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longitude > Longitude > Flashcards

Longitude Flashcards

1
Q

Max Xwind contaminated RWY more than 150’

A

15 Kts

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2
Q

Min speed RVSM

A

190 Kts

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3
Q

VMO below 8,000’

A

290

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4
Q

Max tire ground speed

A

195

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5
Q

How often can you start APU?

A

6/10 6 times
Take a break for 1 hr

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6
Q

Unsuccessful APU start

A

-Try 3 times.
-Take a 20’ break.
- Try 2 more times
- Take 1 hr break

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7
Q

Max GPU voltage

A

30V

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8
Q

What approach category is the Longitude?

A

Cat C

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9
Q

Min speed maneuvering flaps up

A

175 Kts

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10
Q

When is the last time to use FMS on final approach?

A

3 NM or 1000’ AGL

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11
Q

Min temp APU start

A

-20C

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12
Q

Max tailwind engine start

A

16 Kts

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13
Q

What is limited with tailwinds above 10 Kts or Xwind above 25 Kts?

A

Power setting around 50% N1

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14
Q

Wingspan

A

69 feet

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15
Q

What is the PF call out at the FAF with approaches with no vertical guidance?

A

Set next altitude

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16
Q

What are the actions at single engine FRA?

A
  • Altitude hold
  • Flaps up at V2+20
  • Accelerate to 185 Kts
  • FLC
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17
Q

PM call out during lateral approaches at FAF?

A

FAF

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18
Q

PF call out when ending circle

A

Leaving MDA

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19
Q

When to set missed app altitude during ILS?

A

Glide slope intercept

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20
Q

What means the first T in TEST to communicate with pax?

A

Type of emergency

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21
Q

What means the E in TEST to communicate with pax?

A

Evacuate

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22
Q

What means the S in TEST to communicate with the pax?

A

Brace signal

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23
Q

What means the last T in TEST to communicate with the pax?

A

Time

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24
Q

When is FRA during a go around?

A

1000 feet

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25
Q

How do you calculate rate of climb?

A

GS X gradient

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26
Q

Can we depart in freezing rain?

A

Light only

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27
Q

Can we fly in freezing drizzle?

A

Yes

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28
Q

What to announce at 300’ AGL during circling?

A

Landing

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29
Q

What is LNAV+V?

A

LNAV with advisory angle.
Watch for step down altitudes

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30
Q

Length of runway centerline markings

A

Stripes 120’
Gap 80’

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31
Q

What do you set in the altitude selector for all RNAV’s approaches?

A

Missed approach

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32
Q

Emer lights armed. What does pax safety button illuminates when pressed?

A

-Smoking sign
- Emer lights
- 2 chimes

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33
Q

What happens when pressing fire switch?

A
  • Shutdown fuel
  • Shutdown hydraulics
  • Signal FADEC to inhibit ignition
  • Disable generators
  • Disable TR’s
  • Arm fire bottles
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34
Q

How long before APU shuts down for fire when unattended?

A

11 seconds

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35
Q

When to set O2 masks on EMER or 100%?

A

EMER-Fire

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36
Q

Go around call out

A

Go around/power set//Flaps 2

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37
Q

Go around call out when positive rate

A

Gear up
Set missed approach altitude
VS or FLC

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38
Q

Call out when stall completed

A

Inadvertent stall QRH

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39
Q

Flaps failed while approaching airport. Name the checklist

A

Flaps fail approach QRC

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40
Q

Flaps failure with gear down checklist name

A

Flaps fail landing QRC

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41
Q

Engine failed in cruise checklist name

A

Inflight engine shutdown QRC

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42
Q

Engine failed during approach checklist name

A

Engine inop approach QRC

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43
Q

Name checklist when engine failed during landing

A

Engine inop landing QRC

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44
Q

What does PF says when course alive announced by PM during RNAV?

A

(…) displayed

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45
Q

What does PF say when PM announces course alive during approach to DDA?

A

Set minimums

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46
Q

What means VFTO?

A

Final T/O speed

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47
Q

When does EMER lights come on?

A
  • 5G’s impact
  • loss of main DC
  • Switch ON
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48
Q

How long does EMER lights stay ON with EMER bus?

A

60 minutes

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49
Q

How long the EMER lights stay ON with pax power only?

A

10 minutes

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50
Q

What does ELEC do?

A

Connects mission bus to EMER bus

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51
Q

What bus does APU connects to?

A

L EMER bus

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52
Q

What bus does the GPU connects to?

A

R EMER bus

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53
Q

What means amber light by stby power switch?

A

Stby battery powering

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54
Q

What buses does the bus tie connect?

A

EMER-EMER

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55
Q

What happens to APU generator when starting L engine?

A

Drops off line

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56
Q

Where do you install child seat?

A

Fwd facing seat

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57
Q

PF call out at 100’ above TDZE during IMC approach

A

Decision

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58
Q

PF call out at VDP

A

VDP

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59
Q

How long pitot heat remains hot on EMER?

A

60’

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60
Q

Checklist name for difference of air speeds

A

Total loss/ unreliable airspeed QRH

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61
Q

When would you use dump switch?

A

Pressurized on ground
Smoke removal
Ditching

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62
Q

TR’s are main DC or EMER?

A

Main DC

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63
Q

Are GTC’s main DC or EMER?

A

Main DC

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64
Q

When should TR’s be checked?

A
  • First flight
  • Maintenance
  • Contaminated rwy
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65
Q

What is GEA?

A

Garmin engine interface

Communicates between Garmin and aircraft

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66
Q

How to do noise abatement?

A
  • 180 Kts
  • VS 1500 FPM
  • 70%N1 at 400’
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67
Q

How long can batteries power EMER bus?

A

60 minutes

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68
Q

What speed for air start?

A

250 to 320 Kts

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69
Q

Max glide speed

A

195 Kts

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70
Q

Which bus powers the STBY display in normal condition?

A

R mission bus

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71
Q

When should fuel recirc pump be off?

A
  • Low fuel
  • when boost pump ON
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72
Q

How is FADEC powered?

A

EMER bus until 45%N2

Then

PMA’s

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73
Q

How long is auto power reserve?

A

10 minutes

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74
Q

How long is manual power reserve?

A

5 minutes

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75
Q

When does APR activates?

A
  • Throttles in T/O
  • FADEC detected engine failure
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76
Q

Drift down speed
(Min sink)

A

165 Kts average

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77
Q

What does rudder stby system do?

A

Provides Hydraulic pressure to system A side as a back up if that system fails.

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78
Q

What uses hydraulic?

A
  • NWS
  • Gear/brakes
  • Spoilers
  • TR’s
  • Rudders
  • Power transfer unit
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79
Q

Pitch trim runaway CB

A

LP/ L3

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80
Q

Trying to do Stick shaker test, but button grayed out

A

Check control lock disengaged

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81
Q

When do you use CDFA?

A

Non précision with no vertical guidance

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82
Q

CDFA criteria’s

A
  • published straight in
  • published descent angle
  • local altimeter
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83
Q

T/O was aborted. When can you depart again?

A

10 minutes

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84
Q

What does fuel recirc do?

A

Automatically pumps fuel to outboard of each wing to distribute fuel temp

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85
Q

What means amber ACM O’TEMP?

A

ACM failed.
Heat exchanger mode will automatically come on.

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86
Q

What happens when moving ECS switch to HEAT EXCHG ONLY?

A

Bypass of automatic temp control.
No air to wemacs.

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87
Q

How is the power to the windshields converted to AC?

A

6 converters in the nose

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88
Q

What is not working while being on mission bus?

A
  • Auto pressurization
  • ice protection
  • external lights
  • flaps
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89
Q

What bus is the most to the least critical?

A

1- EMER
2- Mission
3- Main

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90
Q

R generator failed. Can the left generator still powers R windshield thru bus tie?

A

No.
Each generator controls its own windshield

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91
Q

Besides interior bus, what have you lost with Amber LOADSHED L/R?

A

Respective side window

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92
Q

What happens to interior buses with amber LOADSHED?

A
  • Interior bus 2 automatically shed
  • interior bus 1 has 5’ delay.
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93
Q

What does the gravity Xflow do?

A

Secondary mean of X-feeding

Side slip with ball to low tank

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94
Q

What does BLEED ISOLATE do?

A

Controls wing X-flow and manifold isolation valve

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95
Q

When do you use the BLEED ISOLATE to X-flow?

A

Single engine

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96
Q

What bus powers the L windshield?

A

L mission bus

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97
Q

What bus powers the R windshield?

A

R main bus

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98
Q

What is inop if you lose hydraulic system A?

A
  • L TR
  • Outboard spoilers
  • Inboard brakes
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99
Q

What is inop if you lose hydraulic B?

A
  • R TR
  • Normal gear operation
  • Midboard spoilers
  • Outboard brakes
  • NWS
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100
Q

What can you do if the speed brakes are jammed open?

A

-Disengage autothrottles
- move a throttle to CLB detent

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101
Q

When do you get red cabin altitude?

A

When cabin altitude is above 9,800’ or 14,800’ in high elevation mode

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102
Q

What do you do if you get a amber A/I WING COLD message?

A

Disengage autothrottles and increase power affected side.
200 Kts min.

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103
Q

When do you get amber cabin altitude?

A

Cabin altitude is above 8,500’

Or above 9800’ in high elevation mode for more than 30’

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104
Q

What means amber FUEL TRANSFER ON?

A
  • fuel has been on for more than 10’ (fuel leak?)
  • Imbalance of 60 pounds
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105
Q

What will you do first with a amber GEAR DOOR OPEN message?

A

Limit speed to 230 Kts

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106
Q

What baro mins for LNAV only?

A

DDA

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107
Q

What baro mins for LP?

A

DDA

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108
Q

What means white CABIN ALTITUDE?

A
  • High elevation mode when cabin altitude above 8,000’ and aircraft below 24,500’
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109
Q

Engine starter limitation

A

3 times 15’ cool down

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110
Q

What is the hydraulic depressurization valve do?

A
  • Decreases the pump output in cases of high temp
  • Reduce the load on the engine for air start
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111
Q

On what system hydraulic is the NWS?

A

System B

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112
Q

What system hydraulic is the landing gear?

A

System B

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113
Q

What does EMER lights illuminates when arming the emer lights?

A
  • 4 seat lights
  • 6 EXIT signs
  • evacuation path
  • flood light in lav
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114
Q

What should you verify when turning on the batteries and the EMER lights armed?

A

Lights should extinguish

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115
Q

How do you do the ice protection check?

A
  • Display anti-ice synoptic
  • L&R engine buttons ON then OFF
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116
Q

What speed is VFTO?

A

185 Kts

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117
Q

How tall is the aircraft?

A

20 feet

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118
Q

What is the Longitude wing sweep angle?

A

31.8 degrees

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119
Q

Does the CAS “bag door open” knows if the door is locked or not?

A

No. Proximity switch

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120
Q

How many pounds of baggage on floor and L shelves?

A

750 Lbs

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121
Q

How many pounds of baggage on R side shelves?

A

250 Lbs

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122
Q

Why is turning OFF Stby display in flight creates Dutch roll?

A

Due to fly-by-wire requirements for the rudder on EMER, the STBY power check looks for yaw damper indications

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123
Q

Define V2

A

The speed you need to be at, 35’ at the end of the RWY.

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124
Q

Define Vapp

A

Landing approach climb speed with gear up and flaps 2

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125
Q

Define Zero Fuel Weight

A

Basic empty weight + payload.

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126
Q

What should you do with a total loss or unreliable airspeed above FL 250?

A
  • Power idle
  • Pitch 2.5 degrees
  • AOA 0.4
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127
Q

What should you do with total loss or unreliable airspeed below FL 250?

A
  • Power 70%
  • Pitch 0
  • AOA 0.4
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128
Q

What means VRP?

A

Visual report points

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129
Q

What does a GCU do?

A

Overvoltage/undervoltage
Auto selection/regulates

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130
Q

How many amps do the HYD GEN provide?

A

200 amps/ 29 V

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131
Q

What is a surge tank?

A

At each wingtip, captures overflow fuel during maneuvers, expansion or overflow valves fail during refueling

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132
Q

How many pounds is low fuel?

A

500 per wing

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133
Q

How many PSI do you pull with a red brake fail message displays?

A

700 PSI dry
400 PSI wet

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134
Q

Max engine generator output

A

500 amps air
400 amps ground

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135
Q

How many smoke detectors in baggage compartment?

A

2 optical

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136
Q

Pitch/roll is disconnected. Who controls what?

A

LP: L elevator and spoilers
RP: R elevator and ailerons

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137
Q

How many fire extinguishers and where are they located?

A

1 behind copilot
1 in FWD closet
1 in rear cabin

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138
Q

When can we not use autopilot?

A

Comparison monitors
Reversionary mode
AHRS failure
Severe icing

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139
Q

What checklist do you call for engine fire on the ground?

A

Evacuation QRC

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140
Q

What is in the hopper tank?

A

Fuel pumps: primary ejector and electrical

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141
Q

How does the hopper tank remains full?

A

Scavenger pumps

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142
Q

What do you do with red wind shear?

A
  • Hand fly
  • Pitch 7.5 degrees.
  • Full PWR
  • Manual reserve ON
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143
Q

What are two things the EDM will not do, but still required for the emergency descent?

A

Squawk 7700 and speed brakes extension

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144
Q

What is cabin altitude at FL450?

A

5,950 +-225 at FL 450

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145
Q

What do you do with a red AT HOLD FAIL on T/O?

A

Abort

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146
Q

What do you do with a amber fuel imbalance?

A

Check if fuel leak first. Then balance

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147
Q

What is the 2nd thing to go on go-around after moving throttles fwd?

A

TOGA button

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148
Q

At what fuel flow should you abort start?

A

400

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149
Q

Max ITT for start

A

When it’s red!

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150
Q

What happens when you press the RUN/STOP button for start?

A
  • FADEC configures valves to provide bleed air
  • Turn on boost pump
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151
Q

What happens when you press starter at 32 PSI?

A

FADEC sends fuel to combustor

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152
Q

What happens when N2 reaches 46% during start?

A

FADEC cuts off APU bleed air

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153
Q

Why does the use of power reserve requires a logbook entry?

A

Equivalent to 5 engine cycles and 10 hrs of operation

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154
Q

How many igniters are used during start?

A

Normal start: single
Airborne restart: both

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155
Q

What does PMA DO?

A

Powers FADEC above 45% N2

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156
Q

How is max reverse determined by FADEC?

A

TLA and airspeed.

(IE 68% at 65, and must be IDLE at 45%)

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157
Q

Can you manually change FADEC?

A

No, but you can see active FADEC in propulsion page of GTC.

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158
Q

What should you do with pitot heat on the ground in icing conditions?

A

Must be ON for 15 sec within 1’ of T/O

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159
Q

Why is auto reserve switch guarded?

A

Provides single engine training without activation

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160
Q

When should you abort start?

A
  • 20 seconds, no ITT
  • 30%N2, no oil pressure
  • 50 seconds, no idle
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161
Q

Why do we start the R engine first?

A

To not shutdown AC twice, due to location of the isolation valve

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162
Q

Max ITT before restarting engine again

A

450

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163
Q

Oil consumption

A

1 qt for 25 hrs

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164
Q

Min oil temp to move throttles out of idle, and T/O

A

10 and 15 C respectively

165
Q

How many fire detection elements are in each engine, and what is their names?

A

4 thermistor

166
Q

Why moving the flow button to high for baggage fire?

A

Increase recirc fan

167
Q

How is bleed leak detected?

A

Detect loops with eutectic salt elements and resistance devices

168
Q

When does pitot heat comes on?

A

Based on TLA/ Wow/ speed

169
Q

What are the sources of bleed air?

A
  • Any of the 3 engines
  • hopper cart
170
Q

What does the ENG BLEED buttons do?

A

Control HP Valves

171
Q

What is service air?

A

Decrease pressure and temp from the bleeds to be use by pneumatic system

172
Q

What happens if you press a bottle armed switch for fun?

A

Nothing. Must be armed first

173
Q

What is in the Air Cycle Refregeration Pack?

A

ACM and heat exchanger

174
Q

Why do we turn off both PRESS SOURCE buttons on landing after a ACM O’TEMP?

A

To have all bleed air available in case of go around

175
Q

What should the PM do with a red windshear?

A

Press manual power reserve

176
Q

When do we use SAT?

A

Ground

177
Q

What happens to the outflow valve when losing electrical?

A

Spring loaded closed

178
Q

What kind of door seal?

A

Passive. Use differential pressure across blade

179
Q

Max normal pressurization PSI

A

10.2

180
Q

How many mode for outflow valve?

A

Auto/manual

181
Q

When does EDM works?

A
  • Above 30,000
  • Autopilot ON
  • Cabin 14,700
182
Q

What means AVAIL?

A

Looking for voltage.

183
Q

What closes when you turn the batteries ON?

A

Relay between HOT BATT bus and EMER bus

184
Q

Bus tie is usually open on the ground. When does it closes?

A
  • Start button
  • single source of pwr online
185
Q

When does bus tie automatically open on the ground?

A

-2nd engine start complete
- APU start complete
- primary source of power on both buses
- over current

186
Q

Why turning on batteries does not affect bus tie?

A

Not a primary source of power

187
Q

When do motive flow valves closes?

A
  • Start
  • Fuel transfer
188
Q

Do you need main DC to supply fuel? Any exceptions?

A

No except start/ low pressure/ Fuel transfer

189
Q

When would you see boost pump ON amber indication on the switch?

A
  • Low fuel
  • Manual selection
190
Q

What bus powers dump switch?

A

Main DC

191
Q

What are the two pressurization system?

A

Auto and manual

192
Q

What position is the outflow valve during taxi and when will it close?

A

Start closing with main cabin closed to lower cabin 200’ to prevent fluctuations

193
Q

What are the main accumulators for?

A

Dampen pressure spikes during high flow demands

194
Q

How does green disc gets punctured?

A

When one or two O2 cylinders exceeds 2500 PSI

195
Q

Where should lap babies sit?

A

Seat 3 and 4. (Rear facing toward front)

196
Q

When does O2 pressure becomes yellow in summary page?

A

400 PSI

Will never T/O yellow as 610 is lowest with no pax

197
Q

What does the plane do on EDM?

A
  • Descend via FLC and MMO-10 Kts
  • 90 turn left
  • Altitude 15,000’
  • AT’s idle
198
Q

Max cabin altitude in auto and manual mode

A
  • 13,700 in AUTO
  • 14,200 in MANUAL
199
Q

Where do you read O2 levels?

A

Summary or preflight page

200
Q

How many masks?

A

12 in cabins and 3 in cockpit

201
Q

Until what altitude does mask in N position dilutes O2?

A

27,000’

202
Q

Besides windshields, what else uses AC power?

A

Cabin like microwave and coffee machine

203
Q

How many actuators for the stab deice?

A

10 on top, 10 at the bottom of each elevators

204
Q

What heats up when you turn on engine anti-ice?

A

TT2 probes and engine lips

205
Q

Why do we increase power with amber ENGINE VIBRATION in icing?

A

To remove ice from nose spinner (not deiced)

206
Q

How is back icing eliminated?

A

High temp bleed air evaporative system

207
Q

What powers EMEDS?

A

Main bus

208
Q

What does pitot heat button activates?

A
  • 3 pitot tubes
  • Static ports
  • AOA vanes
  • RAT probes
209
Q

What will happen with a amber A/I WING O’TEMP message?

A

Over temp protection will close A/I valve and message will cycle

210
Q

What is prohibited above FL 250, single engine?

A

Wing anti-ice

211
Q

What min temp for brakes before T/O, and where do we see this info?

A

65C on flight controls page

212
Q

How many accumulators in hydraulic system?

A

9

213
Q

How many sweeps with NWS steering accumulator?

A

1 on each side

214
Q

What does spoilers accumulators do?

A

Allow all 6 panels to open on touchdown

215
Q

Where are the heat exchangers located and what do they do?

A

Wing tank.

Cools fuel/ Warm hydraulic

216
Q

What are the steering angles?

A

Slightly rounded: 10 degrees with rudders, 80 degrees with tiller for a total of 90 degrees

217
Q

Where are the gears downlocks?

A

Inside each gear actuators

218
Q

What is brake fail landing distance higher dry than wet?

A

Wet already includes higher wet perf numbers, and therefore, shows a shorter penalty

219
Q

Can the APU supply bleed air?

A

Yes up to 15,000’

220
Q

How is the pneumatic system tested?

A

Automatically by the avionics system

221
Q

Max temp to use anti-ice

A

15C

222
Q

What prevents wing anti-ice to open on the ground?

A

TLA less than 15 degrees

223
Q

How to remember which hydraulic system each brake is on?

A

Pictures MLG, with B-A-A-B

224
Q

When does gear warning activates?

A
  • Flaps full
  • Below 500’ AGL
  • AOA less than 0.4
225
Q

What speed is the anti skid effective?

A

10 to 200 Kts

226
Q

If departing at max gross weight, how much burn before landing?

A

6,000 Lbs

227
Q

What does PTCU AUX A or B gives you?

A

AUX pump

228
Q

What does PTCU do?

A
  • Transfer hydraulic (unless low volume on that side)
  • AUX pump
  • Generator powering EMER and MISSION buses
229
Q

What’s in the gear box?

A

F G H P S

  • Oil and fuel filters
  • Generators
  • HMU
  • Hydraulic pump
  • PMA’s
  • Starters
230
Q

What means HTF in Honeywell HTF7700?

A

Honeywell Turbofan rated at 7,665 rounded up.
Hence the 7700

231
Q

What powers the RAT probes?

A

DC-DC converters

232
Q

Name checklist for engine failure before V1

A

Engine failure during T/O QRH

233
Q

When does anti-skid come on during landing?

A

3 seconds after touchdown

234
Q

How long can you leave the batteries ON before losing power?

A

20 minutes

235
Q

What speed is LOPI?

A

Below 400’ to 50 Kts

236
Q

TOPI speeds

A

80 Kts to 400’

237
Q

What bus powers TT2 probes?

A

Mission bus

238
Q

What is in the Air Cycle Refrigeration Pack?

A
  • ACM
  • Heat exchangers
  • Water separator
  • TCV
239
Q

Will automatic temp still work with ECS knob on ACM only?

A

Yes

240
Q

What does the NO T/O logic looks at?

A

Start throttles quadrant bottom right
- Flaps
-Trims
- Control lock
- Parking brakes
- Spoilers

241
Q

What are the spoilers angle?

A
  • 35 degrees
  • 17.5 degrees
  • Ground: 60 degrees
242
Q

What lines can flight controls page display for spoilers?

A
  • 60
  • 35
  • 17.5
243
Q

What do you do with secondary trim runaway?

A

Turn it OFF

244
Q

Does Needles turn green automatically for BC?

A

No.

245
Q

How do you prepare for a BC on autopilot panel?

A
  • HDG
  • Select BC green needles
  • Hit BC
246
Q

What hydraulic system is emergency gear system?

A

A

247
Q

Engine restarted in flight. How long to keep at idle?

A

7 minutes

248
Q

When will the baggage compartment lights blink?

A

When the masks have dropped due to a high cabin altitude

249
Q

Why does amber GEAR DOOR OPEN illuminates with an emergency gear extension?

A

The MLG inboard doors can not be retracted.

250
Q

What are the oxygen cylinders?

A

115 cubic foot (L) & 77 (R)

251
Q

How many hours can you fly with the oil lvl in the no dispatch band?

A

10 hrs

252
Q

How many gallons of waste and water in the lav?

A

Waste: 6.4

Water: 12.5

253
Q

What buses do the hydraulic generator powers?

A

EMER and mission bus

254
Q

What bus powers PTCU?

A

R EMER bus

255
Q

How to remember which hydraulic system controls spoilers?

A

Looking at spoilers: A-B-B-A

256
Q

When do you have to turn wing and stab anti-ice?

A
  • In icing
  • Speed less than 190 Kts
257
Q

Define severe icing

A

When ice forms behind protected area

258
Q

What are the various PSI numbers for pressurization?

A

9.6 Normal
10 Negative pressure relief
10.2 Red CABIN DELTA P

259
Q

What tests are being conducted during taxi?

A
  • EMEDS
  • Spoilers
  • Wing A/I
  • Case probes heater
260
Q

At what temperature and to what altitude does APR increases flat rating?

A
  • 7665 up to ISA+14C
  • APR increases to +18.9
  • 15,000
261
Q

What are the PFD’s called?

A

Display unit

262
Q

How to get out of AT’s
T/O mode?

A

VS, FLC, CWS

263
Q

What approaches requiring DDA can be used with APPR?

A
  • LP
  • LNAV
  • FMS overlay
264
Q

What are the criterias for 45’ fuel?

A

FL 330
M0.80

265
Q

When do we include TR’s for LPA calculation?

A

When landing in icing conditions

266
Q

Where do you find spoiler system test in Garmin?

A

Aircraft system
Controls
System tests

267
Q

How do you preheat batteries?

A

Hold button for 3”.
Ensure green light active.

268
Q

On what hydraulic system is R TR?

A

System B

269
Q

On what hydraulic system is L TR?

A

System A

270
Q

What means Amber «rudder maintenance» on start up?

A

Stby display not providing data

271
Q

What do you do if you encounter «rudder maintenance» on start up?

A

Set parking brake.

272
Q

What master warning is on the QRC?

A

Battery O’temp
Cabin altitude

273
Q

Max number of CAS messages that can be displayed

A

12

274
Q

At what altitude does O2 goes to EMER automatically?

A

35,000

275
Q

How many minutes is O2 allowed for emergency descent from FL450 to 10,000?

A

10 minutes

276
Q

APU max amps in air and ground

A

500 amps ground
400 amps air

277
Q

Do you see amps or % displayed in battery voltage?

A

Amps

278
Q

What is the difference between main bus and mission bus?

A

Redudancy

279
Q

On what bus is the stby battery being charged?

A

L mission bus

280
Q

How can you turn off mission bus?

A

Elec buttons

281
Q

How many crash axe do we have and where are they located?

A

None

282
Q

When is CVR tested?

A

Power ON

283
Q

Min fuel on right wing to start APU

A

400 Lbs

284
Q

Jet A temp limit

A

-37
+57

285
Q

What would you expect to do with a fuel transfer fail?

A

Expect to use gravity X-flow

286
Q

What are the spoilers angle with flaps full?

A

17.5 degrees.

287
Q

How many spoilers?

A

6

288
Q

When will the auto-throttles not engage?

A
  • Trim out of range
  • Single engine
  • Parking brake ON
289
Q

Max baggage weight

A

1000 Lbs

290
Q

Where are the PBE’s located?

A

-Behind copilot seat
-Lav

291
Q

What doors are on the CAS system?

A
  • Tailcone door
  • Baggage door
  • Interior baggage door
  • Emergency exit
  • cabin divider doors
  • Main cabin door
  • Nose doors
292
Q

When do you have to limit power around 50% N1 while taxiing?

A

Tailwind of 10 Kts
X-wind 25 Kts

293
Q

Why are the speed brakes checked twice on taxi?

A
  • Check for T/O abort and landing
  • Check for hydraulic and pneumatic
294
Q

How can you transfer fuel on ground?

A
  • Shutdown the APU and start the engines.
    -Connect a GPU
295
Q

What is the difference between a white or amber ICING message?

A

Icing detected with anti-ice already ON for white.

296
Q

What happens 30 seconds after amber ICING displays?

A

Stall warning increases to account for ice buildup.
Amber SHAKER ICING COMP will illuminate.

297
Q

What can provide heat to the left windshield?

A
  • Left generator
  • APU generator
298
Q

What windshield can be heated if using the PTCU only?

A

Only inboard pane of L windshield. (L1)

299
Q

Define EMEDS

A

E- Electro
M- Mechanical
E- Expulsive
D- De-ice
S- System

300
Q

Why can’t you turn wing anti-ice below 400’ on T/O?

A

May exceed ITT limits

301
Q

What’s the time limit to have wing anti ice ON, and not moving?

A

15 seconds

302
Q

What do you do with a rudder pedal adjustment runaway?

A

Press and hold disconnect button on yoke

303
Q

How many miles from airport to press APPR?

A

30 miles

304
Q

When does a pitch limit indicator (eyebrows) appear?

A

When AOA is 6 degrees of a stall condition.

305
Q

At what speed do you retract flaps on a single engine FRA?

A

V2+20

306
Q

You have aborted the T/O and are exiting the runway.
What checklist do you call?

A

After landing.

307
Q

You have accomplished the after landing checklist after aborting T/O, and are taxiing back. What checklist do you call next?

A

After start.

308
Q

T/O was aborted.
Waiting for brakes cool off.
After landing checklist completed.
What checklist do you call next?

A

Before T/O.

309
Q

Screen went blank. Do you follow the checklist for amber AVIONICS FAULT that just displayed?

A

No, this is a result message.
Go for display unit failure instead under abnormal.

310
Q

What could be the reason of an auto test fail message?

A

Taxi time too short.

311
Q

Can you land with amber SHAKER ICING COMP message ON?

A

Nuisance stall warnings will occur.
Aircraft system-Controls-stall schedule to select OFF

312
Q

What is being tested when doing the HF test?

A

SWR
Standing Wave Ratio

313
Q

What means CAMI?

A

Confirm
Activate
Monitor
Intervene

314
Q

What do we do in the aircraft acceptance flow?

A

Check logbook and documents

315
Q

How often do we do the aircraft acceptance flow?

A

First flight of the day
Pilot change
MX has been in aircraft

316
Q

When does the PM say “deviation”

A

When the PF trend towards missed app criterias

317
Q

Missed app criterias during LNAV only?

A

CDI more than 1 dot

318
Q

Briefing format

A

Threats

Plan

Considerations

319
Q

You are hand flying and requesting VS. What do you acknowledge once the PM presses the button?

A

VS armed

320
Q

Engine just failed over the Atlantic.
What do you do?

A
  • Good engine CLB
  • Set altitude selector by engine out drift down chart
  • FLC speed by drift down chart.
  • Parallel track 5 NM right.
  • «Inflight engine shutdown QRC»
321
Q

Approach climb gradient at the airport you are landing is 11.9.
What do you do with this number?

A

Standard missed approach gradient is 200’ft/NM or 3.3 degrees.
If an ILS requires 340’ft/NM, divide 340 by 6076. (0.0559 Meaning 6 degrees)

322
Q

What is a trigger?

A

Event that signal when to start a flow.

323
Q

Max altitude gear extended

A

18,000

324
Q

What do we check in the nose gear wheel well?

A

Overcenter linkage of gear doors.

325
Q

Quote about worrying to do something

A

If you are going to do it, don’t worry.
If you are going to worry, don’t do it.

326
Q

Where do you remove snow first?

A

Tail

327
Q

What should you be careful with water runoff from snow removal ?

A

Water may refreeze forward of static ports, creating erroneous reading, even with port clear

328
Q

What should you do if PRESSURIZATION FAULT is displayed during cold soak?

A
  • Warm the cabin above -15C.
  • Cycle the press mode button manual then norm (by the flaps)
329
Q

What should you do if the stby display fails to test during cold soak?

A

Select the Stby power to ON for perhaps as much as 15’

330
Q

What should you do if you get FUEL INLET COLD message during cold soak?

A

Warm up oil temp to 15C

331
Q

What do you do if the AUTO TEST FAIL message displays during cold soak?

A

Select test and repeat test multiple times to extinguish , every 2 minutes.

332
Q

Do you still need to do brake warming once they reach 65C?

A

No

333
Q

What is your true altitude when colder than standard?

A

Lower than indicated.

334
Q

What should you do when landing outside the US with a temp -10 or colder?

A

Use automatic FMS temp compensation.

335
Q

Where do you find temp compensation in Garmin?

A

Flight plan options.

336
Q

When is a runway considered wet?

A

More than 25% is damp, or covered with 1/8 or less. (3mm)

337
Q

When should you do a pre-takeoff contamination check?

A

5 minutes before, during icing conditions.

338
Q

When are you required to do a tactile and visual inspection of icing?

A

When Ice pellets present.

339
Q

When does the fuel recirculation system shuts off ?

A

When boost pump operating.

340
Q

When would you use the fuel recirc pump button?

A

When the recirc pump on the affected wing is ON, when it should be OFF.

341
Q

What means land as soon as possible?

A

Nearest airport, including off airport.

342
Q

What means land as soon as practical?

A

Land at destination possible.

343
Q

Why the importance of a correct altimeter settings during RNAV app?

A

FMS uses baro to calculate the aircraft path and the required descent path.
Aircraft could follow flight path parallel to published path but is either shifted above or below it.

344
Q

What does SLOP stands for?

A

Strategic Lateral offset procedures

345
Q

Call out on landing spoilers or speedbrakes

A

Spoilers

346
Q

Brake 50% degraded after releasing brakes. What to do?

A

If moving the aircraft didn’t clear it, hard reset

347
Q

What are the strips on the radome?

A

Lightning protection to dissipate energy, since composite radome can’t handle high current and heat.
Lightning hit the stripes and not the radome.

348
Q

What does CDFA stands for?

A
  • Continous
  • Descent
  • Final
    -Approach
349
Q

What are CDFA criterias?

A
  • Published straight in mins
  • Published descent angle
  • Local altimeter
  • May apply cold WX altimeter corrections
350
Q

Do we use VDP with RNAV?

A

No

351
Q

How can you go to a runway without vertical guidance at night?

A
  • Use straight in approach
  • Use GPWS
  • Use HUD or SVS if equipped.
352
Q

Which ETP is the most critical?

A

Dep

353
Q

What altitudes do you pick for safe altitude?

A
  • Pattern if VMC
  • MSA or missed approach altitude
  • ATC assigned.
354
Q

What’s a MON VOR?

A

Minimum operational network

355
Q

What’s SAND in oceanic?

A

South Ascend
North descend

356
Q

Where do you configure when descent angle is over 3.5 degrees?

A

Prior to glide path intercept

357
Q

Max Vref 50’ above runway

A

+10

358
Q

What should you check before turning on the batteries?

A

Gear down

359
Q

Describe noise abatement

A
  • Speed on FMS
  • Flaps 1
  • Static T/O
  • VS 1500 FPM
  • 180 Kts
  • FRA @400’
  • Normal climb @ 3000’
360
Q

What means PLI?

A

Pitch Limit Indicators

361
Q

When do you use MDA?

A
  • Circling
  • Non precision without vertical guidance outside of CDFA parameters
362
Q

How long should you keep CLB throttle on single engine oceanic?

A

Until reaching specified altitude

363
Q

What speed to retract flaps on single engine missed?

A

Vapp + 10

364
Q

How much frost can you depart on the wings?

A

Nothing beyond midpoint of outboard flaps

365
Q

When do you use cold temp correction international?

A

-10 C or more

366
Q

When should autopilot be on?

A
  • Night
  • IMC
  • 500’/1
367
Q

When can you turn to alternate in oceanic?

A

Outside of RVSM

368
Q

What does TOBT stands for?

A

Target Off Block Time

369
Q

What does TSAT stands for?

A

Target Start Approval Time

370
Q

What means TSAT?

A

30’ prior to TOBT. Basic time of flight

371
Q

What’s the first thing to do in an emergency and when should you do it?

A

You should do nothing, and you should do that immediately

372
Q

What’s the obstacle clearance protection of a VASI?

A

10 degrees of centerline and 4 NM

373
Q

What’s the obstacle clearance protection of a PAPI?

A

10 degrees of centerline and 3.4 NM

374
Q

What’s a visual area for approaching a runway?

A

Starts 200’ prior to threshold and extend approach path on a 20:1 slope. (2.86 degrees)

375
Q

Summer pax standard weights

A

236

376
Q

Winter pax standard weights

A

241

377
Q

What is this latency to change in oceanic?

A

A-C-I
Timeline required for Availability, Continuity, Integrity of transaction

378
Q

What’s a cruise climb in NATS?

A

Only climb or maintain a level.
Never descend

379
Q

What’s a block of flight levels in NATS

A

Climb or descend freely within assigned altitude

380
Q

What’s a GNE?

A

Gross Navigation Error.
10 NM

381
Q

Why do we plot?

A
  • Because inserting waypoint manually could have been wrong and the error not caught previously.
  • To have paperwork to show when loss of traffic separation occurs.
382
Q

What’s the difference between offset and WX deviation clearance?

A

Offset: stay on course at the specified distance.
WX deviation: Meander as necessary up to the max distance specified.

383
Q

Do we disconnect autopilot for a TCAS «monitor vertical speed»

A

Yes. It’s an RA

384
Q

Clear for the RNAV 6 in TEB, circle runway 1. What buttons to push for this approach?

A

VNAV to FAF.
NAV/VS.
HDG at fix NJA wants in notes

385
Q

Display unit failed past 80 Kts. Do we abort?

A

Only abort for
- Fire
- Engine failure
- Loss of directional controls
- Perception the plane will not fly

386
Q

At what temp the cabin needs to be for proper mask use when the plane has been cold soaked?

A

-21C (-6F) by FL 250

387
Q

What wing is the aileron trim actuator?

A

Right wing.

388
Q

What powers the «A» motor of the primary pitch trim?

A

L mission bus

389
Q

What powers the «B» motor of the primary pitch trim?

A

R Emer bus

390
Q

What does the Rudder Stby System do?

A

Provides hydraulic to lower rudder PCU in case of loss of pressure from system A

391
Q

What powers RSS?

A

L EMER bus

392
Q

What are SÉCU?

A

Smart electrical Control units. Control rudder

393
Q

How is rudder controlled?

A

Electronically (fly by wire) controlled, hydraulically actuated

394
Q

Which flaps setting allows the most spoilers deflection , 2 or full?

A

Flaps 2 deflects at 35, vs full at 17.5

395
Q

What powers secondary trim?

A

R EMER bus

396
Q

How do you recover from nose high?

A

1- Automation OFF
2- Pitch lower
3- Thrust T/O
4- Roll level
5- ATC «upset recovery «
6- «Inadvertent stall QRH»

397
Q

How do you recover from nose low?

A

-Automation OFF
- Roll level
- Thrust as needed
- Speedbrakes as needed
- Pitch to horizon
- ATC «upset recovery «
- «inadvertent stall QRH»

398
Q

Pitch attitude for a stall recovery

A

0 to 5 degrees

399
Q

Min WX to depart VFR

A

3000/3

400
Q

Max % above idle power to burn excess fuel

A

20

401
Q

Burn off fuel in the air or land over gross weight

A

Only land if immediate landing is necessary

402
Q

What are the requirements to fly a low approach by tower

A
  • Day/VFR
  • flaps full
  • Vref +20
  • Min 200’ or no lower than top of tower
  • Aligned with runway
403
Q

What must be checked by 65 Kts on TO?

A
  • T/O thrust
  • Green HOLD
404
Q

How long can you breathe in a PBE?

A

15 minutes

405
Q

When do we need to check controls free and clear?

A
  • prior to entering runway
  • after deicing
  • after removing control lock
406
Q

When 2 gens are operating, should the bus tie open or closed?

A

Open

407
Q

When 1 gen is inop, should you have the bus tie open or closed?

A

You should close it.

408
Q

What is the first thing to do with flaps fail?

A

Speeds to MAN

409
Q

Flaps have failed up at night. What’s good to know about landing lights?

A

May not illuminate ground during the flare

longitude (2 decks)

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