LTC Basic Training

Question 1

What is the definition of Practicable?

Answer 1

Capable regardless of the circumstances or resources available to support an individual.

Individual’s abilities, limitations, and potentials

Question 2

What is the definition of Practical

Answer 2

Capability based on resources available to support an individual’s abilities and potential.

Question 3

What are the five CMS core values?

Answer 3

1. Public Service
2. Integrity
3. Accountability
4. Excellence
5. Respect

Question 4

What are the three primary survey core skills?

Answer 4

1. Resident centered, outcome-oriented information gathering.
2. Critical Thinking
3. Teamwork

Question 5

What is iactogenesis?

Answer 5

A problem caused by a treatment.

A caregiver causes a problem.

Question 6

Types of Interview status

Answer 6

INRUO
Interviewable, Non-Interviewable, Refused, Unavailable, Out of Facility

Question 7

What is a PASARR?

Answer 7

Pre-Admission Screening and Resident Review

Question 8

True or False:

The completed Form CMS-2567 is a public document providing readily available information about the facility for all stakeholders, including plaintiffs’ attorneys pursuing legal action against a facility.

Answer 8

True

Question 9

What is the final sample sized based on?

Answer 9

Facility census

Question 10

Residents in nursing homes must receive care and services necessary to achieve or maintain their highest ________________ level of well-being.

Answer 10

Practicable

Question 11

True or False:

If available, you should include in the inital pool at least one resident on transmission-based precautions.

Answer 11

True

Question 12

What Regulatory Reform took place in 2016?

Answer 12

ACA and IMPACT Act

Improving Medicare Post-Acute Care Transformation

Question 13

What does the new LTC survey process focus on?

Answer 13

Person-centered interventions
* Person-centered care
* Resident-centered outcomes
* Quality of Care and Quality of Life

Question 14

What is Quality of Care?

Answer 14

Fundamental principle that applies to all care and treatment provided to a resident. Based on the comprehensive assessment of a resident, the facility must ensure that residents receive treatment and care in accordance with professional standards of practice, the comprehensive person-centered care plan, and the residents’ choices.

Question 15

What is Quality of Life?

Answer 15

Fundamental principle that applies to all care and services provided to a resident. Each resident must receive and the facility must provide the necessary care and services to attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being, consistent with the resident’s comprehensive assessment and plan of care.

Question 16

What are the six mandatory facility tasks?

Answer 16

• Dining
• Infection control
• Sufficient and Competent Nurse Staffing
• SNF Beneficiary Protection Notification Review
• Kitchen
• Medication Administration
• Medication Storage and Labeling
• Resident Council Interview
• Quality Assessment and Assurance (QAA) and Quality Assurance and Performance Improvement (QAPI)

Question 17

Which mandatory facility tasks are all surveyors are assigned to?

Answer 17

• Infection control
• Dining
• Sufficient and Competent Nurse Staffing

One surveyor is responsible for completing the entire task

Question 18

What are the three Triggered Facility Tasks?

Answer 18

• Personal funds
• Environment
• Resident Assessment

For environment, only complete the applicable section of the CE Pathway

Question 19

When can facility tasks be completed?

Answer 19

Anytime during the survey except for QAA and QAPI which is done at the end of the survey.

Question 20

What are the three components that are essential for surveyors to use in determining the presence of IJ?

Answer 20

1. Noncompliance
2. Serious Adverse Outcome or Likely Serious Adverse Outcome
3. Need for Immediate Action

Question 21

What is “Noncompliance”?

Answer 21

An entity has failed to meet one or more federal health, safety and/or quality regulations

Question 22

What is “Serious Adverse Outcome or Likely Serious Adverse Outcome”?

Answer 22

As a result of the identified noncompliance, serious injury, serious harm, serious impairment or death as occured, is occurring, or is likely to occur to one or more identified recipients at risk.

Question 23

What is “Need for Immediate Action”?

Answer 23

The noncompliance creates a need for immediate corrective action by the provider/supplier to prevent serious injury, serious harm, serious impairment, or death from occurring or recurring.

Question 24

What are the seven parts of the survey process?

Answer 24

1. Off-site prep
2. Facility entrance
3. Inital Pool
4. Sample Selection
5. Investigation
6. Ongoing and other survey activities
7. Potential Citations

Question 25

What is the square footage requirements in multiple occupancy rooms?

Answer 25

80 square feet

Question 26

What is the square footage requirements in single occupancy rooms?

Answer 26

100 square feet

Question 27

How many hours of training does a CNA need every year?

Answer 27

12 hours

Question 28

How many beds must a facility have to employ a full-time social worker?

Answer 28

120 beds

Question 29

How many days notice must a provider give a resident when discharging them?

Answer 29

30 days

Question 30

The MDS assessment must be conducted within how many days after admission?

Answer 30

14 days

Question 31

When must a PASARR be completed?

Answer 31

Prior to admission

Question 32

What must a facility develop for each resident within 48 hours of admission?

Answer 32

Baseline care plan

Question 33

What CE Pathway should you use to investigate Quality of Care concerns that have no specific pathway?

Answer 33

The General CE Pathway

Question 34

What is the first and most important way of gathering information?

Answer 34

Observations

Question 35

For which residents should you do a limited record review for?

Answer 35

Newly admitted residents and all inital pool residents.