Lung Path, Infxn, Resp Symptoms and Bio Flashcards

1
Q

Which airways have cartilage vs. don’t?

A

Presence of cartilage differentiates bronchus (present, to maintain patency) from bronchioles (cartilage disappears)

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2
Q

Differentiate bronchus from bronchiole

A

Bronchus has cartilage to maintain patency, bronchiole defined by lack of cartilage

-bronchiole in bronchovascular bundle same size as adjacent PA branch

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3
Q

Differentiate two types of bronchioles

A

Bronchioles = airways w/o cartilage (vs. bronchus w/ cartilage)

  • membraneous bronchiole = continuous muscular wall, then gives rise to respiratory bronchiole
  • respiratory bronchiole = partial muscular with partially alveolated wall
  • then respiratory bronchiole gives rise to alveolar duct (completely alveolar wall)
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4
Q

Anatomically define alveoli

A

Alveoli = blind ending sacs that are the site of gas transfer, alveoli coalesce to form alveolar ducts –> respiratory bronchioles (partially muscular, pratially lined w/ alveoli) –> membranous bronchioles (all muscular not lined w/ alveoli)

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5
Q

Define lobule

A

Lobule = lung parenchyma sitting between two interlobular septa

-picture showing respiratory brochiole and PA artery branch

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6
Q

Immunohistochemical features differentiating the three most common types of lung CA

A

Squamous: p40+, TTF-1 negative

Adeno: TTF-1 positive, p40 negative

Small cell: combo: TTF1 positive, CD56/chromogranin, synaptophysin positive (so TTF-1 positive doesn’t differentiate adeno and small cell, need cell morphology)

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7
Q

Pulmonary carcinoid tumors

(a) Typical location
(b) Pathologic findings
(c) Why can’t cure with curetting?

A

Pulmonary carcinoid- all malignant

(a) Typically endobronchial
(b) Highly vascular, then grade with mitotic figures and degree of necrosis
(c) Have to resect, can’t just curette out, b/c always invade the bronchial wall

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8
Q

Most common etiology of imaging finding

A

Hamartoma- benign solitary pulmonary nodule with characteristic popcorn calcification

-typically fat, calcification

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9
Q

Most likely which lung cancer given finding of intercellular bridge?

A

Finding seen in squamous cell carcinoma

  • keratinization (squamous pearls) and/or intercellular bridges
  • p40 positive, TTF-1 negative
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10
Q

Histologic features (not stains) that differentiate squamous cell carcinoma from adenocarcinoma

A

Squamous cell- keratinized cells, intercellular bridges

AdenoCA- makes glands or secretes PAS+ mucin

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11
Q

What is lepidic growth?

(a) Characteristic of what malignancy?

A

Lepidic growth = growing along alveolar walls

(a) Adenocarcinoma in situ (AIS, new name for BAC) start with lepidic growth (thickened-appearing alveoli with atypical cells). AIC grows in uniform manner along alveolar walls w/o evidence of invasion

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12
Q

Histologically differentiate minimally invasive adenoCA from lepidic predominant adenoCA

A

Both have background of peripheral lepidic growth, then different size of invasive part

  • minimally invasive aenoCA: lepidic growth background with under 5mm invasive part
  • lepidic-predominant adenoCA: lepidic growth background with invasion over 5mm
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13
Q

Why clinically relevant to see if lepidic growth has any areas of invasion?

A

If no invasion then adenocarcinoma in situ (AIS, formerly called BAC) is 100% curable with local wedge resection

  • pure lepidic growth = AIS
  • once have any area of invasion: if under 5mm = minimally invasive adenoCA, if over 5mm = lepidic predominant adenoCA
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14
Q

Which lung nodule is more concerning?

A

Left = pure GGO- presume adenocarcinoma in situ (AIS, BAC) or minimally invasive adenoCA (invasive component under 5mm) = better prognosis

vs.

Larger the solid component = higher risk of invasion, if over 50% solid or growing solid component higher concern for lepidic predominant adenoCA

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15
Q

How is adenocarcinoma characterized?

(a) Why clinically relevant

A

Not characterized by well or poorly differentiated, instead based on histologic subtype

  • High grade = solid and micropapillary
  • Intermediate grade = acinar and papillary
    (a) Relevant b/c high grade (solid and micropapillary) have worse prognosis than intermediate (acinar and papillary)
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16
Q

Differentiate WHO 2015 classification of squamous cell and adenocarcinoma

A

WHO 2015 classification

  • squamous cell = keratinizing (cells that make keratin) or p40 positive
  • adenocarcinoma = diffusely TTF-1 positive whether they make glands or contain mucin (b/c not all do, cann be poorly differentiated and just have the stain)
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17
Q

What is the most likely lung malignancy given this histology?

A

Small cell- 2-3 x number of lymphocytes (small cells), then very blue b/c high nuclear (blue) to cytoplasmic ratio

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18
Q

Defining features of large cell carcinoma

A
  • large cells (specifically large nucleoli) notably WITHOUT features of squamous (keratinic, intercellular bridges) or adenocarcinoma/glandular (mucinous, papillary) differentiation
  • negative p40 (squamous) and TTF-1 (adenoCA)
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19
Q

Why important clinically to separate adenoCA and squamous cell CA

A

Yes both are NSCLC so have the same staging and similar treatment algorithms

-but adenoCA more likely to have EGFR, VEGF, ALK/ROS mutations while squamous do not => immunotherapy

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20
Q

How to histologically define the size of adenocarcinoma vs. adenocarincoma in situ

A

Adenocarcinoma tumor size counted by the INVASIVE portion of the lesion, not the entire lesion

-can have lepidic growth but the tumor size is based on the invasive portion

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21
Q

How are pulmonary carcinoid tumors classified?

A

Two types

  • typical: less than 2 mitosis per 10 high power fields, absence of necrosis
  • atypical (worse prognosis): 2 or more mitosis per 10 HPFs or presence of necrosis
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22
Q

Pulmonary carcinoid tumors

(a) Typical clinical features
(b) Smokers or nonsmokers

A

Carcinoid

(a) 70% are in proximal airways => cause airway symptoms like cough, hemoptysis, bronchial obstruction
(b) Typically in never smokers

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23
Q

2 malignancies with clasically false negative PET

A
  1. Adenocarcinoma in situ- ground glass nodule on imaging, low PET uptake
  2. pulmonary carcinoid tumors- typically in proximal airways
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24
Q

Differentiate management of pulmonary carcinoid tumors from other NSCLC

A

Pulmonary carcinoid- no proven benefit of chemo or radiation even for metastatic disease => just surgery and LN dissection even in most extensive form

  • typical carcinoid (low mitoses, no necrosis): limited resection with segementectomy and regional LN dissection
  • atypical sarcoid (more than 2 mitoses per 10 HPF or presence of necrosis): lobectomy and mediastinal LN dissection
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25
Q

Differentiate centrilobular from centriacinar

(a) Definition
(b) Histopath
(c) Radiology

A

(a) Lobule- between interlobular septa, made up of 5-15 acini (smallest unit of the lung)

(b, c) Histopath and radiology- too small to differentiate, so centrilobular = centriacinar

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26
Q

Centrilobular vs. panacinar emphysema

(a) Anatomic difference
(b) Typical risk factor
(c) Predominant location

A

Centrilobular emphysema

(a) hole in the center of the lobule with normal surrounding lung
(b) Smoking
(c) Upper-lobe predominant

Panacinar emphysema

(a) hole throughout entire lobule
(b) most common smoking but classically alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
(c) Lower lobe predomainant

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27
Q

Define paraseptal emphysema

A

Hole/dilated/destroyed distal alveoli lying perpendicular to the pleura- hence why seen in periphery on imaging

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28
Q

Typical histologic findings of asthma

A

Histologic features of asthma

  • thickened basement membrane
  • increased airway smooth muscle
  • eosinophils in airway walls and lumen
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29
Q

2 key histologic features of smoking-induced respiratory bronchiolitis

A
  1. remodeling of small airway basement membrane so becomes thicker => narrowed lumen => obstructed flow
  2. smoker’s macrophages = hemosiderin-laiden macrophages, fill the lumen of the respiratory bronchioles causing turbulent flow
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30
Q

Infectious bronchiolitis

(a) Imaging finding
(b) Histopath finding

A

Infectious bronchiolitis

(a) Tree-in-bud opacities on CT chest
(b) Histopath: inflammatory cells (PMNs) in airwy wall and airway luemn

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31
Q

Differentiate bronchiolitis obliterans syndrome from constrictive bronchiolitis

A

BOS = syndrome of obstructed airways (FEV1 reduction) indicative of chronic rejection of lung transplant, the clinical syndrome

While constrictive bronchiolitis is the histopath equivalent

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32
Q

Pt with solitary lung nodule and this path from a core needle biopsy: diagnosis?

A

Malignant in adenoCA spectrum but cannot differentiate adenocarcinoma in situ (AIS, previously known as BAC, curable with wedge resection) from lepidic adenocarcinoma

-need complete excision to see if any invasive portion b/c tumor will be defined by size of invasive portion

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33
Q

Describe different histologic findings in early vs. late diffuse alveolar damage

A

DAD = pathologic finding of ARDS/AIP (AIP if idiopathic)

  • first week = acute exudative phase with edema and hyaline membranes
  • second week = proliferative/organizing stage with interstitial inflammation and organization (granulation tissue)
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34
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Hyaline membranes = in early/exudative phase of diffuse alveolar damage pathognomonic for AIP/ARDS

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35
Q

Histologic findings that differentiate early/late ARDS with pictures

A
  • Early = exudative phase with hyaline membranes
  • Late = organizing phase with collapsed parenchyma filled with granulation tissue
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36
Q

Histopath findings of organizing PNA

A

Organizing PNA pattern

  • intra-alveolar buds of granulation tissue = granulation tissue inside respiratory bronchioles/small distal airways
  • temporal homogeneity (all lesions of similar age)
  • NO architectural distortion or old fibrosis (suggests another process)
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37
Q

Gross pathologic findings of UIP

A

Peripheral and lower lobe predominant fibrosis, thickened fibrotic walls grossly = pathologic equivalent of honeycombing

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38
Q

Histologic findings of UIP

A
  • patchy fibrosis = abrupt fibrosis around the periphery just next to normal tissue = hallmark temporal heterogeneity
  • newly created airspace with thick fibrotic wall = honeycombing, peripheral and lower lobe predominant
  • **fibroblastic foci = tufts of granulation tissue tightly attached to lungs
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39
Q

Histopath buzzwords

(a) Fibroblast foci
(b) Hyaline membranes
(c) Basement membrane thickening with muscular hyperplasia
(d) Lepidic growth
(e) Stellate lesions

A

Histhopath buzzwords

(a) Fibroblast foci = granulation tissue tightly adherent to lung that fibrosis, = UIP
(b) Hyaline membranes = exudative phase of DAD (AIP/ARDS)
(c) Asthma
(d) Lepidic growth = along septa, seen in lung adenocarcinoma
(e) Lymphocytic infiltrate with stellate scars = PLCH

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40
Q

Describe histopath findings of progression of UIP

A

Fibrotblast foci = tufts of granulation tissue tightly attached to lung = site of injury and fibrosis

-characterized by dome-shaped fibroblastic tissue over collagen fibrosis

As disease progresses: foci get thicker, fibrosis gets denser, fibrosis geadually added to underlying lung (while etiology of non-steroid responsive granulation tissue remains unknwon)

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41
Q

Histologic description of acute IPF exacerbation

A

Expect UIP pattern (fibroblastic foci, peripheral and lower lobe predominant fibrosis with honeycombing) with DAD superimposed during acute exacerbation

-DAD features: hyaline membranes

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42
Q

What features on biopsy of UIP would suggest underlying CTD

(a) Why important clinically

A

UIP typically pauci-cellular => any lymhoid aggregates, plasma cells, or interstitial inflammation would suggest underlying ILD

(a) Start with immunosuppression (rather than anti-fibrotic) for tx and prognosis typically better in CTD-related

43
Q

Differentiate imaging findings of cellular vs. fibrotic NSIP

A

NSIP radiographically: ground glass, subpleural sparing (vs. subpleural predominance in UIP), reticular opacities, traction bronchiectasis, NO honeycombing (cardinal feature of UIP)

  • cellular NSIP on imaging: mostly ground glass
  • fibrotic NSIP: start to see more reticular changes, typically subpleural sparing (not always present but when is helpful to differentiate from UIP)
44
Q

Histopath features of NSIP

A

-temporal homogeneity (all same), vs. heterogeneous (due to different stages of fibroblastic foci/fibrosis) typical of UIP

^homogenous b/c fibrosis laid down on original alveolar walls

-lack of architectural distortion (again b/c fibrosis starts on original alveolar walls)

45
Q

Why clinically important to differentiate cellular vs. fibrotic NSIP

A

Cellular in theory much more responsive to steroids and fully reversible! the fibrosis part is typically not reversible

-cellular NSIP much better prognosis (similar to DIP and RBILD) where fibrotic NSIP has worse prognosis (almost but not as bad as UIP)

46
Q

Describe when respiratory bronchiolitis becomes ILD

A

-histopath can be identical (smoker’s macrophages in alveoli causing small airway obstruction) but when there is clinical evidence of ILD (PFTs) without another reason for ILD then RB on path = RB-ILD diagnosis

47
Q

Histopath findings of RB-ILD

A

-respiratory bronchiolitis = pigmented alveolar macrophages (‘smokers macrophages’) in and around respiratory bronchioles and surrounding alveoli

48
Q

Imaging features of RB-ILD

A

CXR: bilateral fine reticular or reticulonodular opacities

CT: fine centrilobular nodules, bilateral patchy GGOs, more GGO think more DIP b/c more interstitial fibrosis

49
Q

Differentiate RB-ILD and DIP on

(a) Imaging
(b) Histology

A

(a) Imaging- more ground glass and dense consolidation b/c of more fibrosis
(b) Still tons of airspace macrophages, more interstitial fibrosis in DIP

50
Q

This CT chest in a smoker, dx?

A

Cigarette and MJ smoking associated cystic lung disease- centrilobular nodules with cysts = PLCH

-predominantly upper and mid lung zones

51
Q

Histologic findings of PLCH

A
  • early PLCH = cellular with tons of Langerhan cells (APCs, subtype of dendritic cells) characteristically stain + S-100 and CD1a
  • then later on stellate and cellular nodules (of Langerhan cells) fibroe and form stellate scars
52
Q

PLCH treatment options

A
  • smoking cessation is key
  • steroids for severe or progressive disease
  • BRAF inhibitor if BRAF mutation present
  • transplant
  • monitor for PH
53
Q

Differentiate histologic granuloma pattern of 2 ILDs characterized by granulomas

A

Both noncaseating granulomas, but way more diffuse in sarcoidosis

  • subacute HP: granulomas typically sparse or not present at all, typically interstitial inflammatory infiltrate
  • while in sarcoidosis granulomas make up the disease so are diffuse, no interstitial infiltrate
54
Q

Differentiate comon etiologies of nonfibrotic vs. fibrotic HP

A

Nonfibrotic- high percent bird (including down pillowsbedding) and mold/humidifier exposure

Fibrotic (chronic)- mold/humidifier, idiopathic

55
Q

Imaging findings of nonfibrotic HP

A

GGOs, centrilobular nodules with air trapping

56
Q

Histopath findings of nonfibrotic HP

A
  • interstitial inflammation ceneterd around bronchovascular bundles
  • sparse granulomas
57
Q

Imaging features to help differentiate chronic HP from UIP

A

Both can have honeycombing and fibrosis

  • while HP more upper-lobe predominant with centrilobular nodules (not seen in UIP) and air trapping
  • upper lobe predominant, honeycombing in both (red arrow) and more groun glass (white arrow) in HP
58
Q

Histopath findings to help differentiate UIP from fibrotic (chronic) HP

A

Both can have peripheral fibrosis and honeycombing

-small granulomas in HP (not in UIP)

59
Q

Why clinically important to differentiate chronic HP from UIP

A

Different treatment

UIP- straight to antifibrotic

Fibrotic HP- immunosuppression (steroids, AZA, MMF), then if still progressive add anti-fibrotic (INBUILD study)

60
Q

Describe the histologic pathphysiology of scarring in sarcoidosis

A

Sarcoid- starts with noncaseating granulomas along the bronchovascular bundle, then develop concentric fibrosis around the granulomas, then eventually granulomas coalesce with fibrosis surroudning and all fibrosis

61
Q

Diagnosis based on path

A

LAM = lymphangiomyomatosis

-mTOR pathway not inhibited (either from TSC mutation or abnormal signagling of mTOR) so get anormal cell proliferation/sruvival/invasiveness => pecular smooth muscle like cells then cysts form

62
Q

Typical immunohistochemical markers of LAM

A

+HMB-35, ER and PR positive (but weirdly anti-estrogens don’t work)

63
Q

Other organs involved in LAM

A

See LAM cells (abnormal smooth muscle cells) in chylous effusions, blood, angiomyolipomas of the kdney

64
Q

Why does LAM often present with PTX?

A

B/c thin walled cysts in periphery at high risk of rupture => PTX

-cysts are very thin walled and peripheral

65
Q

Differentiate etiologies of PAP

(a) Primary/acquired
(b) Congenital
(c) Secondary

A

PAP = accumulation of surfactant, normal physiology requires GM-CSF to activate macrophages to degrade surfactant

(a) Primary/acquired = development of anti-GM CSF antibodies
(b) Congenital = mutation in GM-CSF gene or receptor, or in surfactant protein so alveolar macrophage cannot degrade
(c) Secondary = something else wrong with macrophage that it can’t degrade surfactant
ex: immunocompromised pt w/o macrophages, drug reactions, exposures (acute silicosis)

66
Q

Biopsy findings of PAP

A

-Periodic acid-Schiff-(PAS) positive alveolar deposits (surfactant) in absence of ecellular infiltrate and normal septa

67
Q

BAL findings of PAP

(a) Electron microscopy

A
  • return of milky effluent with granular, acellular, eosinophilic, proteinaceous materal with foamy macrophages
  • confirmatory finding = lamellar bodies (concentrically laminated phospholipid structures) on electron microscopy
68
Q

Biopsy findings of acute eosinophilic PNA

A

= DAD (hyaline membranes) + eos

69
Q

Characteristic imaging features of chronic eosinophilic PNA

A

“photographic negative of pulmonary edema”

-dense peripheral consolidations, often migratory

70
Q

Biopsy findings of chronic eosinophilic PNA

A

Just huge sheets of all eos

-similar to bacterial PNA but instead of neutrophils, all eos

71
Q

Which organism?

A

V-shaped, 45 degree branchng on India ink or K-OH stain = aspergillus

72
Q

Aspergillus vs. mucor?

A

Left = aspergillus- smaller angle branching, regular septations

Right = mucor- closer to 90 degree branching, wider, no regular septations

73
Q

HIV pt with fever, cough, dyspnea, hemoptysis

  • multiple nodules on CT chest
  • pulmonary artery pseudoaneurysm
  • tissue sample:
A

90 degree hyphal branching without septations and thick filaments = mucor

  • more nodules (over 10) typically favor mucor over invasive pulmonary aspergillosis
  • tissue necrosis and crossing of tissue planes/angioinvasiveness => PA microaneurysms/pseudoaneurysms
74
Q

Differentiate histology of endemic mycoses

A

Histo- narrow-based budding yeast

Coccidio- giant sperhules with endospores

Blasto- broad-based (B’s) budding yeast

Paracoccidio- ‘pilot-wheel’ appearance of fungal elements

75
Q

Diferentiate location of endemic mycoses

A
  • Histo (more common) and blasto (less common) overlap with Ohio and Mississippi River Valleys- central and midW US
  • Coccidiomycosis: more SW US, agriculture associated, Arizona
  • Paracoccidio: S. America and Mexico
76
Q

Buzzword india ink stain

(a) Diagnosis

A

India ink stain- positive in cryptococcus neoformans

(a) Classic halo sign of encapsulate yeast of cypto- typically of meningitis or pulmonary involvement

77
Q

Pt with skin finding on face, chronic cough x3 months with following CT chest

(a) Dx
(b) Tx

A

(a) Dx- actinomyces, bacteria that causes pulmonary cavitation with chest wall/pleural involvement/invasiveness
- also typically cervicofacial involvement in otherwise immunocompetent
- air bronchograms in mass lesion with chest wall/pleural involvement
(b) Tx = PCN

78
Q

Biopsy from an oral lesion in pt with cavitary lung disease

(a) Finding
(b) Diagnosis

A

(a) Sulfur granules = aggregates of actinomyces (branching, gram positive, thin filaments)
(b) Actinomyces- tx with PCN

79
Q

Neutropenic patient with the following chest imaging and hemoptysis

(a) Dx
(b) Why hemoptysis
(c) First line tx

A

Halo sign of central infection with tissue invasion with surrounding blood, hyphae mold with septae and acute angle branching

(a) Invasive pulmonary aspergillus
(b) B/c known for its angioinvasion/characteristic vascular invasion, can spread hematogenously => small pulmonary infarcts (causing chest pain), hemoptysis
(c) First line tx for aspergillus = voriconazole

80
Q

Treatment for bordatella pertussis

A

Azithro if caught within 1-2 weeks of symptom onset

81
Q

Cough-variant asthma

(a) Gold standard confirmatory test
(b) First line tx

A

Cough-variant asthma

(a) Methacholine challenge test (direct bronchoprovocation test)
(b) First line tx = ICS

82
Q

How long do symptoms persist after switching from ACEi to ARB for ACE-i induced cough

A

Symptoms typically resolve 1-4 weeks so doesn’t persist forever

83
Q

Mucus buzzwords

(a) Malodorous
(b) Rust-colored

© Anchovy paste

(d) Caseous

A

Mucus buzzwords

(a) Malodorous- anaerobes
(b) Rust-colored = pneumococcus

© Anchovy paste, brownish, chocolate = ameobic lung abscess

(d) Caseous = tuberculsosi

84
Q

Mucus buzzwords

(a) Chocolate/brownish
(b) Currant jelly sputum

© Barking cough sough

A

Mucus buzzwords

(a) Chocolate/brownish/anchovy paste = amoebic lung abscess
(b) Currant jelly = klebs PNA

© Barking cough think laryngotracheal infections = viral, diptheria, pertussis

85
Q

34F previously healthy, non-productive cough 2 weeks after 2 days of myalgias, low grade fever, coryza

(a) Most likely dx
(b) First line tx

A

(a) Acute cough (under 3 weeks) most commonly post-viral
(b) Trial brompheniramine/pseudoephedrine combination = 1st gen antihistamine with decongestant

86
Q

PAMPs (pathogen associate molecular patterns)- innate or adaptive immune response?

A

PAMPs = pathogen associated molecular patterns recognized by innate immune system to then stimulate inflammation and adaptive immune response

  • innate immune response: immediate (faster), antigen independent, no immunologic memory
    vs. slower adaptive immune response that is antigen dependent and provides immunologic memory
87
Q

Innate or adaptive immunity?

(a) Alveolar macrophages
(b) Dendritic Cells

© T-cells

A

(a) Alveolar macrophages- innate immunity, antigen-independent immediate response w/o immunologic memory
(b) Dendritic cells = innate immunity

© T-cells = adaptive

88
Q

Describe normal function of CTLA-4

A

Normally- CTLA-4 competes for co-stimulatory receptor on T-cells, so when CTLA-4 present it inhibits T-cell activation

Bad in cancer b/c the cancer develops CTLA-4 and then is not recognized as bad/foreign by immune system

ex: Anti-CTLA-4 blocks this receptor => blocks the inhibition so T cells remain active against the cancer cell

89
Q

Mechanism of Ipilimumab vs. Pembrolizumab

A

Both CTLA-4 and PD-1 are receptors that work to inhibit T-cell response

Ipilumab = anti-CTLA-4 that blocks the inhibitory mechanism of CTLA-4 => T-cell remains active

Pembrolizumab = anti-PDL1 = blocks PD1 receptor to again prevent inhibition of T-cell

90
Q

What has a better negative predictive value than MIP/MEP for ruling out respiratory muscle weakness?

A

Change in FVC from upright to supine

  • normal to drop by 5-10%
  • drop by 30% or more in FVC from upright to supine (higher when upright) has good negative predictive value for respiratory muscle weakness
91
Q

FEV1 cutoff to not do methacholine challenge

A

Methacholine challenge

  • absolutely contraindicated for FEV1 under 50% predicted or under 1L
  • relative contraindication for FEV1 under 60% predicted or under 1.5L
92
Q

Prior to methacholine challenge

(a) Which med to hold the longest
(b) How long to hold SABA

© How long to hold LABA

A

Prior to methacholine challenge

(a) Hold LAMA (tiotropium) for 48 hours
(b) No SABA morning of- 4-6 hrs

© Hold LABA 24-36 hrs

93
Q

What percent drop in FEV1 is considered an abnormal exercise challenge test?

A

Decrease in FEV1 by 10-15% is abnormal

94
Q

Explain the cutoff of back-extrapolated volume used in the acceptability criteria of PFTs

A

BEV (back extrapolated volume) must be under 5% of the FVC or within .1L, basically trying to ensure that when exhalation is started the lungs are full (not a lot of air has been exhaled)

-b/c if exhaled already then expiratory loop will be wrong

(from 2019 new ATS guidelines)

95
Q

How close are PFT measurements (FEV1 and FVC) expected to be for acceptable reproducibility in the new 2019 ATS PFT guidelines?

A

Need 2-3 acceptable measurements within 0.15L of each other

96
Q

Differentiate principle by which lung volumes are measured by body plethysmography vs. gas dilution

(a) Which is gold standard?

A

Body plethysmography (a) gold standard- pt pants against a closed shutter in a sealed box, then via Boyles law (P1V1 = P2V2) use the change in pressure to calculate the lung volume

Gas dilution- cheaper and easier- measure the concentration of exhaled gas (typically nitrogen washout) to calculate lung volume

97
Q

Name two tracheobronchial abnormalities that classically spare the posterior membrane

(a) vs. which don’t

A

Spare posterior membrane:

  • tracheobronchopathia osteochondroplastica = calcified nodules protruding into tracheal lumen but spares posterior membrane b/c no cartilage
  • relapsing polychondritis = thickening of anterolateral wall, spares posterior membrane (again b/c no cartilage)
    (a) Involve posterior wall: tracheal stenosis, tracheobronchomalacia, amyloid
98
Q

What is this path trying to show?

A

Giant cells- activated macrophages fuse to form multinucleated giant cells in attempt to get rid of something (infection or foreign body)

99
Q

Differentiate giant cell and granuloma

A

Giant cell = activated macrophages that fuse to try to get rid of either bacteria (Tb) or foreign body (ex: hard metal like cobolt)

Then if can’t get rid of the thing it calls for tons of inflammatory cells (lymphocytes, plasma cells, more macrophages) that form cuffs/swirls around the multinucleated giant cells to ‘wall off’

100
Q

What is this path trying to show?

A

Giant cells- activated macrophages fuse to form multinucleated giant cells (abundant cytoplasm, multiple nuclei) in attempt to get rid of something (infection or foreign body)

-if can’t get rid of it then starts to form granuloma (big swirl of other cells around the multinucleated giant cell)

101
Q

Differentiate the two types of granulomas?

A
102
Q

Pt with progressive dyspnea 1 month after R-CHOP. Previously worked as a hay farmer. FEV1 22%, FVC 38%, ratio .45, DLCO 51%

Imaging and path below, diagnosis?

A

Constrictive bronchiolitis- airflow limitation due to small airway injury

Give away is the histology- airway itself is thickened (figure 7) leading to lumen obstruction

vs.

HP (figure 9 histology) where there is intraluminal fibrosis/endoluminal granulation tissue

103
Q

Classic imaging finding for what diagnosis?

A

Reverse halo sign = atoll sign- crytogenic organizing PNA or fungal infections

-the patchy peribronchilar GGO make COP more likely

104
Q

Classic imaging finding for what diagnosis?

A

Diffuse centrilobular ground glass nodules = subacute HP