to the right lung?
Oesophagus Azygous vein Brachiocephalic vein SVC and IVC
108
Which structures are closely related to the left lung?
``` Aortic arch Descending aorta Cardiac impression Subclavian artery Brachiocephalic vein ```
109
Where does the phrenic nerve pass in relation to the hilum of the lung?
Anterior
110
Which structures pass through the hilum of the lung?
Main bronchi Pulmonary artery Autonomic nerves Pulmonary vein
111
What is the pulmonary ligament?
Fold of parietal pleura at hilum
112
What occurs if a venous thrombus passes into the lungs via pulmonary artery?
Pulmonary embolism
113
What does the parietal pleura line?
Thoracic cage (costal) Mediastinum Cervical region Diaphragm
114
What holds together the pleural layers at rest?
Surface tension
115
What signs will you see with a tension pneumothorax?
``` Mediastinal shift away from pneumothorax Tracheal deviation Diaphragmatic depression Unilateral hyperinflation Increased intercostal space size Hyper resonant ```
116
At what point does the trachea bifurcate?
T4 - sternal angle
117
What vertebral level is the horizontal fissure located at?
4th costal cartilage, horizontally to join the oblique fissure
118
Where does the oblique fissure start and finish?
T3 spinous process posteriorly | 6th costal cartilage anteriorly
119
Which spinous process is the most prominent in the neck?
C7
120
Biopsy of which structures will require crossing through the costodiaphragmatic recess?
Liver, spleen, kidneys
121
Where are chest tubes classically inserted?
Triangle of safety | Bordered by posterior, anterior axillary lines and nipple line (4-5th intercostal space)
122
Where does the trachea start?
Cricoid cartilage in larynx C6/7
123
What are the walls of the trachea supported by?
Hyaline cartilage
124
What happens to carina if the lymph nodes below it are enlarged? (Tracheobronchial nodes)
Become more rounded in shape
125
Which bronchus is more likely to get aspirated food entering it and why?
Right main bronchus because it is more vertical
126
Where do pulmonary arteries and veins run in relation to pulmonary segments?
Pulmonary arteries run with bronchi and bronchioles | Pulmonary veins run between segments
127
How many segments does each lung have?
Right - 10 | Left - 9
128
What is atelactasis?
Collapse or closure of lung
129
Which segment is least well drained in the supine position and so a likely site for hospital acquired pneumonia?
Superior bronchopulmonary segment of inferior lobe because it's bronchus has to drain against gravity in this position
130
Where does the left upper lobe drain to?
Bronchomediastinal duct -->thoracic duct and left subclavian vein
131
Where does lung lymph drainage go to (apart from the left upper lobe)?
Bronchomediastinal duct --> right lymphatic duct to right subclavian vein
132
When does acute respiratory failure occur?
When pulmonary system is unable to meet metabolic demands of the body
133
What is hypoxaemic respiratory failure?
PaO2 < or equal to 8kPa when breathing room air | Type 1
134
What is hypercapnic respiratory failure?
PaCO2 > or equal to 6.7kPa | Type 2
135
What is the alveolar gas equation?
``` PAO2 = (FiO2 x (P atmos - P H2O)) - (PaCO2 / RQ) FiO2 - fraction of inspired oxygen P atmos - atmospheric pressure P H2O - water vapour pressure RQ - respiratory quotient (0.8) ```
136
What are the levels of expired CO2 largely dependent on?
Alveolar ventilation
137
How can alveolar ventilation be calculated?
Alveolar ventilation = respiratory rate x (tidal volume - dead space)
138
Which dead space is constant? And which can vary and why?
Anatomical dead space constant | Physiological dead space can vary depending on ventilation perfusion matching
139
What mechanism tries to maintain ventilation perfusion matching?
Hypoxaemic pulmonary vasoconstriction
140
In what circumstances will supplemental oxygen not be beneficial?
Absolute shunt where ventilation is blocked | When someone has chronically high levels of CO2 and therefore hypoxaemia is driving their breathing
141
What factors could cause hypoxaemia?
Low levels of inspired O2 Hypo ventilation V/Q mismatch - shunt Diffusion abnormality
142
At what sites may disease cause hypo ventilation?
``` Brainstem - head injury, drug overdose Spinal cord - sci c3-5 Spinal nerve root - guillain barré syndrome Nerve - demyelination Neuromuscular junction - myesthenia gravis Respiratory muscle - muscular dystrophy Chest wall Pleura Lung Airway ```
143
What can cause shunts in the lung?
``` Pneumonia Pulmonary oedema Atelactasis Collapse Pulmonary haemorrhage or contusion Right to left shunt of heart - congenital heart disease, pulmonary hypertension ```
144
What can be a cause of diffusion abnormality?
PCP - pneumocystis pneumonia in immunosuppressed patients Acute respiratory distress syndrome - widespread inflammation Alveolitis
145
What is a hallmark sign of diffusion abnormality?
Desaturation on exercise
146
What is a normal venous oxygen saturation? | And what happens to this value if you half cardiac output?
Normal value 75% | Reduced to 50% if CO is halved
147
What are signs of respiratory compensation?
Tachypnoea Use of accessory muscles Nasal flaring Recession (gaps between ribs get sucked in)
148
What can tissue hypoxia result in?
Altered mental state Lactic acidosis Decrease HR and decrease BP (late)
149
What can be sources of error in using pulse oximetry to measure sats?
``` Poor peripheral perfusion Poorly adherent or positioned probe False nails or nail varnish Lipaemia Bright ambient light Excessive motion Carboxyhaemaglobin or methaemoglobin ```
150
What can hypercapnia result in?
Sympathetic stimulation Respiratory acidosis Flapping tremor If severe (>10 kPa) unconsciousness and respiratory depression
151
What are signs and symptoms of severe respiratory failure?
``` RR > 30 /min or < 8 /min Difficulty completing sentences Agitated, confused or comatose Cyanosed SpO2 <90% Deterioration despite therapy ```
152
What are treatment options with respiratory failure?
Oxygen therapy CPAP - continuous positive airway pressure to open collapsed alveoli Mechanical ventilation
153
What could you do to help with pneumonia?
Antibiotics | Physiotherapy
154
What can be done to help with pulmonary oedema?
Vasodilators | Diuretics
155
What can you do to help with a pneumothorax?
Chest drain
156
What can be given in an opiate overdose?
Naloxone
157
What are the 2 types of oxygen delivery devices?
Fixed and variable performance devices
158
What is a disadvantage of mechanical ventilation?
Requires sedation and an endotracheal tube
159
What factors affect the decision to ventilate or not?
``` Severity of respiratory failure Cardiopulmonary reserve Adequacy of compensation Expected speed of response -underlying disease, treatment Risks ```
160
What are the risks of mechanical ventilation?
Secondary infection Pneumothorax Ventilator induced lung injury Risks from immobility - venous thromboembolism, pressure ulceration
161
What is PEEP?
Positive end expiratory pressure Alveolar pressure above atmospheric pressure that exists at end of expiration. Can be applied in ventilated patients to prevent collapse of alveoli at end of expiration
162
What is lung volume determined by?
Elasticity of lungs | Properties of chest wall
163
What is compliance?
Measure of stiffness of the lung
164
What lung volume is represented when the forces inflating and deflating the lungs are equal?
Forced residual capacity
165
The lungs are not adherent to the inside of the thoracic cavity. What stops themfrom collapsing away from the chest wall?
Negative pressure in chest that keeps lungs inflated
166
Where are alveoli the biggest and why?
Higher negative pressure at top of lungs
167
Which parts of the lung move the most during inspiration?
Bigger volume change at bottom of lungs due to the way the ribs move
168
What effects do the shape of the ribs have on the way they move?
Upper ribs move like pump handle | Lower ribs move like bucket handle so allow for greater expansion
169
Which muscles are used during inspiration?
Scalenes - fix thorax External intercostals - posterior Internal intercostals - anterior Diaphragm
170
Which muscles are used in active expiration?
Abdominal muscles Intercostals Pectoral girdle muscles
171
Explain how the respiratory pattern of a patient with a low cervical spinal injurydiffers from a patient with a low thoracic spinal injury?
Cervical SCI - loss of use of intercostal muscles and accessory muscles so see saw breathing where diaphragm is pulled down but chest cannot expand sufficiently. Abdomen distends and chest caves in. Thoracic SCI - all muscles of breathing will be able to function so normal breathing
172
How do you measure compliance?
Change in volume / change in pressure
173
What is specific compliance?
Relates compliance to actual volume Volume change per unit pressure change / starting volume of lung Babies lungs, not stiffer but compliance would give incorrect value, specific compliance gives more accurate measure
174
What is hysteresis?
Difference in lung compliance due to additional energy required during inspiration to recruit and inflate additional alveoli
175
What is LaPlace's law?
Larger vessel radius, larger wall tension required to withstand a given internal fluid pressure. For a given vessel radius and internal pressure, a spherical vessel will have half the wall tension of a cylindrical vessel For an alveolus - P=2T/r
176
What is surface tension?
At a surface: attractive forces between molecules of a liquid are much stronger than those between liquid and gas. Surface becomes as small as possible. Measured as force required to change surface area per unit length
177
What does surfactant do?
Lines the alveoli and reduces surface tension which prevents small alveoli emptying into large
178
Which cells secrete surfactant?
Type II cells lining alveoli
179
What is surfactant?
``` Mixture of phospholipid compounds, principally dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine Hydrophobic, projects into the gas phase of the alveolus Surfactant proteins (SP-A, B, C, D) ```
180
What can lead to a depletion of surfactant?
Lack of blood supply
181
What effects does surfactant have?
Reduces work of breathing by reduction in surface tension and increasing compliance Reduces the likelihood of tissue fluid transudation The lipid component of surfactant has an antioxidant activity SP-A and D can bind a wide range of pathogens SP-A and D can activate macrophages and neutrophils via specific receptors
182
When are the airways narrowest?
During expiration as positive intrathoracic pressure decreases diameter
183
Where in the lungs does turbulent flow occur?
Trachea
184
Where in the lungs does laminar flow occur?
Terminal bronchioles
185
What factors affect compliance?
Lung volume Diameter of alveoli Content of alveoli Integrity of surfactant production
186
What factor of hysteresis allows V/Q matching?
Alveoli at bottom of lung are smallest, but are on most compliant part of hysteresis curve and so when pressure is increased, they can expand more to match perfusion
187
Which category of lung defect will result in an almost normal FVC but a largely reduced FEV1?
Obstructive defect eg COPD
188
Which category of lung defect will result in a reduced FEV1 and a largely reduced FVC?
Restrictive defect eg pulmonary fibrosis
189
Where does automatic control of breathing originate?
Dorsal respiratory group - inspiration Ventral respiratory group - expiration and inspiration Sensory nerves IX and X send chemoreceptor, baroreceptor and stretch receptor signals to dorsal respiratory group
190
Where does the ventral respiratory group signal to?
Accessory muscles in active respiration via u opioid receptors
191
What does the pneumotaxic centre do?
Switch of inspiratory ramp | Control respiratory rate
192
What is the Hering Breuer reflex?
``` Stretch receptors in airways Signal travels via vagus nerve afferents Respiratory centre in medulla Inhibits inspiratory neurones Inspiration is ended, allowing expiration ```
193
Where are peripheral chemoreceptors located?
Carotid bodies | Aortic arch
194
Via what nerve do the peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies signal to the medulla?
CN IX
195
Where are central chemoreceptors located and what do they detect?
2mm below ventral surface of medulla | Detect pH of CSF
196
What can prolonged vomiting cause in terms of acid base balance?
Metabolic alkalosis
197
A 24yr old woman is hyperventilating. If she continues what will the physiological consequences be and why does she appear to have a ‘cardiac arrest’ before making a spontaneous recovery?
Low CO2. Becomes alkalotic. Calcium levels go up so nerves and muscles become more active - spasm Brains response tells respiratory system to slow down but higher systems are overriding signal. Eventually response becomes overwhelming and cant override it, so she stops breathing. CO2 level rises. Paper bag works because she rebreathes expired gas and increases CO2
198
A 76 yr old man is given morphine for post operative pain relief following an elective abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Explain the physiological consequences that may occur in this situation
Breathing decreased so CO2 levels increase. So tachycardic, sweating etc due to sympathetic stimulation. Continued CO2 increase - respiratory depression so can become comatosed - overdose Supplemental morphine in hospital, given supplemental oxygen to compensate for modest hypoxia
199
Give 4 reasons for doing lung function tests
Provides aid to diagnosis Can follow changes in lung function over time Can assess those at risk of pulmonary disease and those with symptoms Can assess changes in response to specific stimuli
200
What is air flow rate a good measure of?
Diameter of airways
201
What does measuring vital capacity tell us?
A measure of total lung volume
202
What is carbon monoxide used for as a lung function test?
Measures permeability of lung membranes
203
What 2 factors can the peak flow meter tell us about?
Diameter of bronchial tree | Muscle power available to blow air out of lungs
204
What factors are important when taking a peak flow meter reading?
Pointer at zero to start Stood or sat in comfortable position Peak flow meter horizontal Deep breath out, deep breath in then wrap lips tightly around mouthpiece Blow as hard as possible using maximum force Repeat 3 times and record highest value
205
What peak flow results would you expect to see from an asthmatics peak flow diary?
Diurnal variation with lower values in the morning | >20% variability in readings over time in untreated or poorly controlled asthma
206
What information can be discerned from a flow volume loop?
Peak expiratory flow PEF Forced vital capacity FVC Forced expiratory volume in 1 second FEV1
207
What does a time volume loop show?
Forced vital capacity FVC | Forced expiratory volume in 1 second FEV1
208
Which is the best index of lung restriction?
Reduced forced vital capacity
209
Which is the best index for measuring lung obstruction?
Reduced FEV1
210
Why will airway obstruction make the residual volume increase?
Air gets trapped at end expiration
211
What are normal FEV1 and FVC values?
Over 80% of predicted values
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What happens to the ratio of Fev1/ FVC in obstructive airways?
Reduces below 0.7
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What happens to the ratio of Fev1/ FVC in restrictive airway disease?
Increase above 0.7
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What are contraindications to lung function tests?
Haemoptysis Closed or recent (within 2 weeks) pneumothorax Unstable CV status Pre eclampsia Hypertension (MAP above 130mmHg) Thoracic, abdominal or cerebral aneurysms Acute illness that may interfere with results Recent thoracic, ear, eye or abdo surgery Active communicable diseases eg TB
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What is bronchitis?
Infection and inflammation of the airways
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What are symptoms of bronchitis?
Dyspnoea Cough Wheeze Sputum
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What are signs of bronchitis?
Fever Tachypnoea Crackles Wheeze
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What would you see from investigations of a patient with bronchitis?
Hypoxia | Normal chest X-ray
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What is pneumonia?
Infection and inflammation of the alveoli
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What are the symptoms of pneumonia?
Dyspnoea Cough Sputum Pleurisy
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What are signs of pneumonia?
Fever Tachypnoea Crackles Decreased or bronchial breath sounds
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What would you see from investigations of a patient with pneumonia?
Possible hypoxia | Visible consolidation on chest X-ray
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Why do you hear abnormal breath sounds in pneumonia patients?
Fluid filled area does not attenuate sound as much as air | Pneumonia there are areas of pus in the alveoli
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What types of infection generally cause acute and chronic bronchitis?
Acute - viral typically: rhinovirus, flu virus | Chronic - bacterial: strep pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae
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Which microbes typically cause pneumonia?
Influenza virus Strep pneumoniae Staph aureus
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What respiratory condition does TB cause?
Bronchopneumonia with or without haemoptysis
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What investigations might be ordered for a suspected lower respiratory tract infection?
``` PEF FBC U&Es CRP Lactate ABGs CXR Nose and throat swabs Sputum ```
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What treatment can be provided for a lower respiratory tract infection?
``` Sepsis care package if sepsis Oxygen if hypoxic Antimicrobials IV fluids if signs of AKI Bronchodilators and steroids for bronchitis Saline nebuliser for expectoration Chest physio for expectoration Ventilatory support if respiratory failure ```
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What is CURB 65?
``` Confusion Urea > 7mmol/L RR > 30/min BP < 90 mmHg systolic 60 mmHg diastolic Age > 65 If score >1 admit, if >2 IV treatment ```
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What antimicrobial would be used against influenza in acute bronchitis?
Oseltamivir
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What antimicrobial would be used against H. Influenzae in chronic bronchitis?
Co amoxiclav
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What antimicrobial(s) would be used against community acquired pneumonia?
Amoxicillin and Clarithromycin
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What antimicrobial would be used against hospital acquired pneumonia?
Piperacillin-tazobactam Piperacillin is antibiotic Tazobactam is beta lactamase inhibitor
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What antimicrobial should be used against staph aureus, particularly if there are concerns over MRSA?
Linezolid
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What would you expect to see on a chest X-ray of a patient with COPD?
Hyper inflated thorax Flattened diaphragm Increased hilar shadow Bullae (in emphysema)
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What are symptoms of asthma?
Cough Wheeze SOB - worse at night Chest tightness
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What are causes and triggers of asthma?
``` Environmental allergen Viral infection Cold air Emotion Irritant vapours and fumes Genetic factors Drugs - NSAIDs, B blockers Atmospheric pollution Exercise Occupational sensitisers ```
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What are 3 key features of asthma?
Airway obstruction - reversible Airway hyper responsiveness Airway inflammation
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What may be visible with histology of asthma airway?
Thickened basement membrane Mucus plug with eosinophils and desquamated epithelial cells Infiltration of mast cells, mononuclear cells, eosinophils in mucosa and submucosa Oedema in mucosa and submucosa Hypertrophied smooth muscle Vasodilation
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What events happen in the immediate/early phase of asthma pathogenesis?
Pre sensitised mast cells encounter allergen and release histamine and other mediators which cause bronchoconstriction
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What events happen in the late phase of asthma pathogenesis?
Factors released from mast cells and T helper cells recruit other eosinophils and neutrophils Cells infiltrate the mucosal layers, vascular leak occurs, mucus secretion increases Mucus plugs cause a second wave of airway obstruction
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What events happen in the chronic/remodelling phase of asthma pathogenesis?
``` Eosinophils cause damage due to repeated attacks Smooth muscle hypertrophy Smooth muscle and epithelial hyperplasia Epithelial damage Basement membrane thickening ```
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Which drugs are used to treat the immediate phase of asthma?
B2 agonists CysLT antagonists Theophylline
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What drugs are used to treat the late phase of asthma?
Glucocorticoids
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What is type 1 brittle asthma?
Wide PEF variability | >40% diurnal variation for 50% of time over >150 days despite therapy
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What is type 2 brittle asthma?
Sudden severe attacks on background of well controlled asthma
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What is acute severe asthma?
PEF 33-50% of best or predicted Respiratory rate >25 / min Heart rate > 110 / min Inability to complete sentences in one breath
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What are signs of life threatening asthma?
``` Altered consciousness Exhaustion Arrhythmia Hypotension Cyanosis Silent chest Poor respiratory effort PEF <8kPa ```
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What treatments can be used in acute asthma management?
Oxygen to maintain sats above 94% B2 agonist nebuliser or MDI (metered dose inhaler) via spacer, repeat at 15-30 min intervals Glucocorticoids to reduce late phase - prednisolone 40-50mg, hydrocortisone 100mg QDS (4x day) IV, continue for 5 days Ipratropium bromide or magnesium sulphate if poor response to bronchodilators Antibiotics where infection present
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What is COPD?
Umbrella term for chronic irreversible obstructive airway disease
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What are the clinical features of COPD?
Productive cough Wheeze Dyspnoea Frequent infective exacerbations with purulent sputum Cyanosis and oedema - blue bloater - insensitive to CO2 or Tachypnoeic and pink - pink puffer - responsive to CO2 Signs of respiratory failure
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Describe COPD pathophysiology
Alveolar macrophages and damaged epithelial cells stimulate release of cytotoxic T cells and neutrophils This causes airway inflammation, remodelling, parenchymal destruction, loss of alveolar attachments and decrease of elastic recoil
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What are the reversible causes of airway obstruction in COPD?
Accumulation of inflammatory cells, mucus and plasma exudate in bronchi Smooth muscle contraction Dynamic hyperinflation during exercise
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What are the irreversible causes of airway obstruction in COPD?
Fibrosis and narrowing of airways Loss of elastic recoil due to alveolar destruction Destruction of alveolar support that maintains latency of small airways
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Describe pathophysiology in large airways in COPD
``` Mucus hyper secretion Goblet cell hyperplasia Mucus gland hyperplasia Increased cytotoxic T cell and macrophage infiltration Squamous metaplasia of epithelium Neutrophils in sputum ```
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Describe pathophysiology in small airways in COPD
``` Inflammatory exudate in lumen Disrupted alveolar attachments Thickened wall with cytotoxic T cells, macrophages and fibroblasts Peribronchial fibrosis Lymphoid follicle Destruction of pulmonary capillary bed Loss of elasticity ```
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What can be done to manage COPD?
Smoking cessation advice Bronchodilator therapy - short acting Combination therapy - long acting B2 agonist, inhaled steroid, long acting anticholinergic Oral theophylline if others unsuccessful Home oxygen
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Give 2 examples of short acting and 2 long acting B2 agonists
Short: salbutamol, terbutaline Long: salmeterol, formoterol
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Describe the mechanism of action of B2 agonists
Bind to B2 receptor and activate it which activates adenylate cyclase via G-aS This increases cAMP levels which activates PKA This causes phosphorylation of myosin light chain kinase which inactivates it so reducing smooth muscle contraction
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What are side effects of drugs such as salbutamol?
``` Tremor Headache Tachycardia Cardiac arrhythmia Peripheral vasodilation Hypokalaemia ```
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How can desensitisation of the B2 receptor occur?
Overuse of B2 agonists | Increased expression and activity of phosphodiesterase which breaks down cAMP
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Name a short acting and a long acting anticholinergic drug used as bronchodilators
Short: Ipratropium Long: tiotropium
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Describe the mechanism of action of anticholinergic drugs as bronchodilators
Antagonist at muscarinic ACh M3 receptor This prevents Gq from activating phospholipase C Less PIP3 is converted to IP3 and so less Ca is released from the endoplasmic reticulum Less Ca available to bind to calmodulin so myosin light chain kinase is not activated and therefore smooth muscle contraction is prevented
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What are side effects of drugs such as Ipratropium?
``` Dry mouth Constipation Cough Headache Nausea Paradoxical bronchospasm Urinary retention Glaucoma ```
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Name 2 methylxanthines used as bronchodilators
Aminophylline, theophylline
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Describe the mechanism of action of theophylline
Inhibit phosphodiesterase so prevent breakdown of cAMP | So more PKA can be activated and therefore phosphorylate more myosin light chain kinase
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What are the side effects of theophylline?
``` Insomnia Nausea Vomiting Cardiac arrhythmias Seizures ```
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Why do serum theophylline levels have to be carefully monitored?
Narrow therapeutic range | Side effects outside this range are toxic
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What could increase clearance of theophylline from your patient?
``` Drugs: rifampicin, anticonvulsants, phenobarbitone Ethanol Tobacco smoking Childhood High protein diet ```
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What could decrease clearance of theophylline from your patient?
``` Drugs: cimetidine, erythromycin, zafirlukast Old age Congestive heart failure Liver cirrhosis Respiratory acidosis and pneumonia Viral hepatitis High carb diet ```
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Name 2 leukotriene antagonists used as bronchodilators
Montelukast | Zafirlukast
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Describe how leukotriene antagonists work
Block CysLT1 receptors Leukotrienes cause airway inflammation and bronchospasm so antagonises this Reduce exercise induced symptoms in asthma Reduce inflammatory response Used as a preventer
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Name 2 inhaled, 1 oral and 1 IV glucocorticoid used in treatment of asthma
Inhaled: Beclomethasone, Fluticasone Oral: prednisolone IV: hydrocortisone
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Describe the mechanism of action of glucocorticoids in treatment of asthma
Activate intracellular glucocorticoid receptor which interacts with DNA and influences gene expression Inhibits formation of pro inflammatory products - cytokines, IL3/5, PGE2 Increases expression of anti inflammatory products - upregulates B2 receptor
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What are side effects of glucocorticoids?
``` Central weight gain Moon face Easy bruising Poor wound healing Muscle wasting of arms and legs Thinning of skin Hypertension Buffalo hump Euphoria ```
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What are mast cell stabilisers?
Sodium cromoglicate and nedocromil Stabilise membranes of mast cells to prevent histamine release Useless in acute exacerbation Side effect - bitter taste
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What is Omalizumab?
Monoclonal anti- IgE antibody Useful to prevent allergic asthma Expensive so only used if patient on regular corticosteroids and if manufacturer gives agreed discount in patient access scheme
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How big is the anatomical dead space/conducting airways?
150ml
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How big are the respiratory parts of the lungs?
3L
280
What parts of the respiratory system make up the conducting airways?
``` Nasal cavities Nasopharynx Oropharynx Larynx Trachea Bronchi Bronchioles Terminal bronchioles ```
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What parts of the respiratory system make up the respiratory airways?
Respiratory bronchioles Alveolar ducts Alveolar sacs Alveoli
282
What are keratinised squamous epithelium?
Protected from abrasion by keratin and kept hydrated by glycolipids produced in stratum granulosum Lines vestibules - first 1.5cm of conductive portion following nostrils
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What is non-keratinised squamous epithelium?
Oropharynx and larynx lined with this cell type | Must be kept moist by bodily secretions to prevent drying out
284
What is another name for pseudostratified ciliated epithelium?
Respiratory epithelium
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What are the layers of the trachea?
Mucosa Submucosa Muscularis Cartilaginous rings
286
Which side of the trachea is flattened?
Posterior, facing oesophagus
287
How long is the trachea?
10cm
288
What type of cartilage is tracheal cartilage?
Hyaline
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What type of epithelium lines the trachea?
Pseudo stratified ciliated epithelium, respiratory epithelium
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What cell types are present in bronchi?
``` Respiratory epithelium Goblet cells Submucosal glands Smooth muscle between mucosa and cartilage plates Cartilage plates ```
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Describe the structure of the bronchioles
``` Less than 1mm in diameter & no cartilage No mucous glands Ciliated low columnar Epithelium Increasing numbers of clara cells distally (dome shaped cells with small microvilli, simple epithelium, protect bronchioles) Smooth muscle is major wall component ```
292
Describe structure of terminal bronchioles
Cuboidal epithelium with few ciliated cells and abundant Clara cells Smooth muscle knobs
293
What non respiratory cells are present in conducting airways?
Neuroendocrine cells - Scattered throughout the basal layer, Dense core granules, Bombesin, substance P, calcitonin an leu-encephalin, Involved in development and regeneration / repair Brush cells - Microvilli resemble small intestinal enterocytes, Function not entirely clear ?absorb water Basal cells - Stem cells of airway, adhesion to basement membrane Clara cells - Terminal bronchioles, Act as stem cells, modulating inflammation, anti-oxidant andanti protease activity
294
Describe the different roles of type I and type II pneumocytes
Type I pneumocytes - gas exchange | Type II pneumocytes - Regeneration and surfactant production
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What cells are present in alveoli?
Type I and II pneumocytes, endothelium, alveolar macrophages
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What is surfactant?
Lipid rich secretion reducing surface tension | Recycled by type 2 pneumocytes
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What do alveolar macrophages do?
``` Recruited from blood as monocytes Main phocytic cell of the lung Remove the majority of foreign material entering alveoli More numerous in smokers Aerobic metablolism Dense lysosomal bodies Phagocytic vacuoles Most removed by mucociliary escalator Some migrate to hilar nodes ```
298
What is chronic bronchitis?
Clinical diagnosis productive cough 3 months of the year 2 consecutive years Hypersecretion of mucus Hypertrophy of bronchial mucus glands (Reid Index postmortem) Hyperplasia of goblet cells Mild dilatation of bronchi
299
What effects does smoking have on the lungs?
``` Loss of cilia Squamous metaplasia Mucous hypersecretion Goblet cell hyperplasia Individual factors affect the extent and rate of these changes ```
300
What is smog and what effect can it have on the lungs?
Industrialisation Increase in particulate matter in the atmosphere Irritation of the bronchial epithelial lining leading to brochitis
301
What is small airways disease?
Chronic obstructive bronchiolitis Small bronchi and proximal bronchioles 9th order airways 2mm diameter Goblet cell hyperplasia of bronchioles Loss of clara cells (secrete protease inhibitors) Smoking related Fibrosis, wall thickening and focal stenoses
302
What is emphysema?
``` Bronchioles collapse due to loss of parenchyma Air trapping on expiration Exacerbated by airway secretions Barrel chest Flattened diaphragm ```
303
What patterns of emphysema are there?
Centriacinar Paraseptal Pan acinar Irregular
304
What is aspiration pneumonia?
Lower respiratory tract infection resulting from the inhalation of material, e.g. food/drink, from oropharynx and gastrointestinal tract into the respiratory tract (aspiration). The lungs are normally protected against aspiration by protective reflexes such as coughing