lung infections Flashcards

1
Q

how can you get pneumonia?

A
  • community acquired
  • hospital acquired
  • other e.g aspiration
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2
Q

what is the key way to diagnose community acquired pneumonia?

A

prompt assessment and CXR on admission

then consolidation on CXR

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3
Q

what are the common differentials for consolidation on CXR?

A
  • pneumonia
  • TB (usually upper lobe)
  • lung cancer
  • lobar collapse (blockage of bronchi)
  • haemorrhage
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4
Q

how can pneumonia be treated?

A
  • CURB 65 score to guide management and risk stratify. Refer to ITU if curb score high.
  • local antibiotic guidelines using CURB 65 and patient allergies
  • ABCDE approach, don’t ignore signs of sepsis
  • no delay with antibiotics or IV fluids if indicated
  • CXR, FBC, U&E, CRP and sputum culture
  • blood culture if febrile
  • high curb score, do atypical pneumonia screen - serology and urine legionella test
  • ABG if low sats
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5
Q

what fits into the CURB 65 scoring system?

A

CURB 65

C - confusion, MMT 2 or more points worse

U - urea >7.0

R - >30/min

B - < 90mmHg systolic or <60mmHg diastolic

65 - age over 65

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6
Q

what follow ups do you do for pneumonia?

A
  • HIV test
  • immunoglobulins
  • pneumococcal igG serotypes
  • haemophilus influenzae b igG
  • follow up in clinic for 6 weeks with a repeat CXR to ensure resolution
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7
Q

what are the causes of non resolving pneumonia?

A

CHAOS

C - complication e.g empyema, lung abscess

H - Host. immunocompromised.

A - antibiotics. inadequate dose, poor oral absorption.

O - organism. resistant or unexpected organic not covered by empirical antibiotics.

S - second diagnosis e.g PE, cancer, organising pneumonia.

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8
Q

what are the clinical features of tuberculosis?

A
  • fever and nocturnal sweats (drenching)
  • weight loss (weeks-months)
  • malaise
  • respiratory TB = cough, +/- purulent sputum, pleural effusion?
  • non respiratory TB = erythema nodosum, lymphadenopathy, meningitis, pericardial effusion. Systemic effects.
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9
Q

what are the differential diagnosis’ of haemoptysis?

A

infection

  • pneumonia
  • tuberclosis
  • bronchiectasis/CF
  • cavitating lung lesions (often fungal)

Malignancy

  • lung cancer
  • metastases

haemorrhage

  • bronchial artery erosion
  • vasculitis
  • coagulopathy

other
- PE

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10
Q

what are the risk factors for TB?

A
  • past history of TB
  • known history of TB contact
  • born in a country with high TB incidence
  • foreign travel to a country with high TB incidence
  • evidence of immunosuppression e.g organ transplant, HIV, IVDU, renal failure, malnutrition, low BMI, DM, alcoholism etc.
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11
Q

what are the management principles for respiratory TB?

A
  • ABCDE approach and aim to culture whenever possible
  • admit to side room and start infection control e.g masks
  • productive cough, 3x sputum samples for AAFB (mycobacterium) and TB culture (ideally early morning samples)
  • if no productive cough and pulmonary TB is suspected, consider bronchoscopy.
  • routine bloods and HIV + vit D levels
  • CT chest if pulmonary TB suspected but CXR and clinical features not typical
  • MRI Brain/spine if Millary TB suspected
  • if unsure if TB or pneumonia, treat for pneumonia while investigating TB still.
  • if patient highly unwell and v likely TB start anti-TB therapy asap after sputum samples sent.
  • TB culture can take 6-8 weeks so treatment is usually started before diagnosis confirmation.
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12
Q

what is used in anti TB therapy?

A
  • 4 antibiotics for the first 2 months
    RIPE = rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol
  • followed by 4 months on 2 antibiotics
    RI - rifampicin and isoniazid
  • Pyridoxine also given while on isoniazid as prophylaxis against peripheral neuropathy
  • treat for a minimum of 6 months in total
  • check baselines LFT and monitor closely, in some cases, directly observed therapy (DOT) done for compliance
  • provide leaflets on treatment and educate patient on ADRs
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13
Q

what are the ADRs of TB treatment?

A

Rifampicin - Hepatitis, rashes, febrile reaction, organs/red secretions, many DDI e.g with warfarin

Isoniazid - peripheral neuropathy, psychosis, rashes

pyrazinamide - hepatitis, rashes, vomiting, arthralgia

Ethambutol - retrobulbar neuritis

therefore must do vaseline visual acuity test and LFTs which must be monitored closely.

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14
Q

what is bronchiectasis?

A

chronic dilation of one or more bronchi.

the bronchi exhibit poor mucous clearance and there is predisposition to recurrent or chronic bacterial infection .

gold standard test = high resolution CT.

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15
Q

what are the causes of bronchiectasis?

A
  • post infective e.g whooping cough, TB
  • immune deficiency
  • genetic/mucocilary clearance defects - e.g CF, young syndrome, primary ciliary dyskinesia
  • obstruction e.g foreign body, tumour, extrinsic lymph node
  • toxic insult e.g gastric aspiration, toxic chemicals/gases
  • secondary immodeficiency e.g HIV
  • rheumatoid arthiritis
  • allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
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16
Q

what are the commonest organisms to cause bronchiectasis?

A
  • haemophilus influenzae
  • pseudomonas aerguinosa
  • moraxella catarrhalis

fungi e.g aspergilus, candida

non TB - mycobacteria

17
Q

how is bronchiectasis managed?

A
  • treat underlying cause
  • physiotherapy for mucus clearance
  • antibiotics according to sputum cultures/sensitivities for acute exacerbations
  • supportive - flu vaccine, bronchodilators if required
18
Q

what is cystic fibrosis?

A

an autosomal recessive disease leading to mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR).

This can lead to a multi system disease, most commonly affecting the respiratory and GI systems characterised by thickened secretions..

19
Q

how is CF diagnosed?

A

one or more of

  • history of CF in a sibling
  • or positive newborn screening test result

and

  • increase sweat chloride concentration (>60mmol) (SWEAT TEST)
  • or identification of two CF mutations
  • or demonstration of abnormal nasal epithelial ion transport.
20
Q

how does CF present?

A
  • meconium ileus in 15-20% of newborn CF infants. The bowel is blocked by sticky secretions. Signs of blockage include bilious vomiting, abdominal distension and delay in passing meconium.
  • intestinal malabsorption. in 90% of CF patients. Main cause is deficiency in pancreatic enzymes.
  • recurrent chest infection
  • newborn screening
21
Q

what are some features of cf?

A
  • nasal polyps
  • chronic sinusitis
  • steatorrhoea
  • osteoporisis
  • finger clubbing
  • male infertility
  • abnormal sweat secretions |(high chloride)
22
Q

what are some common CF complications?

A

1) resp infections. Needs aggressive therapy with physio and antibiotics. Patients usually on prophylactic antibiotics.

2) low body weight
- may be consequence of pancreatic insufficiency, therefore give pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy
- high calorie intake needed and supplements
- may need NG or PEG feeding

3) distal intestinal obstruction syndrome (DIOS)
- faecal obstruction in ileocaecum (as opposed to constipation which is whole bowel)
- due to insufficient prescription of pancreatic enzymes/non compliance, also salt deficiency/hot weather
- symptoms, palpable mass in RIF and AXR will show mass to aid diagnosis

4) CF related diabetes

23
Q

what lifestyle advice is given to patients with CF?

A
  • no smoking
  • avoid other CF patients
  • avoid people with colds/infections
  • avoid jacuzzis (psuedomonas)
  • clean and dry nebulisers throughly
  • avoid stables, compost or rotting vegetation (aspergillus fumigatus inhalation)
  • annual influenza immunisation
  • sodium chloride tablets in hot weather/vigorous exercise