Lower limb Flashcards

1
Q

What are the movements of the hip joint?

A

1) Flexion/Extension
2) Abduction/Adduction
3) Medial/lateral rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Owing to the ________________________________ during development, the original dorsal/extensor surface of the lower limbs becomes _____________, while the ventral/flexor surface becomes ______________.

A

Medial rotation of lower limb through 180° →
i) dorsal/extensor → anterior
ii) ventral/flexor → posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is the body weight transferred to the lower limbs?

A

From vertebral column → sacroiliac joints → pelvic girdle
→ hip joints → femurs
→ knee joint → tibia
→ ankle joint → talus → tarsals + metatarsals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 3 bones that form each hip bone?

A

1) Ilium → socket/articulation with femoral head
2) Ischium → posteroinferior part of the acetabulum
3) Pubis → anterior part of acetabulum & anteromedial part of hip bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the constituent hip bones contributes the cup-like cavity/socket on the superolateral aspects of the hip bone for articulation with the head of the femur?

A

Ilium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are 4 components/features of the proximal end of the femur?

A

1) Head
2) Neck
3) Greater and lesser trochanters
4) Articular cartilage covering head except fovea for ligament of head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do the cause of pathological lateral rotation and medial of a lower limb differ?

A

Lateral rotation (foot pointing lateral) → Femoral/Hip fracture

Medial rotation (foot pointing medial) → posterior dislocation of the hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which is more common, anterior/posterior dislocation of the hip?

A

Posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The _____________ surface of the neck of the femur is completely intracapsular whereas the only the __________ of the _________ surface is intracapsular.

A

The anterior surface of the neck of the femur is completely intracapsular whereas the only the medial half of the surface posterior is intracapsular.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Most of the femoral shaft is smoothly rounded, except for ___________________________ which diverges inferiorly.

A

a prominent double-edge ridge on its posterior aspect: the linea aspera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The distal end of the femur ends in _____________________.

A

two spirally curved femoral condyles (medial and lateral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

On the femur, the _____________ may be felt at the superior part of the medial femoral condyle.

A

adductor tubercle, a small prominence of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the bone components to form the knee joint?

A

The femoral condyles articulate with the tibial condyles to form the knee joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the function of the angle of inclination of the femur?

A

Allows greater mobility of the femur at the hip joint because it places the head and neck more perpendicular to the acetabulum.

This is advantageous for bipedal walking; however, it imposes considerable strain on the neck of the femur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of joint is the hip joint?

A

a strong and stable multiaxial ball and socket joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The cup-shaped acetabulum is deepened by the ________________ which is made of ______________.

A

Deepened by acetabular labrum (made up of fibrocartilage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How would a pes anserine bursitis of the knee be differentiated from OA?

A

Palpable joint line
→ if tender → intra-articular → OA
→ if not tender → extra-articular → bursitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 3 points of attachment of the hip joint capsule?

A

1) Acetabular lumen (medial)
2) Intertrochanteric line
3) Posterior aspect of the neck of the femur (lateral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 2 layers of the hip joint capsule?

A

1) Outer longitudinal (retinacular)
2) Inner circular fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are 4 ligaments of the hip and their functions?

A

1) Ligamentum teres → carrier for the foveal artery

2) Iliofemoral → prevent hyper extension (strongest)

3) Pubofemoral → prevent overabduction of hip joint

4) Ischiofemoral → prevent hyperextension + limit medial rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are 4 factors that contribute to the stability of the hip joint?

A

1) Depth of acetabulum
2) Three ligaments (iliofemoral, pubofemoral, ischiofemoral)
3) Strength of the surrounding muscles
4) Length and obliquity of the neck of femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the cure for a flat foot?

A

Strengthening of posterior tibialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which muscles are involved in hip flexion?

A

1) Psoas major
2) Iliacus
3) Sartorius
4) Rectus femoris
5) Pectineus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which muscles are involved in hip extension?

A

1) Gluteus maximus
2) Hamstrings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which muscles are involved in hip abduction?

A

1) Gluteus medius
2) Gluteus minimus
3) Tensor fascia latae
4) Sartorius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which muscles are involved in hip adduction?

A

1) Adductor longus
2) Adductor brevis
3) Adductor magnus
4) Pectineus
5) Gracilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which muscles are involved in hip medial rotation?

A

1) Anterior fibres of gluteus minus
2) Anterior fibres of gluteus medius
3) Tensor fascia lata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which muscles are involved in hip lateral rotation?

A

1) Piriformis
2) Obturator internus
3) Obturator externus
4) Superior gemelli
5) Inferior gemelli
6) Quadratus femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe the innervation for the movements of the hip?

A

L2/3:
i) Flexion
ii) Adduction
iii) Medial rotation

L4/5:
i) Extension
ii) Abduction
iii) Lateral rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are 5 arteries that supply the hip joint?

A

1) Obturatory artery (artery → head)
2-3) Superior and inferior gluteal arteries (trochanteric & cruciate anastomosis)

Branches from profunda femoris:
4-5) Medial and lateral circumflex femoral artery (head + neck)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are 3 types of femoral neck fractures?

A

1) Intracapsular

Extracapsular:
2) Trochanteric
3) Sub-trochanteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a common cause of aseptic vascular necrosis of the hip joint?

A

Fracture of femoral neck
→ impingement/disruption of medial circumflex femoral artery
→ retinacular arteries torn
→ inadequate perfusion of femoral head
→ aseptic vascular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The most common demographic for femoral neck fractures?

A

Women > 60y
- osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a common cause and complication of posterior hip dislocation?

A

Car accident → femoral head forced out of acetabulum posteriorly
→ compression/stretching of sciatic nerve
→ paralysis of hamstrings and muscles distal to knee joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where does the ligamentum patella attach to?

A

Tibial tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where does the deltoid ligament attach to?

A

Medial malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The medial malleolus is (higher/lower) than the lateral malleolus.

A

The medial malleolus is higher than the lateral malleolus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What muscles of the leg are attached to the fibula?

A

All of the leg except Tibialis anterior, Gastrocnemius, and Plantaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

True or False: With the Tibia, the fibula transmits half the body’s weight to the foot.

A

False.
Fibula does not take part is transmission of body weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The patella is the largest ______ bone found in the tendon of ____________.

A

Sesamoid bone in quadriceps femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The apex of the patella faces (upwards/downwards) while the base faces (upwards/downwards).

A

Patella:
Apex downwards
base upwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the 2 articular surfaces of the posterior aspect of the patella and which articulates with the lateral femoral condyle?

A

Medial and lateral

Large lateral surface articulates with lateral femoral condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which direction does the patella dislocate in most commonly?

A

Laterally
- due to upwards and lateral pull by Quadriceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are 3 factors that prevent patellar lateral dislocation?

A

1) Most forward projection of lateral femoral condyle

2) More prolonged insertion of Vastus medialis to medial border than of Vastus lateralis to lateral border of Patella

3) medial pull exerted by medial patellar retinaculum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What type of joint is the knee joint?

A

Modified hinge joint
1) Condylar
- articulation of lateral and medial femorotibial condyles

2) Saddle
- Femoropatellar articulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What nerves innervate the knee joint?

A

1) Femoral
2) Tibial
3) Common peroneal
4) Obturator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the factors maintaining the stability of the knee joint?

A

1) Strength and actions of the surrounding muscles and tendons

2) Medial and lateral collateral ligaments maintain side to side stability

3) Cruciate ligaments maintain anteroposterior stability

4) Iliotibial tract helps in stabilising a partially flexed knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are 4 factors that make the knee joint structurally weak?

A

1) Incongruence of its articular surfaces

2) Tibial condyles are small and shallow to hold the large convex femoral condyles

3) Shallow articular surfaces of femur and patella

4) Outward angulation between the long axes of femur and tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the 3 bursae formed by the outpocketing of the synovial membrane of the knee joint?

A

1) Suprapatellar
2) Semimembranous
3) Popliteal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the extracapsular ligaments of the knee?

A

1) Ligamentum patellae
2) Lateral/Fibular collateral ligament
3) Medial/Tibial collateral ligament
4) Oblique popliteal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the intra-articular ligaments of the knee joint?

A

1) Anterior cruciate ligament
2) Posterior cruciate ligament
3) Meniscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

True or false: Only in a fully extended position, both cruciate ligaments of the knee are relaxed.

A

False.
Because of their oblique orientation, in every position one cruciate ligament, or parts of one or both ligaments, is tense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the 2 cruciate ligaments of the knee is weaker?

A

ACL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the function of the ACL?

A

1) Prevent posterior displacement of femur on tibia

2) Prevent hyperextension of knee joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The ACL, which has a relatively poor blood supply, arises from _______________ and extends to _________________.

A

Anterior intercondylar area of tibia (posterior to medial meniscus attachment)

posterior part of medial surface of medial condyle of femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the main stabilising factor of the femur when the knee is flexed and weight-bearing (eg. walking downhill)?

A

PCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the function of the PCL?

A

1) Prevents anterior displacement of the femur on the tibia (with tibia on ground)/ posterior displacement of tibia on femur (within tibia off ground)

2) Prevent hyperflexion of the knee joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The PCL arises from _____________ to the _________________.

A

Posterior intercondylar area of tibia

Anterior part of lateral surface of the medial condyle of the femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the menisci of the knee joint and how are they orientated?

A

Lateral and menisci are crescenteric plates of fibrocartilage on articulating surfaces of the tibia
- thicker at external margins (attached to fibrous capsule of knee joint), thinner unattached edges interiorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How are the movements of the 2 menisci coupled in knee movement?

A

Transverse ligament joins anterior edges of menisci, allowing them to move together during knee movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the functions of the menisci of the knee joint?

A

1) Deepen articular surface of tibia
2) Shock absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How are the medial and lateral menisci of the knee differentiated?

A

Medial:
- C-shaped
- broader posteriorly than anteriorly

Lateral:
- nearly circular
- smaller
- more freely movable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In the knee, what separates the lateral meniscus from the fibular/lateral collateral ligament?

A

Tendon of popliteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the 3 attachments of the medial meniscus of the knee joint?

A

Anterior/horn:
- anterior intercondylar area of tibia (anterior to ACL attachment)

Posterior:
- posterior intercondylar area (anterior to PCL attachment)

Medial:
- Deep surface of tibial collateral ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which of the menisci of the knee are more prone to injury and why?

A

Medial > later
because of its firm fixity to the tibial collateral ligament,and greater excursion during the rotatory movements. (eg. Twisting strain as in kicking a football with a slightly flexed knee)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How does the popliteus muscle protect the lateral meniscus?

A

medial fibres of popliteal pull the posterior horn of meniscus backward so that it is not crushed between the articular surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which of the cruciate ligaments of the knee is taut during flexion?

A

ACL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the sign associated with an ACL injury?

A

Anterior drawer sign
- ACL rupture → free tibia can slide anteriorly under femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the most common cause of a PCL injury?

A

Landing on tibial tuberosity when knee is flexed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What sign is associated with a PCL injury?

A

Posterior drawer sign
- PCL rupture → free tibia slides posteriorly under fixed femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which other ligaments usually rupture in conjunction with the PCL?

A

1) Tibial ligament
2) Fibular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Describe how the knee “locks” and “unlocks”.

A

Fully extended leg w foot on ground → medial rotation of femur on tibia → “locking”

Popliteus contract → lateral rotation of femur on tibia plateau → “unlock” → allow flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the benefit of “locking” the knee?

A

1) Makes lower limb a solid column → more adapted for weight bearing

2) Thigh and leg muscles can relax briefly without making knee joint too unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which muscles allow knee flexion?

A

Hamstrings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which muscles allow knee extension?

A

Quadriceps femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which muscles allow knee medial rotation?

A

1) Semitendinous
2) Semimembranosus
3) Popliteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which muscles allow knee lateral rotation?

A

Biceps femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the 3 points of articulation between the tibia and fibula?

A

1) Superior:
- plane synovial joint
- btwn head of fibula and lateral condyle of tibia

2) Middle
- fibrous joint
- interosseus membrane + ligament

3) Inferior
- syndesmosis fibrous joint
- strongest of all 3 joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the movements at the ankle joint?

A

Dorsi/plantarflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the type and articulations of the ankle joint?

A

Hinge joint

Above: Lower end of the tibia and 2 malleoli
Below: Body of tallus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What nerves supply the ankle joint?

A

1) Deep peroneal
2) Tibial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which of the muscles allow dorsiflexion at the ankle?

A

Mainly Tibialis anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which of the muscles allow plantarflexion at the ankle?

A

Mainly
1) Gastrocnemius
2) Soleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

In which movement is the ankle joint more stable, dorsiflexion or plantarflexion?

A

Dorsiflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are 4 factors maintaining stability of the ankle joint?

A

1) Close interlocking of its articular surfaces (tibiofibular mortise gripping the wedge shaped body of the talus

2) Strong medial and lateral collateral ligaments

3) Inferior transverse tibiofibular ligament (syndesmosis)

4) Tendons crossing in front and behind the ankle joint

85
Q

What is the most common form of ankle sprain when a plantarflexed foot is excessively inverted?

A

Anterior talofibular ligament

86
Q

What are the 3 ligaments of the ankle joint?

A

1) Anterior talofibular ligament
2) Posterior talofibular ligament
3) Calcaneofibular ligament

87
Q

What is a “march” fracture?

A

Metatarsal fracture

88
Q

Which toe does the line of axis of the foot pass through?

A

Second toe

89
Q

What is the type and articulations of the subtalar joint?

A

Synovial
- talus rests on articulates with the calcaneus

90
Q

What are the ligaments of the subtalar joint?

A

1) Medial
2) Lateral
3) Posterior
4) Interosseus
Talocalcaneal ligaments

91
Q

What are the movements at the subtalar joint?

A

Inversion/eversion

92
Q

What is the type and articulations of the transverse tarsal joint?

A

Compound joint:
- talocalcaneonavicular joint
- calcaneocuboid joint
- both joined transversely

93
Q

Where does surgical amputation of the foot occur?

A

Transection across the transverse tarsal joint

94
Q

What are the arches of foot?

A

1) Medial
2) Lateral
3) Transverse

95
Q

What are 3 differences between the medial and lateral arch of the foot?

A

Medial
- > pliant (due to talocalcaneonavicular and subtalar joints)
- higher
- > involved in propulsion

96
Q

What is the transverse arch of the foot formed by?

A

1) Cuboid
2) 3 Cuneiforms
3) Bases of metatarsals

  • medial and lateral arches serves as pillars for transverse arch
97
Q

What are 4 factors maintaining the medial arch of the foot?

A

1) Keystone
- Talus

2) Intersegmental ties
- Spring ligament
- Interosseus ligaments
- Interosseous talocalcaneal ligament

3) Tie beams
- plantar aponeurosis (medial part)
- abductor hallucis
- flexor hallucis brevis

4) Slings
- tibialis posterior
- flexor hallucis longus
- tibialis anterior tendons

5) Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament

98
Q

What are 4 factors maintaining the lateral arch of the foot?

A

1) Keystone
- cuboid

2) Intersegmental ties
- long and short plantar ligaments

3) Tie beams
- plantar aponeurosis (lateral part)
- intrinsic muscles of little toe

4) Slings
- fibularis brevis
- tertius tendons

99
Q

What are 4 functions of the arches of the foot?

A

1) Distribute the body weight to the weight bearing points of the sole

2) Shock absorber while jumping

3) Medial longitudinal arch provides a propulsive force during locomotion

4)Lateral longitudinal arch functions as a static support and helps in weight transmission

5) The concavity of arches protects the nerves and vessels of the sole

100
Q

What is a pes cavus?

A

High arched foot

101
Q

What is a pes planus?

A

Flat foot

102
Q

What are the boundaries of the facia lata?

A

Superior:
- front of thigh → anterior superior iliac spine
- inguinal ligament
- pubic tubercle

Inferiorly:
- front and sides of knee + capsule

Posterior:
- sacrum
- coccyx
- sacrotuberous ligament

Medial
- pubis
- pubic arch
- ischial tuberosity

103
Q

What are the components of the compartments of the thigh?

A

Posterior: (lateral and posterior septum)
i) Semimembranosus
ii) Semitendinosus
iii) Biceps femoris (long & short head)
iv) Sciatic nerve

Medial: (posterior and medial septum)
i) Adductor longus
ii) Adductor brevis
iii) Gracillis
iv) Adductor magnus
v) Obturator nerve

Anterior: (medial and lateral septum)
i) Vastus lateralis
ii) Vastus intermedius
iii) Vastus medialis
iv) Rectus femoris
v) Sartorius
vi) Femoral nerve

104
Q

What is the most common cause of a flat foot/pes planus?

A

Weakness of posterior tibialis

105
Q

What is the Iliotibial band and its function?

A

Thick band of fascia formed proximally at the hip by the fascia of the gluteus maximus, gluteus medius and tensor fasciae latae muscles

Stabilises knee (in both extension and partial flexion)

106
Q

What is the saphenous opening?

A

Oval opening in the upper mid part of the fascia lata of the thigh
- covered by cribiform fascia
- exit route for femoral hernia

107
Q

Which of the gluteal muscles are responsible for extension?

A

Gluteus maximus

108
Q

Which of the gluteal muscles are responsible for abduction?

A

1) Gluteus medius
2) Gluteus minimus

109
Q

Which of the gluteal muscles are responsible for rotation?

A

1) Piriformis
2) Obturator internus
3) Gemelli
4) Quadratus femoris

110
Q

Gluteus maximus:
Function:
Origin:
Insertion:
Innervation:

A

Gluteus maximus:
Function: extensor of hip joint/thigh

Origin:
1) Ilium (dorsal segment outer slope + posterior surface)
2) Sacrum (dorsal surface)
3) Coccyx side
4) Sacrotuberous ligament

Insertion:
1) Iliotibial tract (superficial fibres)
2) Gluteal tuberosity of femur (deep fibres)

Innervation:
Inferior gluteal nerve

111
Q

Gluteus medius:
Function:
Origin:
Insertion:
Innervation:

A

Gluteus medius:
Function:
Abduct hip joint/thigh

Origin:
Outer surface of ilium between anterior and posterior gluteal lines

Insertion:
Oblique ridge on lateral surface of greater trochanter

Innervation:
Superior gluteal nerve

112
Q

Gluteus minimus:
Function:
Origin:
Insertion:
Innervation:

A

Gluteus minimus:
Function:
Abduct hip joint/thigh

Origin:
Outer surface of ilium between anterior and inferior gluteal lines

Insertion:
Ridge on the anterior surface of greater trochanter

Innervation:
Superior gluteal nerve

113
Q

Where is the trochanteric bursa located?

A

Between Gluteus medius and minimus and greater trochanter of femur

114
Q

Piriformis:
Function:
Origin:
Insertion:
Innervation:

A

Piriformis:
Function:
lateral rotation of hip/thigh

Origin:
Pelvic surfaces of middle 3 sacrum pieces

Insertion:
Apex of greater trochanter

Innervation:
Ventral rami of S1,2

115
Q

Gemellus:
Function:
Origin:
Insertion:
Innervation:

A

Gemellus superior:
Function:
Lateral rotation of thigh/hip

Origin:
i) Superior: posterior surface of ischial spine
ii) Inferior: upper part of ischial tuberosity + lower part of lesser sciatic notch

Insertion:
Medial surface of greater trochanter

Innervation:
i) Superior: Nerves to obturator internus (L5, S1-2)
ii) Inferior: Nerves to quadratus femoris (L4-5, S1)

116
Q

Obturator internus:
Function:
Origin:
Insertion:
Innervation:

A

Obturator internus:
Function:
Lateral rotation of thigh/hip

Origin:
Pelvic surface of obturator membrane and surrounding bones

Insertion:
Medial surface of greater trochanter

Innervation:
Nerve to obturator internus (L5, S1)

117
Q

Quadratus femoris:
Function:
Origin:
Insertion:
Innervation:

A

Quadratus femoris:
Function:
Lateral rotation of hip/thigh

Origin:
Lateral border of ischial tuberosity

Insertion:
Quadrate tubercle on intertrochanteric crest and area below

Innervation:
Nerve to quadratus femoris (L5, S1)

118
Q

Which muscles prevents excessive tilt during swing phase on opposite side?

A

Contraction of gluteus minimus and medius on stance side

119
Q

Tensor fascia lata:
Function:
Origin:
Insertion:
Innervation:

A

Tensor fascia lata:
Function:
i) Abduct hip joint/thigh
ii) maintain extension of knee joint through Iliotibial tract

Origin:
Outer lip of iliac crest

Insertion:
Iliotibial tract

Innervation:
Superior gluteal nerve

120
Q

What is trendenlenburg’s sign?

A

Sagging of pelvis on healthy side when 1 foot is off the ground (paralysis of gluteus medius and minimus)

121
Q

What is the most common side of IM injections?

A

Gluteal region

122
Q

What is a common associated of sciatic injuries?

A

Foot drop

123
Q

What are the hamstring muscles?

A

Posterior compartment of thigh:
1) Semitendinosus
2) Semimembranosus
3) Biceps femoris
4) Adductor magnus (Ischial head)

124
Q

Hamstring muscles:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Hamstring muscles:
Function:
i) Flex knee
ii) Extend hip joint

Origin:
All ischial tuberosity

Attachment:
All into 1 of the bones of the leg

Innervation: Sciatic nerve
- all tibial part except short head of biceps (common peroneal part)

125
Q

What are 3 main actions of the hamstring muscles?

A

1) Chief flexors of knee joint
2) Hip extensors during walking on flat ground
3) Action restricts range of hip flexion when knee is extended (eg. toe touching)

126
Q

What are the muscles in the anterior compartment of the thigh?

A

Flexors of the hip:
1) Psoas major
2) Iliacus

Extensors of the knee: Quadriceps femoris
3) Rectus femoris
4) Vastus lateralis
5) Vastus medialis
6) Vastus intermedius

Adductor group:
7) Pectineus
8) Adductor longus
9) Adductor brevis
10) Adductor magnus

127
Q

What are 2 flexors of the hip joint?

A

1) Psoas major
2) Iliacus

128
Q

Psoas major:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Psoas major:
Function:
Flex hip joint

Origin:
Lumbar vertebrae

Attachment:
Lessor trochanter of femur

Innervation:
L1-4 ventral rami

129
Q

Iliacus:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Iliacus:
Function:
Flex hip joint

Origin:
i) Upper 2/3 of floor of iliac fossa
ii) Inner lip of iliac crest
iii) Upper surface of lateral part of sacrum

Attachment:
Less trochanter of femur

Innervation:
Femoral nerve

130
Q

Pectineus:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Pectineus:
Function:
Adduct thigh @ hip

Origin:
i) pecten pubis
ii) upper 1/2 of pectineal surface of superior ramus of pubis
iii) pectineus fascia

Attachment:
Lesser trochanter to linea aspera

Innervation:
i) femoral nerve
ii) anterior division of obturator nerve

131
Q

Adductor longus:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Adductor longus:
Function:
i) Adduct thigh
ii) Medially rotate thigh

Origin:
Body of pubis between crest & symphysis

Attachment:
Middle 1/3 of linea aspera

Innervation:
Anterior division of obturator nerve

132
Q

Adductor brevis:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Adductor brevis:
Function:
Adduct thigh

Origin:
i) Anterior body of pubis
ii) Outer inferior ramus of pubis between gracillis and obturator externus

Attachment:
i) Lesser trochanter to linea aspera
ii) Upper part of linea aspera lateral to pectineus

Innervation:
Obturator nerve (both anterior and posterior division)

133
Q

Adductor magnus:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Adductor magnus:
Function:
i) Adduct thigh
ii) Medially rotate thigh
iii) Extend hip joint

Origin:
i) Hamstring: inferolateral ischial tuberosity
ii) Adductor: outer ischiopubic ramus

Attachment:
i) medial margin of gluteal tuberosity
ii) linea aspera
iii) medial supracondylar line
iv) adductor tubercle

Innervation:
i) Hamstring: Sciatic nerve (tibial part)
ii) Adductor: obturator (posterior division)

134
Q

Where does the obturator nerve arise from and pass through to arrive at the tissues it innervates?

A

L2-4
through obturator canal

135
Q

What are the structures supplied by the obturator nerve?

A

Anterior division:
1) Hip joint
2) Pectineus
3) Adductor brevis
4) Adductor longus
5) Gracillis
6) Cutaneous branch to medial aspect of thigh

Posterior division:
7) Obturator externus
8) Adductor magnus
9) Knee joint (through adductor hiatus)

136
Q

Sartorius:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Sartorius:
Function:
i) Flex hip
ii) Flex knee
iii) Abduct thigh laterally → sitting position

Origin:
Anterior superior iliac spine

Attachment:
Upper part of medial surface of tibial shaft

Innervation:
Femoral nerve

137
Q

Gracillis:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Gracillis:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:
Obturator nerve

138
Q

What are the 4 adductors of the thigh/hip?

A

1) Pectineus
2) Adductor longus
3) Adductor brevis
4) Adductor magnus

139
Q

What the 4 components of the quadriceps femoris/extensors of the knee?

A

1) Rectus femoris
2) Vastus lateralis
3) Vastus medialis
4) Vastus intermedius

140
Q

Which nerve supplies the quadriceps femoris?

A

Femoral

141
Q

Rectus femoris:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Rectus femoris:
Function:
i) Flex hip
ii) Extend knee

Origin:
i) Straight head: upper half of anterior inferior iliac spine
ii) Reflected head: groove above acetabulum

Attachment:
Base of patella

Innervation:
Femoral nerve

142
Q

Vastus lateralis:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Vastus lateralis:
Function:
Extend knee

Origin:
i) upper intertrochanteric line
ii) anterior and inferior borders of greater trochanter
iii) lateral lip of gluteal tuberosity
iv) upper 1/2 of lateral lip of linea aspera

Attachment:
i) Base and upper 1/3 of lateral border of patella
ii) Knee joint capsule and iliotibial tract

Innervation:
Femoral nerve

143
Q

Vastus medialis:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Vastus medialis:
Function:
Extend knee

Origin:
i) Lower intertrochanteric line
ii) Spiral line
iii) Medial lip of linea aspera
iv) Upper 2/3 of medial supracondylar line

Attachment:
i) base and upper 2/3 of medial border of patella
ii) knee joint capsule

Innervation:
Femoral nerve

144
Q

Vastus intermedius:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Vastus intermedius:
Function:
Extend knee

Origin:
Upper 3/4 of anterior & lateral surfaces of femoral shaft

Attachment:
base of patella

Innervation:
Femoral nerve

145
Q

What spinal segments does the femoral nerve arise from?

A

L2-4

146
Q

What tissues does the femoral nerve supply?

A

1) Iliacus
2) Hip joint
3) Pectineus

Anterior division:
4) Sartorius
5) Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
6) Intermediate cutaneous nerve of thigh
7) Saphenous nerve

Posterior division:
8) Rectus femoris
9) Vastus lateralis
10) Vastus medialis
11) Vastus intermedialis
12) Articularis genu
13) Knee joint

147
Q

What structure(s) separates the lateral and posterior compartments of the leg?

A

1) Posterior intermuscular septum
2) Fibula

148
Q

What structure(s) separates the lateral and anterior compartments of the leg?

A

Anterior intermuscular septum

149
Q

What structure(s) separates the anterior and posterior compartments of the leg?

A

1) Interosseous membrane
2) Tibia

150
Q

What are the structures in the lateral compartment of the leg?

A

1) Peroneal longus
2) Peroneal brevis
3) Superficial peroneal nerve

151
Q

What are the structures in the anterior compartment of the leg?

A

1) Tibialis anterior
2) Extensor hallucis longus
3) Extensor digitorum longus
4) Deep peroneal nerve
5) Anterior tibial vessels

152
Q

What are the structures of the posterior compartment of the leg?

A

Deep:
1) Tibialis posterior
2) Flexor digitorum longus
3) Flexor hallucis longus
4) Peroneal vessels
5) Tibial nerve
6) Posterior tibial vessels

Superficial:
7) Soleus
8) Plantaris tendon
9) Gastrocnemius
10) Median cutaneous nerve

153
Q

What nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the leg?

A

Deep fibular nerve

154
Q

What is the function of the muscles within the anterior compartment of the leg?

A

1) Dorsiflexion
2) Extension

155
Q

Tibialis anterior:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Tibialis anterior:
Function:
i) Dorsiflex foot @ ankle
ii) Invert foot @ subtalar

Origin:
i) Upper 2/3 of lateral surface of tibia
ii) Adjoining part of interosseus membrane
iii) Distal part of lateral condyle of tibia

Attachment:
i) Medial cuneiform
ii) Adjoining part of 1st metacarpal

Innervation:
Deep fibular nerve

156
Q

Extensor digitorum longus:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Extensor digitorum longus:
Function:
i) Dorsiflex foot
ii) Extend lateral 4 toes @ MTPJ, PIPJ, DIPJ

Origin:
i) Lateral condyle of tibia
ii) Upper 2/3 of medial surface of fibula

Attachment:
Bases of middle and distal phalanges of lateral 4 toes

Innervation:
Deep fibular nerve

157
Q

Where are the sesamoid bones of the foot found?

A

On plantar surface of 1st toe/metatarsal

158
Q

Peroneus tertius:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Peroneus tertius:
Function:
i) Dorsiflex foot
ii) Evert foot

Origin:
i) Lower 1/4 of medial surface of fibula
ii) Adjacent part of interosseus membrane

Attachment:
Medial part of 5th metatarsal bone

Innervation:
Deep fibular nerve

159
Q

Extensor hallucis longus:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Extensor hallucis longus:
Function:
i) Dorsiflex foot
ii) Extend great toe

Origin:
i) middle 1/2 of medial surface of fibular shaft
ii) adjoining part of interosseous membrane

Attachment:
Base of distal phalanx of great toe

Innervation:
Deep fibular nerve

160
Q

Extensor digitorum brevis:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Extensor digitorum brevis:
Function:
i) Extend great toe @ MTPJ
ii) Extend 2-4th toe @ MTPJ and PIPJ

Origin:
Anterior part of superior surface of calcaneus

Attachment:
i) base of the proximal phalanx of the 1st toe
ii) middle phalanx of the three medial digits joining with the extensor digitorum longus tendon

Innervation:
Deep fibular nerve

161
Q

What nerve innervates the lateral compartment of the leg?

A

Superficial fibular nerve

162
Q

What are the functions of the muscles of the lateral compartment of the leg?

A

1) Evert foot
2) Plantarflex (weak)
3) Support lateral longitudinal arch of foot

163
Q

Peroneus longus:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Peroneus longus:
Function:
i) Evert foot
ii) Plantarflex (weak)
iii) Support lateral longitudinal arch of foot

Origin:
i) Fibular head
ii) Upper 2/3 of lateral surface of fibular shaft

Attachment:
i) Medial cuneiform
ii) Base of 1st metatarsal

Innervation:
Superficial fibular nerve

164
Q

Peroneus brevis:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Peroneus brevis:
Function:
i) Evert foot
ii) Plantarflex (weak)
iii) Support lateral longitudinal arch of foot

Origin:
Lower 2/3 of lateral surface of fibular shaft

Attachment:
Lateral side of base of 5th metatarsal

Innervation:
Superficial fibular nerve

165
Q

What are the muscles of the posterior compartment of the leg?

A

Superficial:
1) Gastrocnemius
2) Soleus
3) Plantaris

Deep:
4) Plantaris
5) Flexor digitorum longus
6) Flexor hallucis longus
7) Tibialis posterior

166
Q

What is the posterior compartment of the leg innervated by?

A

Tibial nerve

167
Q

How is the contracture of the gastrocnemius differentiated from that of the soleus?

A

Gastrocnemius cannot do plantarflexion when knee is flexed (unlike soleus)

168
Q

Gastrocnemius:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Gastrocnemius:
Function:
i) Chief plantarflexor of foot when knee is extended
ii) flex knee

Origin:
a) Medial head:
i) Posterosuperior surface of medial femoral condyle behind adductor tubercle
ii) Adjoining part of popliteal surface of femur
b) Lateral head:
Lateral surface of lateral femoral condyle

Attachment:
Middle 1/3 of posterior surface of calcaneum

Innervation:
Tibial nerve

169
Q

Soleus:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Soleus:
Function:
Plantarflexion when knee is flexed

Origin:
i) Posterior aspect of fibular head
ii) Upper 1/4 of posterior surface of fibular shaft
iii) Tendinous arch connecting tibia and fibula
iv) Soleal line and middle 1/3 of medial border of tibia

Attachment:
Middle 1/3 of posterior surface of calcaneum

Innervation:
Tibial nerve

170
Q

What is the tendocalcaneus/tendoachilles?

A

Conjoint tendon of:
1) Gastrocnemius
2) Soleus
3) Plantaris

171
Q

Why is the soleus muscle referred to as the “peripheral heart”?

A

Pumps venous blood back into the heart from the periphery

172
Q

Plantaris:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Plantaris:
Function:
just assists other muscles @ knee and ankle

Origin:
Lower part of lateral supracondylar line of femur

Attachment:
Middle 1/3 of posterior surface of calcaneum medial to tendocalcaneus

Innervation:
Tibial nerve

173
Q

What is the ankle jerk reflex and where is tapped?

A

Tests S1-2 tibial nerve
- tap calcaneal tendon → plantar flexion → normal

174
Q

Popliteus:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Popliteus:
Function:
i) unlock knee (lateral rotation of femur during initial knee flexion)
ii) prevent crushing of tibia and femoral condyles (pull lateral meniscus backwards)

Origin:
i) Popliteal groove on lateral surface of lateral femoral condyle
ii) Lateral meniscus (outer margin)
iii) Arcuate popliteal ligament

Attachment:
Medial 2/3 of triangular area above soleal line

Innervation:
Tibial nerve

175
Q

Flexor digitorum longus:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Flexor digitorum longus:
Function:
i) plantarflex lateral 4 toes
ii) plantarflex ankles
iii) maintains longitudinal arches of foot

Origin:
Upper 2/3 of medial part of posterior surface of tibia below soleal line

Attachment:
Base of plantar surface of distal phalanges of lateral 4 toes

Innervation:
Tibial nerve

176
Q

Flexor hallucis longus:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Flexor hallucis longus:
Function:
i) plantarflex great toe
ii) plantarflex ankle
iii) maintains medial longitudinal arch of foot

Origin:
i) Lower 3/4 of posterior surface of fibula behind medial crest
ii) Adjoining part of interosseus membrane

Attachment:
Base of plantar surface of distal phalanx of great toe

Innervation:
Tibial nerve

177
Q

Tibialis posterior:
Function:
Origin:
Attachment:
Innervation:

A

Tibialis posterior:
Function:
i) Plantarflex ankle
ii) Invert foot

Origin:
i) Upper 2/3 of lateral part of posterior surface of tibia
ii) Posterior surface of fibula in front of medial crest
iii) Upper 2/3 of posterior surface of interosseus membrane

Attachment:
i) All tarsal bones except talus
ii) 2-4 metatarsals
Innervation:

178
Q

What are the bounds of the tarsal tunnel?

A

Anterior: Medial malleolus
Posterior: Achilles tendon
Roof: Flexor retinaculum

179
Q

What are the contents of the tarsal tunnel?

A

Tom Dick And Very Nervous Harry
1) Tibialis posterior tendon
2) Flexor digitorum longus tendon
3) Posterior tibial artery
4) Posterior tibial vein
5) Tibial nerve
6) Flexor hallucis longus tendon

180
Q

What are the layers of the sole of the foot?

A

1) Thick, hairless skin
2) Superficial fascia
3) Deep fascia
- central, medial, lateral
4) Plantar aponeurosis
- thickened part of deep fascia

181
Q

What are 4 structures within the dorsum of the foot?

A

1) Extensor digitorum brevis
2) Fibularis tertius
3) Dorsal venous arch
4) Dorsalis pedis artery

182
Q

What are the muscles of the foot (in layers)?

A

1st:
1) Abductor digiti minimi
2) Flexor digitorum brevis
3) Abductor hallucis

2nd:
1) Flexor digitorum accessorius/Quadratus plantae
2) Lumbricals

3rd:
1) Flexor digiti minimi brevis
2) Adductor hallucis
3) Flexor hallucis brevis

183
Q

Where are the trunks of the medial and plantar nerves and arteries of the foot located?

A

Between 1st and 2nd layer
- below lumbricals and quadratus plantae

184
Q

Where is the plantar arch of the foot located?

A

Between third and fourth layer of foot
- above flexor digiti minimi, flexor hallucis brevis and adductor hallucis

185
Q

The dorsal interossei muscles facilitate (abduction/adduction) while the plantar interossei muscles facilitate (abduction/adduction).

A

Dorsal → Abduct (DAB)
Plantar → Adduct (PAD)

186
Q

What provides blood supply to the lower limb in case of ligation/disruption of the femoral artery?

A

Cruciate anastomosis
- union of:
i) medial circumflex
ii) lateral circumflex
iii) inferior gluteal artery
iv) first perforating artery

187
Q

What are the vessels that form the trochanteric anastomosis?

A

All common iliac:
1) Superior gluteal artery
2) Inferior gluteal artery
3) Lateral circumflex femoral artery

188
Q

What are the bounds of the femoral triangle?

A

Superior: inguinal ligament

Medial: Adductor longus

Lateral: Sartorius

189
Q

What are the contents of the femoral traingle?

A

Lateral to medial:
1) Femoral nerve
2) Femoral artery
3) Femoral vein

190
Q

What is the adductor canal?

A

Space between vastus medius and adductor longus

(Sartorius overlying)

191
Q

What are the contents of the popliteal fossa?

A

1) Tibial nerve
2) Popliteal vein
3) Popliteal artery
4) Lymph nodes

192
Q

What are the bounds of the popliteal fossa?

A

Superomedial:
- Semimembranosus
- Semitendinosus

Superolateral:
- Biceps femoris

Inferomedial and lateral:
- medial and lateral heads of gastrocnemius

Roof:
- popliteal fascia

Floor:
- popliteal surface of femur
- knee joint capsule
- popliteal ligament
- popliteal fascia

193
Q

Where is the posterior tibial pulse palpated?

A

Between posterior aspect of medial malleolus and medial border of calcaneal tendon

194
Q

Where is the dorsalis pedis palpated?

A

Between tendons of extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum at ankle joint

195
Q

What are the veins of the lower limb?

A

1) Superficial (SQ)
i/ii) great and small saphenous vein

2) Deep (deep to deep fascia)
- accompany all major arteries
- venae comitantes

3) Perforating veins
- blood flow from superficial → deep

196
Q

Describe the course of the great saphenous vein?

A

Medial marginal vein of foot dorsum
→ ascend anterior to medial malleolus
→ posteromedial to knee
→ ascend medially in thigh to perforating the muscular fascia
→ join common femoral vein @ saphenofemoral junction (few cm distal to inguinal ligament)

197
Q

Describe the course of the short saphenous vein.

A

Dorsal venous arch
→ ascend posterolaterally from behind lateral malleolus
→ ascend along middle of calf
→ ends in popliteal vein in posterior knee

198
Q

What is a saphenous cutdown used for?

A

Invasive method for emergency venous access

199
Q

Describe the physiological prevent of venous backflow in the lower limb.

A

Superficial → perforating → deep veins
i) perforating contains valves to prevent backflow

ii) In deep vein, blood propelled by skeletal muscular contraction to femoral vein

ii) In deep vein, arterial pulsation helps blood to move

200
Q

What are varicose veins?

A

Pathologically enlarged superficial veins due to valvular incompetency that allows blood flow from deep veins → perforating → superficial

201
Q

What are the nerves that innervate the lower limb?

A

1) Femoral nerve
2) Obturator nerve
3) Sciatic nerve (tibial and common fibular divisions)
4) Ventral rami → lumbar plexus (L1-L4) + Sacral plexus (L4-S4)

202
Q

What is a patellar tendon reflex and what does it assess?

A

Tap patellar ligament → leg extend → L2-4 ok
(controlled by muscle spindle in the quadriceps femoris)

203
Q

What is the most common cause of sciatica?

A

Bulging/herniated disc
- also piriformis syndrome

204
Q

How does the myotome of the superficial and deep peroneal nerve differ?

A

Superficial: lateral compartment of leg (everters)

Deep: anterior muscles of leg (dorsiflexors of ankle, extensors of toes)

205
Q

What is the most common sign of a common fibular nerve/peroneal nerve injury?

A

Foot drop
eg. fracture of fibula
a) paralysis of dorsiflexors of ankle and evertors of foot (foot drop)
b) loss of sensation on anteromedial leg and dorsum of foot

206
Q

What is equinovarus?

A

Foot abnormality:
- foot drop & everted

207
Q

What is calcaneovalgus?

A

Foot abnormality:
- dorsiflexed and everted

208
Q

How can a radiculopathy be diagnosed?

A

1) MRI
good for looking at soft tissues
2) CT scan
visualise, helps to rule out kidney stones (one of the dy dx diagnosis)
3) EMG electromyography
evaluates function of skeletal muscles & nerves that control these muscles, dorm of electrodiagnostic testing

209
Q

How is hip joint pain referred to the knee?

A

Both within the L3 dermatome

210
Q

What is the pathognonomic physical examination finding of a deep vein thrombosis

A

Medial joint line of the knee draw one line down 10cm measure calf circumference >2cm diff between both sides

Best clinical feature to identify DVT

211
Q
A