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CM Pulmonary Boards > APCCMPD Chapters > Flashcards

APCCMPD Chapters Flashcards

1
Q

Define chronic bronchitis

A

Chronic bronchitis- 3+ months of cough in a year for 2 consecutive years, other causes of cough ruled out

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2
Q

Define emphysema

A

Emphysema- permanent destruction of airspaces (terminal bronchioles and alveoli)

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3
Q

Differentiate centrilobular, panacinar, and paraseptal emphysema

A

Depends what part of the lobule/terminal airway has damange

Centrilobular- damage/destruction of central part of acinus
-seen in smokers, coal workers pneumoconiosis

Panacinar- all parts of the acinus destroyed
-smoking, alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

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4
Q

Purpose of GOLD criteria in use clinically

A

GOLD- to risk stratify patients by degree of obstruction (based on FEV1) and symptoms (mMRC and CAT score) to determine treatment, also to determine risk of future exacerbation

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5
Q

Name LABA/LAMA combinations

A

LABA/LAMA

vilanterol/umeclidinum = Anoro Elipta
Olodaterol/tiotropium = Stiolto respimat

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6
Q

2 ways that GOLD criteria distinguishes respiratory symptoms

A

Classifying respiratory symptoms by

-mMRC: 0-1 scale of dyspnea
mMRC 0-1: A and C GOLD disease
mMRC 2 or above: B and D

-CAT (COPD assessment test): questions about symptoms (cough, dyspnea) cuttoff below or above 10, max is 40 (8 questions ranked 1-5, higher is worse), above 10 indicates worse disease
CAT below 10: A, C
CAT above 10: B, D GOLD disease

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7
Q

Scale for mMRC

A

mMRC: perceived dyspnea scale

0- no concerning dyspnea, breathless only with strenuous exercise
1- SOB when hurrying
2- walk slower b/c of breathlessness
3- stop to catch breath after 100m or a few minutes on level surface
4- breathlessness with ADLs (dressing), leaving house

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8
Q

Scale for CAT

A

0-40, cutoff for GOLD is under 10 (minimal) vs. over 10 (bad symptoms)

8 questions total, rank on scale of 0 (no symptoms) to 5 (severe or constant symptoms)

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9
Q

Differentiate GOLD 1-4 for degree of flow obstruction

A

GOLD by FEV1
1- over 80% predicted
2- 50-79% predicted
3- 30-49%
4- under 30% predicted

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10
Q

Differentiate GOLD A-D

A

GOLD by symptom categorization and exacerbations

GOLD A: mMRC 0-1 or CAT under 10, 0-1 moderate exacerbation a year (not leading to hospitalizations)
GOLD B: mMRC over 2 or CAT over 10, 0-1 moderate exacerbations a year (not leading to hospitalization)

GOLD C: mMRC 0-1 or CAT under 10, 2 or more moderate exacerbations or at least one leading to hospitalization
GOLD D: mMRC over 2 or CAT over 10, 2 or more moderate exacerbations or at least 1 requiring hospitalization in the past year

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11
Q

Differentiate treatment options delineated by GOLD Groups A-D

A

For GOLD A (low symptoms, low exacerbations) can try SABA alone

For Gold B and C (either low symptoms high exacerbations or high symptoms low exacerbations) try LAMA/LABA combo

Gold D- triple therapy

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12
Q

Guidelines for LAMA alone vs. LAMA/LABA for COPD

A

For COPD pts with dyspnea or exercise intolerance - combo LAMA/LABA recommended over monotherapy

from 2019 GOLD GUidelines
-combo LAMA/LABA increases FEV1, reduces symptoms, reduces exacerbations compared to monotherapy

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13
Q

When to escalate from LAMA/LABA to triple therapy (ICS/LAMA/LABA?)

A

Add ICS if have an exacerbation, requiring steroids/abx (even if managed outpatient)

COPD pts with dyspnea or exercise intolerance despite LAMA/LABA escalate to triple therapy if one or more exacerbations in the past year requiring abx or oral steroids

2019 GOLD Guidelines: inhaled triple therapy improves lung function, symptoms, and reduce exacerbations
-so once already on LABA/LAMA but don’t start on triple off the bat

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14
Q

65M COPD, FEV1 45%, 1 exacerbation in the past year

Best treatment plan?

A

GOLD class 3 (FEV 30-49%) B (1 exacerbation)- start combination LAMA/LABA (anoro, stiolto respimat)

2019 Gold Guidelines: combo better than either monotherapy

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15
Q

LAMA improves mortality, symptoms, and/or FEV1?

A

LAMA improves symptoms and quality of life

No improvement in mortality or FEV1

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16
Q

70F FEV1 40% on ICS/LAMA/LABA, mMRC 4, 1 exacerbation in the past year managed outpatient with antibiotics and steroids

GOLD class? (number and letter)

A

GOLD 3B

3 (FEV1 39-49%)
B not A b/c mMRC over 1
B not D b/c only one moderate exacerbation (would need 2 or more moderate within a year or at least one hospitalization)

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17
Q

Proven benefits of LAMA (vs. placebo)

A

UPLIFT trial- NEJM 2008
-Improved symptoms, quality of life, exacerbation, COPD admissions

NO reduction in FEV1 or mortality

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18
Q

TORCH trial- proven benefit of ICS/LABA

A

TORCH trial- NEJM 2007: ICS/LABA vs. placebo vs. either alone
-Combo ICS/LABA Improved symptoms, improved FEV1, reduced exacerbation
vs. placebo or either ICS or LABA alone

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19
Q

ATS Guidelines for positive PPD in the following cases

(a) 5mm or greater
(b) 10mm or greater
(c) 15mm or greater

A

ATS guidelines for positive PPD

(a) 5mm or greater in those w/ high risk of progression to active Tb
-HIV, TNFalpha inhibitor/immunocompromised
-those with close contact of recent positive case
-abnormal CXR c/w prior Tb infection
-silicosis

(b) 10mm or greater: those at increased risk of prior exposure or intermediate risk of progression to active
-Exposure: from endemic country (India), prison/homeless, healthcare workers
-Comorbidities that increase risk of progression: DM, CKD, IVDU

(c) 15mm or greater = everyone else

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20
Q

ATS Guidelines for positive PPD in the following cases

(a) TNF-alpha inhibitor
(b) IVDU
(c) From India
(d) Close contact of recent TB case
(e) Healthcare workers
(f) Prison/homeless
(g) Abnormal CXR c/w prior Tb
(h) Silicosis
(i) Chronic renal failure

A

ATS guidelines for positive PPD

(a) 5mm or greater in those w/ high risk of progression to active Tb
-HIV, TNFalpha inhibitor/immunocompromised
-those with close contact of recent positive case
-abnormal CXR c/w prior Tb infection
-silicosis

(b) 10mm or greater: those at increased risk of prior exposure or intermediate risk of progression to active
-Exposure: from endemic country (India), prison/homeless, healthcare workers
-Comorbidities that increase risk of progression: DM, CKD, IVDU

(c) 15mm or greater = everyone else

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21
Q

What patients be most concerned about a false-negative PPD?

A

False-negative PPD in:
-acute disease, first 6-8 weeks
-immunocompromised (truly no Ab response)
-such widespread disseminated disease (miliary)

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22
Q

What patients be most concerned about a false-positive PPD?

A

False-positive PPD:
-BCG vaccine (still given to prevent CNS Tb)
-NTM

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23
Q

First line tx for LTBI

A

LTBI: 4R
-rifampin daily x4 months

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24
Q

Second line alternative regimens for LTBI (aside from 4R)

A

LTBI regimens aside from 4R
-INH daily x6 mo
-Rifapentine + INH weekly x3 mo
-Rifampin + INH daily x3 mo

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25
Q

Differentiate LFT abnormality expected from rifampin vs. INH

A

LFT abnormality

Rifampin- expect cholestatic picture (alk phos, bilis)
INH- expect transaminitis

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26
Q

Which LTBI regimens to add pyridoxine to and why

A

B6 whenever using INH to prevent peripheral neuropathy

-if pt has tingling/symptoms increase B6 dose

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27
Q

Typical treatment regimen for pan-sensitive tuberculosis

A

IRPE + pyridoxine
-stop ethambutol if returns rifampin sensitive
-stop PZA after 2 months
-continue rifampin + INH for additional 4 months (6 months total)

Longer (9 mo) for severe cavitary disease or CNS involvement

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28
Q

Diagnostic criteria for MAC infection

A

MAC infection per ATS guidelines

Appropriate clinical picture, radiographic findings, and exclusion of other things (ex: Tb)

Micro data: 2 positive sputum Cx OR 1 + BAL OR 1 + tissue (BAL with AFB or granulomatous inflammation)

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29
Q

2020 Guidelines for first line treatment of nodular bronchiectatic MAC

(a) Drug regimen
(b) Duration

A

(a) Azithro
Rifampin
Ethambutol
-TIW can be used for most nodular bronchiectatic disease as better tolerated and shown to have similar sputum conversion rates in moderate (not severe or fibrocavitary disease)

(b) for 12 months from sputum culture conversion (test sputum each month, 12 months from conversion)

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30
Q

When daily MAC tx is indicated over 3x/week

A

-severe nodular bronchiectatic disease
-fibrocavitary disease

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31
Q

What is considered refractory MAC?

(a) Tx

A

Pts who remain culture positive at 6 months of azithro, rifampin, ethambutol

(a) Add inhaled amikacin

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32
Q

Have pt with MAC pending sensitivities- when to start abx?

A

Start azithro, rifampin, ethambutol prior to sensitivities.

Sensitivity in vitro doesn’t necessarily correlate with in vivo for rifampin and ethambutol so really waiting on azithro R and can then add another agent if needed

33
Q

What monitoring needs to be done on MAC therapy?

(a) Standard first line tx for nodular bronchiectatic MAC
(b) Rifabutin
(c) Amikacin

A

MAC therapy monitoring
-monthly sputum culture until conversion

(a)
Azithro- QTc, LFTs
Rifampin- LFTs
Ethambutol- LFTs, visual acuity, visual color discrimination

(b) Rifabutin- LFTs, CBC (leukopenia and thrombocytopenia), visual acuity testing

(c) Amikacin- BUN/CR, audiometry

34
Q

Differentiate tx regimens for M. kansasii and M. abscessus

A

M. kansasii = same regimen as MAC = azithro, rifampin, ethambutol

M. abscessus tx way more complicated, no idea regimen
-first depends on azithro resistance (inducible resistance with erm gene)

Macrolide sensitive: 3 drug regimen with azithro
-can add: IV amikacin, IV tigecycline
oral: azithro, clofazimine, linezolid
inhaled: amikacin

Azithro resistsance strains of M. abscessus need at elast 4 drugs above

35
Q

What is an erm gene

(a) What means for cultures

A

Erm = erythromycin ribosome methyltransferase gene
-gene that leads to inducible macrolide resistance in Mycobacterium abscessus

(a) Need to keep cultures 14 days b/c may seem sensitive initially then develops macrolide resistance by day 14

36
Q

Indications for roflumilast in COPD (REACT trial, Lancet 2015)

A

Chronic bronchitis (have to have cough) and at least 2 exacerbations in the previous year

-fewer exacerbations

37
Q

Indications for chronic azithromycin therapy in COPD (NEJM 2011)

A

Moderate to severe COPD and either
-continuous O2 therapy
-or one exacerbation in the last yera

-longer time to first exacerbation
-fewer exacerbations

38
Q

Differentiate pts better for roflumilast vs. chronic azithro for severe COPD

A

Roflumilast- in pts w/ 2 or more exacerbations in the past year and chronic bronchitis phenotype (so cough!)

vs.

Chronic azithro: on continuous O2 or at least one exacerbation

39
Q

Benefit of supplemental O2 in COPD

(a) At rest
(b) On exertion

A

Supplemental O2

(a) For resting hypoxemia (SpO2 88 or under, PaO2 55 or under) continuous O2 therapy reduces mortality (Annals Int Med 1980, Lancet 1981)

(b) LOTT trial, NEJM 2016- no decrease in mortality or time to first hospitalization in pts with stable COPD and moderate desat at rest (89-93%) or with exercise (80-90%)

40
Q

Roflumilast

(a) Mechanism of action
(b) Main side effect

A

Roflumilast = reduces exacerbations in pts with COPD and chronic bronchitis (chronic cough) with frequent (more than 2 in the past year) exacerbations

(a) PDE4 inhibitor- oral, thought to promote airway smooth muscle relaxation
(b) Diarrhea in 10%

41
Q

Who should be referred for pulmonary rehab?

A

All COPD patients with severe obstruction which GOLD guidelines 2015 state as FEV1 under 50.
Can be considered if FEV1 over 50% and symptomatic with exercise limitation

42
Q

Ideal candidates for LVRS

(a) Location of emphysema
(b) Perfusion to upper lobes
(c) Severity of air trapping (RV)
(d) Severity of obstruction (FEV1)
(e) Hypercapnia

A

Lung volume reduction surgery

(a) Apical predominant, ideally heterogeneous emphysema
(b) Reduced perfusion (under 10%) to upper lobes.
If perfusion is preserved (over 20% to upper lobes on V/Q scan) tells you pt is still using those upper lobes and LVRS may not improve V/Q so much
(c) Severe air trapping with RV over 150%
(d) Severe obstruction but not too severe, typically FEV1 between 20-45%
(e) No hypercapnia, pCO2 under 60

43
Q

Aside from CT chest what eval is needed to assess candidacy for LVRS?

(a) ABG
(b) PFTs
(c) TTE
(d) V/Q

A

Of course get CT chest to show distribution of disease: ideal is upper lobe and heterogeneous

Then also get
-ABG to r/o significant hypercapnia (pCO2 over 60)
-PFTs to ensure significant air trapping (RV over 150%) and obstruction (FEV1 20-45%)
-TTE to r/o significant PH
-V/Q to assess perfusion to upper lobes

44
Q

Indication for home non-invasive PPV in COPD pts

A

-Chronic hypercapnia (pCO2 over 52)
NIPPV also reduces readmission rates if pCO2 elevated on discharge for acute COPD exacerbations
AND
-nocturnal hypoxia
AND
-documentation that OSA has been ruled out

So- can quality for bipap if hypoxic and hypercapnic w/o OSA

45
Q

Cataplexy

(a) What is is
(b) Associated with what diagnosis

A

Cataplexy = weakness during periods of strong emotions, pathognomonic symptom of narcolepsy

46
Q

What are the variables of STOP-BANG

(a) Cutoff for likelihood of OSA

A

S-snoring loudly
T- tiredness
O- observed apnea
P- pressure (HTN)

B- BMI 35 or above
A- age 50 or above
N- neck circumference 16 or above for M
G- Gender (male)

(a) 3 or above indicative of high-likelihood of OSA

47
Q

Epworth sleepiness scale- what score is consistent with pathologic sleepiness

A

Epworth sleepiness scale- likelihood of falling asleep 0 to 3 during 7 different activities
-sitting and reading, watching TV, passenger in a car etc

Score ranges from 0 to 24, score over 10 associated with pathologic sleepiness

48
Q

Some features of narcolepsy

A

Narcolepsy- REM at abnormal times

-sleep paralysis
-cataplexy (weakness during periods of strong emotions))
-hyponogogic hallucinations = vivid visions while falling asleep or while awakening, thought to be a mix of wakefulness during REM

49
Q

How to differentiate central from obstructive apneas on PSG

A

Obstructive- persistent respiratory effort without airflow

Central- complete absence of respiratory effort during cessation of airflow

50
Q

AHI cutoffs for normal
mild
moderate
severe OSA

A

AHI cutoffs
Normal under 5 events/hour
Mild: 5-14 events/hour
Moderate: 15-29 events/hour
Severe: over 30 events/hr

51
Q

Differentiate apneas and hypopneas

A

Apnea = at least 90% reduction in airflow for two or more breaths

Hypopneas = at least 30% reduction in airflow associated with either arousal or desat of at least 3%

52
Q

Define AHI

A

Apnea hypopnea index = amount of apneic (at least 90% reduction in airflow) + hypopnic (at least 30% reduction in airflow with eitehr desat or arousal) per hour

53
Q

Differentiate OHS from sleep-induced hypoventilation

A

OHS- BMI over 30 with PaCO2 over 45 while awake with other caused of hypercapnia ruled out

Most OHS is associated with OSA, small percent associated with Sleep-induced hypoventilation: PaCO2 over 55 for at least 10 minutes while sleeping

54
Q

What on sleep study hints that you may need Bipap instead of CPAP for OHS related to OSA?

A

Crank up CPAP until obstruction is relieved but still see hypoxia => another cause of hypoxia such as hypoventilation

Swith to bi-level PAP with delta P of 8-10 to help ventilate

55
Q

Differentiate BPAP and ASV (adaptive support ventilation)

A

BPAP- set an IPAP and EPE
-for OSA, hypoventilation, neuromuscular disease, pulmonary edema, COPD exacerbation

ASV- set EPAP, min/max PS, and a backup rate
-for hypoventilation, central sleep apnea, complex apnea (mixed obstructive and central)

56
Q

Differentiate solitary pulmonary nodule vs. mass

A

Solitary pulmonary nodule: under 3cm with normal surrounding lung parenchyma

Over 3cm = mass

57
Q

Differentiate concerning vs. benign calcification patterns of a solitary pulmonary nodule

A
58
Q

65M smoker with COPD (FEV1 40%) with 1.5cm ground glass RUL lesion

Next mgmt step?

A

Ground glass lesion under 3cm, over 6mm = repeat CT chest in 6-12 months

59
Q

Contrast Fleischner society guidelines for solid vs. subsolid single lung nodules

(a) Size cutoffs

A

Fleischner society guidelines for SPN

Solid nodules split by low and high risk patients
-single solid nodule under 6mm in low risk pt: no f/u, in high risk pt: option CT at 12 months
-single solid nodule 6-8mm in both low and high risk pts: CT 6-12 months
-single solid nodule over 8mm in both low and high risk: CT 3 months vs. PET vs. tissue sampling

Subsolid nodules just split by 6mm cutoff and by ground glass vs. subsolid
-GG and subsolid under 6mm: No f/u
-GG over 6mm: repeat CT in 6-12 months
vs. subsolid over 8mm: repeat CT 3-6 months

60
Q

Contrast Fleischner society guidelines for ground glass v. part solid ‘subsolid’ single pulmonary nodules

A

Split by 6mm cutoff

Ground glass nodule under 6mm- no f/u
GG nodule over 6mm: CT at 6-12 months, then CT every 2 years until 5 years

Part solid nodule under 6mm- no f/u
Part solid nodule over 6mm: CT at 3-6 months (so earlier) then annually for 5 yrs

61
Q

Fleischner society guidelines- who gets repeat CT for SPN under 6mm?

A

Optional f/u CT scan for high risk in solid lesion

Otherwise low risk solid nodule, GG or subsolid nodule all don’t require f/u if under 6mm

62
Q

Flesichner society guidelines for multiple pulmonary nodules

A

Multiple pulmonary nodules

-under 6mm no f/u
-over 6mm for both solid and subsolid: f/u CT in 3-6 months

63
Q

Lofgren syndrome

(a) Diagnostic relevance

A

Lofgren syndrome- characteristic of sarcoidosis
-Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
-Erythema nodosum
-Migratory polyarthralgias

(a) Doesn’t require biopsy b/c so highly probable for sarcoid

64
Q

Common extrapulmonary manifestations of sarcoidosis

(a) Skin
(b) Ocular

A

Sarcoidosis

(a) Skin- lupus pernio (chronic raised indurated lesion over nose), erythema nodosum

(b) Ocular- uveitis, optic neuritic

65
Q

Describe the panda sign on gallium scan

(a) Suggestive of what diagnosis?

A

Bilateral involvement of parotid and lacrimal glands
(a) not specific (can also be seen in Sjogrens or lymphoma) but
suggestive, and can be supported by mediastinal lymphadenopahty

66
Q

Lofgren syndrome:

(a) Diagnostic steps required
(b) Management

A

Lofgrens; bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, migratory polyarthralgias (ankle, knees), erythema nodosum, fever

(a) No biopsy required b/c such high likelihood of sarcoid
(b) Mgmt- typically self resolves or can use NSAIDs

67
Q

Lab values to check annually for sarcoidosis maintenance (screening of extrapulmonary manifestations)

A

-Cr
-Ca
-1,25-OH vitamin D
-LFTs including alk phos alk phos: not uncommon to have cystic bony lesions

68
Q

Average steroid dose for initial treatment of sarcoidosis?

A

Prednisone 20-40mg (typically don’t need the higher .5mg/kg situation)

69
Q

When to add steroid-sparing agent for treatment of sarcoidosis

A

Start sarcoidosis treatment with steroids (typically prednisone 20-40mg daily) x3-6 months, then start to taper

If can taper steroids to under pred 10mg daily can just continue the pred, but if tapering below pred 10mg causes recurrence of symptoms => add steroid-sparing agent (typically MTX, occasionally plaquenil)

70
Q

When to use MTX vs. plaquenil for sarcoidosis treatment?

A

MTX first line for sarcoid with cardiac involvement

Plaquenil (hydroxychloroquine) much weaker- can used as add on or for troublesome skin involvement or hypercalemia

71
Q

For pulmonary sarcoidosis (not extrapulmonary)- when to consider treatment

A

Minimal symptoms (Ex: cough alone)- consider ICS

Moderate disease with CXR stage II (nodal enlargement + parenchymal involvement), abnormal PFTs, dyspnea- oral steroids- typically prednisone 20-40mg daily x3-6 months

72
Q

Major drugs that cause drug-induced sarcoidosis-like reaction

A

Drug-induced sarcoid-like reactions (drug hypersensitivity with granuloma formation)-

immune checkpoint inhibitiors
interferons
TNFalpha antagonists: infliximab

73
Q

BAL neutrophilia (over 50%) seen in what aside from pulmonary infections?

A

BAL neutrophilia in infection, AIP, DAD, acute exacerbation in IPF

74
Q

Which IPFs to expect BAL lymphocytosis (over 25%)

A

Cellular NSIP, sarcoid, HP, LIP

75
Q

2 AIDS-defining malignancies

A
  1. Kaposi sarcom
  2. Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma
76
Q

Typical CT chest findings of pulmonary Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

Up to 30% of Kaposi’s can exist in the lungs without mucocutaneous involvement

  • peribronchial/perilymphatic ‘flame’-shaped densities
  • pleural effuions
  • lymphadenopathy
  • airway lesions
77
Q

At what CD4 count start to worry about the following

(a) PJP
(b) LIP
(c) Aspergillus

A

CD4 count

(a) PJP under 200
(b) LIP under 500- not strong association with lower CD4 count, suggesting need some degree of immune system activity present
(c) Aspergillus PNA under 50

78
Q

At what CD4 count start to worry about the following

(a) CMV PNA
(b) Histo/coccidio/toxo
(c) Disseminated TB

A

CD4 count

(a) CMV PNA under 50
(b) Disseminated histo and coccidio under 50, while toxo pneumonitis under 100
(c) Disseminated Tb under 200

79
Q

At what CD4 count to start to worry about:

(a) Pulmonary kaposi sarcoma
(b) Pulmonary crypto
(c) Disseminated coccidio

A

CD4 count

(a) Pulmonary Kaposi under 100
(b) Cryptococcal PNA under 200
(c) Disseminated coccidio and histo under 50

CM Pulmonary Boards (11 decks)

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