Longitude Flashcards
1
Q
Max Xwind contaminated RWY more than 150’
A
15 Kts
2
Q
Min speed RVSM
A
190 Kts
3
Q
VMO below 8,000’
A
290
4
Q
Max tire ground speed
A
195
5
Q
How often can you start APU?
A
6/10 6 times
Take a break for 1 hr
6
Q
Unsuccessful APU start
A
-Try 3 times.
-Take a 20’ break.
- Try 2 more times
- Take 1 hr break
7
Q
Max GPU voltage
A
30V
8
Q
Min speed maneuvering flaps up
A
175 Kts
9
Q
When is the last time to use FMS on final approach?
A
3 NM or 1000’ AGL
10
Q
Min temp APU start
A
-20C
11
Q
Max tailwind engine start
A
16 Kts
12
Q
What is limited with tailwinds above 10 Kts or Xwind above 25 Kts?
A
Power setting around 50% N1
13
Q
Wingspan
A
69 feet
14
Q
What is the PF call out at the FAF with approaches with no vertical guidance?
A
Set next altitude
15
Q
What are the actions at single engine FRA?
A
- Altitude hold
- Flaps up at V2+20
- Accelerate to 185 Kts
- FLC
16
Q
PM call out during lateral approaches at FAF?
A
FAF
17
Q
PF call out when ending circle
A
Leaving MDA
18
Q
When to set missed app altitude during ILS?
A
Glide slope intercept
19
Q
What means the first T in TEST to communicate with pax?
A
Type of emergency
20
Q
What means the E in TEST to communicate with pax?
A
Evacuate
21
Q
What means the S in TEST to communicate with the pax?
A
Brace signal
22
Q
What means the last T in TEST to communicate with the pax?
A
Time
23
Q
When is FRA during a go around?
A
1000 feet
24
Q
How do you calculate rate of climb?
A
GS X gradient
25
Can we depart in freezing rain?
Light only
26
Can we fly in freezing drizzle?
Yes
27
What to announce at 300’ AGL during circling?
Landing
28
What is LNAV+V?
LNAV with advisory angle.
Watch for step down altitudes
29
Length of runway centerline markings
Stripes 120’
Gap 80’
30
What do you set in the altitude selector for all RNAV’s approaches?
Missed approach
31
Emer lights armed. What does pax safety button illuminates when pressed?
-Smoking sign
- Emer lights
- 2 chimes
32
What happens when pressing fire switch?
- Shutdown fuel
- Shutdown hydraulics
- Signal FADEC to inhibit ignition
- Disable generators
- Disable TR’s
- Arm fire bottles
33
How long before APU shuts down for fire when unattended?
11 seconds
34
When to set O2 masks on EMER or 100%?
EMER-Fire
35
Go around call out
Go around/power set//Flaps 2
36
Go around call out when positive rate
Gear up
Set missed approach altitude
VS or FLC
37
Call out when stall completed
Inadvertent stall QRH
38
Flaps failed while approaching airport. Name the checklist
Flaps fail approach QRC
39
Flaps failure with gear down checklist name
Flaps fail landing QRC
40
Engine failed in cruise checklist name
Inflight engine shutdown QRC
41
Engine failed during approach checklist name
Engine inop approach QRC
42
Name checklist when engine failed during landing
Engine inop landing QRC
43
What does PF says when course alive announced by PM during RNAV?
(…) displayed
44
What does PF say when PM announces course alive during approach to DDA?
Set minimums
45
What means VFTO?
Final T/O speed
46
When does EMER lights come on?
- 5G’s impact
- loss of main DC
- Switch ON
47
How long does EMER lights stay ON with EMER bus?
60 minutes
48
How long the EMER lights stay ON with pax power only?
10 minutes
49
What does ELEC do?
Connects mission bus to EMER bus
50
What bus does APU connects to?
L EMER bus
51
What bus does the GPU connects to?
R EMER bus
52
What means amber light by stby power switch?
Stby battery powering
53
What buses does the bus tie connect?
EMER-EMER
54
What happens to APU generator when starting L engine?
Drops off line
55
Where do you install child seat?
Fwd facing seat
56
PF call out at 100’ above TDZE during IMC approach
Decision
57
PF call out at VDP
VDP
58
How long pitot heat remains hot on EMER?
60’
59
Checklist name for difference of air speeds
Total loss/ unreliable airspeed QRH
60
When would you use dump switch?
Pressurized on ground
Smoke removal
Ditching
61
TR’s are main DC or EMER?
Main DC
62
Are GTC’s main DC or EMER?
Main DC
63
When should TR’s be checked?
- First flight
- Maintenance
- Contaminated rwy
64
What is GEA?
Garmin engine interface
Communicates between Garmin and aircraft
65
How to do noise abatement?
- 180 Kts
- VS 1500 FPM
- 70%N1 at 400’
66
How long can batteries power EMER bus?
60 minutes
67
What speed for air start?
250 to 320 Kts
68
Max glide speed
195 Kts
69
Which bus powers the STBY display in normal condition?
R mission bus
70
When should fuel recirc pump be off?
- Low fuel
- when boost pump ON
71
How is FADEC powered?
EMER bus until 45%N2
Then
PMA’s
72
How long is auto power reserve?
10 minutes
73
How long is manual power reserve?
5 minutes
74
When does APR activates?
- Throttles in T/O
- FADEC detected engine failure
75
Drift down speed
(Min sink)
165 Kts average
76
What does rudder stby system do?
Provides Hydraulic pressure to system A side as a back up if that system fails.
77
What uses hydraulic?
- NWS
- Gear/brakes
- Spoilers
- TR’s
- Rudders
- Power transfer unit
78
Pitch trim runaway CB
LP/ L3
79
Trying to do Stick shaker test, but button grayed out
Check control lock disengaged
80
When do you use CDFA?
Non précision with no vertical guidance
81
CDFA criteria’s
- published straight in
- published descent angle
- local altimeter
82
T/O was aborted. When can you depart again?
10 minutes
83
What does fuel recirc do?
Automatically pumps fuel to outboard of each wing to distribute fuel temp
84
What means amber ACM O’TEMP?
ACM failed.
Heat exchanger mode will automatically come on.
85
What happens when moving ECS switch to HEAT EXCHG ONLY?
Bypass of automatic temp control.
No air to wemacs.
86
How is the power to the windshields converted to AC?
6 converters in the nose
87
What is not working while being on mission bus?
- Auto pressurization
- ice protection
- external lights
- flaps
88
What bus is the most to the least critical?
1- EMER
2- Mission
3- Main
89
R generator failed. Can the left generator still powers R windshield thru bus tie?
No.
Each generator controls its own windshield
90
Besides interior bus, what have you lost with Amber LOADSHED L/R?
Respective side window
91
What happens to interior buses with amber LOADSHED?
- Interior bus 2 automatically shed
- interior bus 1 has 5’ delay.
92
What does the gravity Xflow do?
Secondary mean of X-feeding
Side slip with ball to low tank
93
What does BLEED ISOLATE do?
Controls wing X-flow and manifold isolation valve
94
When do you use the BLEED ISOLATE to X-flow?
Single engine
95
What bus powers the L windshield?
L mission bus
96
What bus powers the R windshield?
R main bus
97
What is inop if you lose hydraulic system A?
- L TR
- Outboard spoilers
- Inboard brakes
98
What is inop if you lose hydraulic B?
- R TR
- Normal gear operation
- Midboard spoilers
- Outboard brakes
- NWS
99
What can you do if the speed brakes are jammed open?
-Disengage autothrottles
- move a throttle to CLB detent
100
When do you get red cabin altitude?
When cabin altitude is above 9,800’ or 14,800’ in high elevation mode
101
What do you do if you get a amber A/I WING COLD message?
Disengage autothrottles and increase power affected side.
200 Kts min.
102
When do you get amber cabin altitude?
Cabin altitude is above 8,500’
Or above 9800’ in high elevation mode for more than 30’
103
What means amber FUEL TRANSFER ON?
- fuel has been on for more than 10’ (fuel leak?)
- Imbalance of 60 pounds
104
What will you do first with a amber GEAR DOOR OPEN message?
Limit speed to 230 Kts
105
What baro mins for LNAV only?
DDA
106
What baro mins for LP?
DDA
107
What means white CABIN ALTITUDE?
- High elevation mode when cabin altitude above 8,000’ and aircraft below 24,500’
108
Engine starter limitation
3 times 15’ cool down
109
What is the hydraulic depressurization valve do?
- Decreases the pump output in cases of high temp
- Reduce the load on the engine for air start
110
On what system hydraulic is the NWS?
System B
111
What system hydraulic is the landing gear?
System B
112
What does EMER lights illuminates when arming the emer lights?
- 4 seat lights
- 6 EXIT signs
- evacuation path
- flood light in lav
113
What should you verify when turning on the batteries and the EMER lights armed?
Lights should extinguish
114
How do you do the ice protection check?
- L&R engine buttons ON
- Wait for CAS.
- then OFF
115
What speed is VFTO?
185 Kts
116
How tall is the aircraft?
20 feet
117
What is the Longitude wing sweep angle?
31.8 degrees
118
Does the CAS “bag door open” knows if the door is locked or not?
No. Proximity switch
119
How many pounds of baggage on floor and L shelves?
750 Lbs
120
How many pounds of baggage on R side shelves?
250 Lbs
121
Why is turning OFF Stby display in flight creates Dutch roll?
Due to fly-by-wire requirements for the rudder on EMER, the STBY power check looks for yaw damper indications
122
Define V2
The speed you need to be at, 35’ at the end of the RWY.
123
Define Vapp
Landing approach climb speed with gear up and flaps 2
124
Define Zero Fuel Weight
Basic empty weight + payload.
125
What should you do with a total loss or unreliable airspeed above FL 250?
- Power idle
- Pitch 2.5 degrees
- AOA 0.4
126
What should you do with total loss or unreliable airspeed below FL 250?
- Power 70%
- Pitch 0
- AOA 0.4
127
What means VRP?
Visual report points
128
What does a GCU do?
Overvoltage/undervoltage
Auto selection/regulates
129
How many amps do the HYD GEN provide?
200 amps/ 29 V
130
What is a surge tank?
At each wingtip, captures overflow fuel during maneuvers, expansion or overflow valves fail during refueling
131
How many pounds is low fuel?
500 per wing
132
How many PSI do you pull with a red brake fail message displays?
700 PSI dry
400 PSI wet
133
Max engine generator output
500 amps air
400 amps ground
134
How many smoke detectors in baggage compartment?
2 optical
135
Pitch/roll is disconnected. Who controls what?
LP: L elevator and spoilers
RP: R elevator and ailerons
136
How many fire extinguishers and where are they located?
1 behind copilot
1 in FWD closet
1 in rear cabin
137
When can we not use autopilot?
Comparison monitors
Reversionary mode
AHRS failure
Severe icing
138
What checklist do you call for engine fire on the ground?
Evacuation QRC
139
What is in the hopper tank?
Fuel pumps: primary ejector and electrical
140
How does the hopper tank remains full?
Scavenger pumps
141
What do you do with red wind shear?
- Hand fly
- Pitch 7.5 degrees.
- Full PWR
- Manual reserve ON
142
What are two things the EDM will not do, but still required for the emergency descent?
Squawk 7700 and speed brakes extension
143
What is cabin altitude at FL450?
5,950 +-225 at FL 450
144
What do you do with a red AT HOLD FAIL on T/O?
Abort
145
What do you do with a amber fuel imbalance?
Check if fuel leak first. Then balance
146
What is the 2nd thing to go on go-around after moving throttles fwd?
TOGA button
147
At what fuel flow should you abort start?
400
148
Max ITT for start
When it’s red!
149
What happens when you press the RUN/STOP button for start?
- FADEC configures valves to provide bleed air
- Turn on boost pump
150
What happens when you press starter at 32 PSI?
FADEC sends fuel to combustor
151
What happens when N2 reaches 46% during start?
FADEC cuts off APU bleed air
152
Why does the use of power reserve requires a logbook entry?
Equivalent to 5 engine cycles and 10 hrs of operation
153
How many igniters are used during start?
Normal start: single
Airborne restart: both
154
What does PMA DO?
Powers FADEC above 45% N2
155
How is max reverse determined by FADEC?
TLA and airspeed.
(IE 68% at 65, and must be IDLE at 45%)
156
Can you manually change FADEC?
No, but you can see active FADEC in propulsion page of GTC.
157
What should you do with pitot heat on the ground in icing conditions?
Must be ON for 15 sec within 1’ of T/O
158
Why is auto reserve switch guarded?
Provides single engine training without activation
159
When should you abort start?
- 20 seconds, no ITT
- 30%N2, no oil pressure
- 50 seconds, no idle
160
Why do we start the R engine first?
To not shutdown AC twice, due to location of the isolation valve
161
Max ITT before restarting engine again
450
162
Oil consumption
1 qt for 25 hrs
163
Min oil temp to move throttles out of idle, and T/O
10 and 15 C respectively
164
How many fire detection elements are in each engine, and what is their names?
4 thermistor
165
Why moving the flow button to high for baggage fire?
Increase recirc fan
166
How is bleed leak detected?
Detect loops with eutectic salt elements and resistance devices
167
When does pitot heat comes on?
Based on TLA/ Wow/ speed
168
What are the sources of bleed air?
- Any of the 3 engines
- hopper cart
169
What does the ENG BLEED buttons do?
Control HP Valves
170
What is service air?
Decrease pressure and temp from the bleeds to be use by pneumatic system
171
What happens if you press a bottle armed switch for fun?
Nothing. Must be armed first
172
What is in the Air Cycle Refregeration Pack?
ACM and heat exchanger
173
Why do we turn off both PRESS SOURCE buttons on landing after a ACM O’TEMP?
To have all bleed air available in case of go around
174
What should the PM do with a red windshear?
Press manual power reserve
175
When do we use SAT?
Ground
176
What happens to the outflow valve when losing electrical?
Spring loaded closed
177
What kind of door seal?
Passive. Use differential pressure across blade
178
Max normal pressurization PSI
10.2
179
How many mode for outflow valve?
Auto/manual
180
When does EDM works?
- Above 30,000
- Autopilot ON
- Cabin 14,700
181
What means AVAIL?
Looking for voltage.
182
What closes when you turn the batteries ON?
Relay between HOT BATT bus and EMER bus
183
Bus tie is usually open on the ground. When does it closes?
- Start button
- single source of pwr online
184
When does bus tie automatically open on the ground?
-2nd engine start complete
- APU start complete
- primary source of power on both buses
- over current
185
Why turning on batteries does not affect bus tie?
Not a primary source of power
186
When do motive flow valves closes?
- Start
- Fuel transfer
187
When do you need main DC to supply fuel?
Engine start/ low pressure/ Fuel transfer
188
When would you see boost pump ON amber indication on the switch?
- Low fuel
- Manual selection
189
What bus powers dump switch?
Main DC
190
What are the two pressurization system?
Auto and manual
191
What position is the outflow valve during taxi and when will it close?
Start closing with main cabin closed to lower cabin 200’ to prevent fluctuations
192
What are the main accumulators for?
Dampen pressure spikes during high flow demands
193
How does green disc gets punctured?
When one or two O2 cylinders exceeds 2500 PSI
194
Where should lap babies sit?
Seat 3 and 4. (Rear facing toward front)
195
When does O2 pressure becomes yellow in summary page?
400 PSI
Will never T/O yellow as 610 is lowest with no pax
196
What does the plane do on EDM?
- Descend via FLC and MMO-10 Kts
- 90 turn left
- Altitude 15,000’
- AT’s idle
197
Max cabin altitude in auto and manual mode
- 13,700 in AUTO
- 14,200 in MANUAL
198
Where do you read O2 levels?
Summary or preflight page
199
How many masks?
12 in cabins and 3 in cockpit
200
Until what altitude does mask in N position dilutes O2?
27,000’
201
Besides windshields, what else uses AC power?
Cabin like microwave and coffee machine
202
How many actuators for the stab deice?
10 on top, 10 at the bottom of each elevators
203
What heats up when you turn on engine anti-ice?
TT2 probes and engine lips
204
Why do we increase power with amber ENGINE VIBRATION in icing?
To remove ice from nose spinner (not deiced)
205
How is back icing eliminated?
High temp bleed air evaporative system
206
What powers EMEDS?
Main bus
207
What does pitot heat button activates?
- 3 pitot tubes
- Static ports
- AOA vanes
- RAT probes
208
What will happen with a amber A/I WING O’TEMP message?
Over temp protection will close A/I valve and message will cycle
209
What is prohibited above FL 250, single engine?
Wing anti-ice
210
What min temp for brakes before T/O, and where do we see this info?
65C on flight controls page
211
How many accumulators in hydraulic system?
9
212
How many sweeps with NWS steering accumulator?
1 on each side
213
What does spoilers accumulators do?
Allow all 6 panels to open on touchdown
214
Where are the heat exchangers located and what do they do?
Wing tank.
Cools fuel/ Warm hydraulic
215
What are the steering angles?
Slightly rounded: 10 degrees with rudders, 80 degrees with tiller for a total of 90 degrees
216
Where are the gears downlocks?
Inside each gear actuators
217
What is brake fail landing distance higher dry than wet?
Wet already includes higher wet perf numbers, and therefore, shows a shorter penalty
218
Can the APU supply bleed air?
Yes up to 15,000’
219
How is the pneumatic system tested?
Automatically by the avionics system
220
Max temp to use anti-ice
15C
221
What prevents wing anti-ice to open on the ground?
TLA less than 15 degrees
222
How to remember which hydraulic system each brake is on?
Pictures MLG, with B-A-A-B
223
When does gear warning activates?
- Flaps full
- Below 500’ AGL
- AOA less than 0.4
224
What speed is the anti skid effective?
10 to 200 Kts
225
If departing at max gross weight, how much burn before landing?
6,000 Lbs
226
What does PTCU AUX A or B gives you?
AUX pump
227
What does PTCU do?
- Transfer hydraulic (unless low volume on that side)
- AUX pump
- Generator powering EMER and MISSION buses
228
What’s in the gear box?
F G H P S
- Oil and fuel filters
- Generators
- HMU
- Hydraulic pump
- PMA’s
- Starters
229
What means HTF in Honeywell HTF7700?
Honeywell Turbofan rated at 7,665 rounded up.
Hence the 7700
230
What powers the RAT probes?
DC-DC converters
231
Name checklist for engine failure before V1
Engine failure during T/O QRH
232
When does anti-skid come on during landing?
3 seconds after touchdown
233
How long can you leave the batteries ON before losing power?
20 minutes
234
What speed is LOPI?
Below 400’ to 50 Kts
235
TOPI speeds
80 Kts to 400’
236
What bus powers TT2 probes?
Mission bus
237
What is in the Air Cycle Refrigeration Pack?
- ACM
- Heat exchangers
- Water separator
- TCV
238
Will automatic temp still work with ECS knob on ACM only?
Yes
239
What does the NO T/O logic looks at?
- Trims
- Control locks
- Parking brakes
- Flaps
- Spoilers
240
What are the spoilers angle?
- 35 degrees
- 17.5 degrees
- Ground: 60 degrees
241
What lines can flight controls page display for spoilers?
- 60
- 35
- 17.5
242
What do you do with secondary trim runaway?
Turn it OFF
243
Does Needles turn green automatically for BC?
No.
244
How do you prepare for a BC on autopilot panel?
- HDG
- Select BC green needles
- Hit BC
245
What hydraulic system is emergency gear system?
A
246
Engine restarted in flight. How long to keep at idle?
7 minutes
247
When will the baggage compartment lights blink?
When the masks have dropped due to a high cabin altitude
248
Why does amber GEAR DOOR OPEN illuminates with an emergency gear extension?
The MLG inboard doors can not be retracted.
249
What are the oxygen cylinders?
115 cubic foot (L) & 77 (R)
250
How many hours can you fly with the oil lvl in the no dispatch band?
10 hrs
251
How many gallons of waste and water in the lav?
Waste: 6.4
Water: 12.5
252
What buses do the hydraulic generator powers?
EMER and mission bus
253
What bus powers PTCU?
R EMER bus
254
How to remember which hydraulic system controls spoilers?
Looking at spoilers: A-B-B-A
255
When do you have to turn wing and stab anti-ice?
- In icing
- Speed less than 190 Kts
256
Define severe icing
When ice forms behind protected area
257
What are the various PSI numbers for pressurization?
9.6 Normal
10 Negative pressure relief
10.2 Red CABIN DELTA P
258
What tests are being conducted during taxi?
- EMEDS
- Spoilers
- Wing A/I
- Case probes heater
259
At what temperature and to what altitude does APR increases flat rating?
- 7665 up to ISA+14C
- APR increases to +18.9
- 15,000
260
What are the PFD’s called?
Display unit
261
How to get out of AT’s
T/O mode?
VS, FLC, CWS
262
What approaches requiring DDA can be used with APPR?
- LP
- LNAV
- FMS overlay
263
What are the criterias for 45’ fuel?
FL 330
M0.80
264
When do we include TR’s for LPA calculation?
When landing in icing conditions
265
Where do you find spoiler system test in Garmin?
Aircraft system
Controls
System tests
266
How do you preheat batteries?
Hold button for 3”.
Ensure green light active.
267
On what hydraulic system is R TR?
System B
268
On what hydraulic system is L TR?
System A
269
What means Amber « rudder maintenance » on start up?
Stby display not providing data
270
What do you do if you encounter « rudder maintenance » on start up?
Set parking brake.
271
What master warning is on the QRC?
Battery O’temp
Cabin altitude
272
Max number of CAS messages that can be displayed
12
273
At what altitude does O2 goes to EMER automatically?
35,000
274
How many minutes is O2 allowed for emergency descent from FL450 to 10,000?
10 minutes
275
APU max amps in air and ground
500 amps ground
400 amps air
276
Do you see amps or % displayed in battery voltage?
Amps
277
What is the difference between main bus and mission bus?
Redudancy
278
On what bus is the stby battery being charged?
L mission bus
279
How can you turn off mission bus?
Elec buttons
280
How many crash axe do we have and where are they located?
None
281
When is CVR tested?
Power ON
282
Min fuel on right wing to start APU
400 Lbs
283
Jet A temp limit
-37
+57
284
What would you expect to do with a fuel transfer fail?
Expect to use gravity X-flow
285
What are the spoilers angle with flaps full?
17.5 degrees.
286
How many spoilers?
6
287
When will the auto-throttles not engage?
- Trim out of range
- Single engine
- Parking brake ON
288
Max baggage weight
1000 Lbs
289
Where are the PBE’s located?
-Behind copilot seat
-Lav
290
What doors are on the CAS system?
- Tailcone door
- Baggage door
- Interior baggage door
- Emergency exit
- cabin divider doors
- Main cabin door
- Nose doors
291
When do you have to limit power around 50% N1 while taxiing?
Tailwind of 10 Kts
X-wind 25 Kts
292
Why are the speed brakes checked twice on taxi?
- Check for T/O abort and landing
- Check for hydraulic and pneumatic
293
How can you transfer fuel on ground?
- Shutdown the APU and start the engines.
-Connect a GPU
294
What is the difference between a white or amber ICING message?
Icing detected with anti-ice already ON for white.
295
What happens 30 seconds after amber ICING displays?
Stall warning increases to account for ice buildup.
Amber SHAKER ICING COMP will illuminate.
296
What can provide heat to the left windshield?
- Left generator
- APU generator
297
What windshield can be heated if using the PTCU only?
Only inboard pane of L windshield. (L1)
298
Define EMEDS
E- Electro
M- Mechanical
E- Expulsive
D- De-ice
S- System
299
Why can’t you turn wing anti-ice below 400’ on T/O?
May exceed ITT limits
300
What’s the time limit to have wing anti ice ON, and not moving?
15 seconds
301
What do you do with a rudder pedal adjustment runaway?
Press and hold disconnect button on yoke
302
How many miles from airport to press APPR?
30 miles
303
When does a pitch limit indicator (eyebrows) appear?
When AOA is 6 degrees of a stall condition.
304
At what speed do you retract flaps on a single engine FRA?
V2+20
305
You have aborted the T/O and are exiting the runway.
What checklist do you call?
After landing.
306
You have accomplished the after landing checklist after aborting T/O, and are taxiing back. What checklist do you call next?
After start.
307
T/O was aborted.
Waiting for brakes cool off.
After landing checklist completed.
What checklist do you call next?
Before T/O.
308
Screen went blank. Do you follow the checklist for amber AVIONICS FAULT that just displayed?
No, this is a result message.
Go for display unit failure instead under abnormal.
309
What could be the reason of an auto test fail message?
Taxi time too short.
310
Can you land with amber SHAKER ICING COMP message ON?
Nuisance stall warnings will occur.
Aircraft system-Controls-stall schedule to select OFF
311
What is being tested when doing the HF test?
SWR
Standing Wave Ratio
312
What means CAMI?
Confirm
Activate
Monitor
Intervene
313
What do we do in the aircraft acceptance flow?
Check logbook and documents
314
How often do we do the aircraft acceptance flow?
First flight of the day
Pilot change
MX has been in aircraft
315
When does the PM say “deviation”
When the PF trend towards missed app criterias
316
Missed app criterias during LNAV only?
CDI more than 1 dot
317
Engine just failed over the Atlantic.
What do you do?
- Good engine CLB
- Set altitude selector by engine out drift down chart
- FLC speed by drift down chart.
- Parallel track 5 NM right.
- « Inflight engine shutdown QRC »
318
Approach climb gradient at the airport you are landing is 11.9.
What do you do with this number?
Standard missed approach gradient is 200’ft/NM or 3.3 degrees.
If an ILS requires 340’ft/NM, divide 340 by 6076. (0.0559 Meaning 6 degrees)
319
What is a trigger?
Event that signal when to start a flow.
320
Max altitude gear extended
18,000
321
What do we check in the nose gear wheel well?
Overcenter linkage of gear doors.
322
Quote about worrying to do something
If you are going to do it, don’t worry.
If you are going to worry, don’t do it.
323
Where do you remove snow first?
Tail
324
What should you be careful with water runoff from snow removal ?
Water may refreeze forward of static ports, creating erroneous reading, even with port clear
325
What should you do if PRESSURIZATION FAULT is displayed during cold soak?
- Warm the cabin above -15C.
- Cycle the press mode button manual then norm (by the flaps)
326
What should you do if the stby display fails to test during cold soak?
Select the Stby power to ON for perhaps as much as 15’
327
What should you do if you get FUEL INLET COLD message during cold soak?
Warm up oil temp to 15C
328
What do you do if the AUTO TEST FAIL message displays during cold soak?
Select test and repeat test multiple times to extinguish , every 2 minutes.
329
Do you still need to do brake warming once they reach 65C?
No
330
What is your true altitude when colder than standard?
Lower than indicated.
331
What should you do when landing outside the US with a temp -10 or colder?
Use automatic FMS temp compensation.
332
Where do you find temp compensation in Garmin?
Flight plan options.
333
When is a runway considered wet?
More than 25% is damp, or covered with 1/8 or less. (3mm)
334
When should you do a pre-takeoff contamination check?
5 minutes before, during icing conditions.
335
When are you required to do a tactile and visual inspection of icing?
When Ice pellets present.
336
When does the fuel recirculation system shuts off ?
When boost pump operating.
337
When would you use the fuel recirc pump button?
When the recirc pump on the affected wing is ON, when it should be OFF.
338
What means land as soon as possible?
Nearest airport, including off airport.
339
What means land as soon as practical?
Land at destination possible.
340
Why the importance of a correct altimeter settings during RNAV app?
FMS uses baro to calculate the aircraft path and the required descent path.
Aircraft could follow flight path parallel to published path but is either shifted above or below it.
341
What does SLOP stands for?
Strategic Lateral offset procedures
342
Call out on landing spoilers or speedbrakes
Spoilers
343
Brake 50% degraded after releasing brakes. What to do?
If moving the aircraft didn’t clear it, hard reset
344
What are the strips on the radome?
Lightning protection to dissipate energy, since composite radome can’t handle high current and heat.
Lightning hit the stripes and not the radome.
345
What does CDFA stands for?
- Continous
- Descent
- Final
-Approach
346
What are CDFA criterias?
- Published straight in mins
- Published descent angle
- Local altimeter
- May apply cold WX altimeter corrections
347
Do we use VDP with RNAV?
No
348
How can you go to a runway without vertical guidance at night?
- Use straight in approach
- Use GPWS
- Use HUD or SVS if equipped.
349
Which ETP is the most critical?
Dep
350
What altitudes do you pick for FRA?
- Pattern if VMC
- MSA or missed approach altitude
- ATC assigned.
351
What’s a MON VOR?
Minimum operational network
352
What’s SAND in oceanic?
South Ascend
North descend
353
Where do you configure when descent angle is over 3.5 degrees?
Prior to glide path intercept
354
Max Vref 50’ above runway
+10
355
What should you check before turning on the batteries?
Gear down
356
Describe noise abatement
- Speed on FMS
- Flaps 1
- Static T/O
- VS 1500 FPM
- 180 Kts
- FRA @400’
- Normal climb @ 3000’
357
What means PLI?
Pitch Limit Indicators
358
When do you use MDA?
- Circling
- Non precision without vertical guidance outside of CDFA parameters
359
How long should you keep CLB throttle on single engine oceanic?
Until reaching specified altitude
360
What speed to retract flaps on single engine missed?
Vapp + 10
361
How much frost can you depart on the wings?
Nothing beyond midpoint of outboard flaps
362
When do you use cold temp correction international?
-10 C or more
363
When should autopilot be on?
- Night
- IMC
- 500’/1
364
When can you turn to alternate in oceanic?
Outside of RVSM
365
What does TOBT stands for?
Target Off Block Time
366
What does TSAT stands for?
Target Start Approval Time
367
What means TSAT?
30’ prior to TOBT. Basic time of flight
368
What’s the first thing to do in an emergency and when should you do it?
You should do nothing, and you should do that immediately
369
What’s the obstacle clearance protection of a VASI?
10 degrees of centerline and 4 NM
370
What’s the obstacle clearance protection of a PAPI?
10 degrees of centerline and 3.4 NM
371
What’s a visual area for approaching a runway?
Starts 200’ prior to threshold and extend approach path on a 20:1 slope. (2.86 degrees)
372
Summer pax standard weights
236
373
Winter pax standard weights
241
374
What is this latency to change in oceanic?
A-C-I
Timeline required for Availability, Continuity, Integrity of transaction
375
What’s a cruise climb in NATS?
Only climb or maintain a level.
Never descend
376
What’s a block of flight levels in NATS
Climb or descend freely within assigned altitude
377
What’s a GNE?
Gross Navigation Error.
10 NM
378
Why do we plot?
- Because inserting waypoint manually could have been wrong and the error not caught previously.
- To have paperwork to show when loss of traffic separation occurs.
379
What’s the difference between offset and WX deviation clearance?
Offset: stay on course at the specified distance.
WX deviation: Meander as necessary up to the max distance specified.
380
Do we disconnect autopilot for a TCAS « monitor vertical speed »
Yes. It’s an RA
381
Clear for the RNAV 6 in TEB, circle runway 1. What buttons to push for this approach?
VNAV to FAF.
NAV/VS.
HDG at fix NJA wants in notes
382
Display unit failed past 80 Kts. Do we abort?
Only abort for
- Fire
- Engine failure
- Loss of directional controls
- Perception the plane will not fly
383
At what temp the cabin needs to be for proper mask use when the plane has been cold soaked?
-21C (-6F) by FL 250
384
What wing is the aileron trim actuator?
Right wing.
385
What powers the « A » motor of the primary pitch trim?
L mission bus
386
What powers the « B » motor of the primary pitch trim?
R Emer bus
387
What does the Rudder Stby System do?
Provides hydraulic to lower rudder PCU in case of loss of pressure from system A
388
What powers RSS?
L EMER bus
389
What are SÉCU?
Smart electrical Control units. Control rudder
390
How is rudder controlled?
Electronically (fly by wire) controlled, hydraulically actuated
391
Which flaps setting allows the most spoilers deflection , 2 or full?
Flaps 2 deflects at 35, vs full at 17.5
392
What powers secondary trim?
R EMER bus
393
How do you recover from nose high?
1- Automation OFF
2- Pitch lower
3- Thrust T/O
4- Roll level
5- ATC « upset recovery «
6- « Inadvertent stall QRH »
394
How do you recover from nose low?
-Automation OFF
- Roll level
- Thrust as needed
- Speedbrakes as needed
- Pitch to horizon
- ATC « upset recovery «
- « inadvertent stall QRH »
395
Pitch attitude for a stall recovery
0 to 5 degrees
396
Min WX to depart VFR
3000/3
397
Max % above idle power to burn excess fuel
20
398
Burn off fuel in the air or land over gross weight
Only land if immediate landing is necessary
399
What are the requirements to fly a low approach by tower
- Day/VFR
- flaps full
- Vref +20
- Min 200’ or no lower than top of tower
- Aligned with runway
400
What must be checked by 65 Kts on TO?
- T/O thrust
- Green HOLD
401
How long can you breathe in a PBE?
15 minutes
402
When do we need to check controls free and clear?
- prior to entering runway
- after deicing
- after removing control lock
403
When 2 gens are operating, should the bus tie open or closed?
Open
404
When 1 gen is inop, should you have the bus tie open or closed?
You should close it.
405
Max X-wind flaps failed
10 Kts
406
Flaps have failed up at night. What’s good to know about landing lights?
May not illuminate ground during the flare
407
What’s a difference between a pilot and an aviator?
Pilot is a technician.
Aviator is an artist in love with flying
408
What system uses pneumatic?
(Bleed air)
-Air conditioning
- pressurization
- Ice protection
-Service air
409
What valves does the bleed isolate activates?
Wing Xflow
Manifold isolation valve
410
When is the bleed isolate open or closed?
Open during engine start
Closed in flight
