Long term Flashcards

1
Q

What is the blood pressure target of someone <80?

A

Clinic BP <140/90 mmHg
ABPM/HBPM <135/85 mmHg

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2
Q

What is the blood pressure target of someone >80?

A

Clinic BP <150/90 mmHg
ABPM/HBPM <145/85 mmHg

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3
Q

In diagnosing diabetes, what criteria are used for a fasting plasma glucose test, and what level indicates diabetes?

A

Fasting plasma glucose greater or equal to 7mmol.
Criteria include fasting for at least 8 hours.

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4
Q

In a patient with type 2 diabetes not achieving glycemic control on metformin, what oral antidiabetic agent may be considered as add-on therapy, particularly if there are cardiovascular considerations?

A

Sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT-2) inhibitors, such as empagliflozin, have shown cardiovascular benefits and may be considered in this scenario.

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5
Q

Describe the GOLD (Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease) criteria for staging severity in COPD.

A

Staging is based on post-bronchodilator forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) as a percentage of predicted. Stages range from I (mild) to IV (very severe).

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6
Q

What is the stepwise approach in the management of asthma according to the Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) guidelines?

A

GINA recommends a stepwise approach, starting with short-acting beta-agonists and progressing to inhaled corticosteroids with or without long-acting beta-agonists based on symptom severity.

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7
Q

In the context of stable angina, what role does beta-blocker therapy play, and when may it be contraindicated?

A

Beta-blockers are first-line for stable angina to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. They may be contraindicated in certain conditions like severe heart failure or bronchospastic diseases.

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8
Q

In the management of hyperlipidaemia, what is the primary target of statin therapy and when do you chase patients up?

A

NICE recommend we follow up patients at 3 months
repeat a full lipid profile
if the non-HDL cholesterol has not fallen by at least 40% concordance and lifestyle changes should be discussed with the patient
NICE recommend we consider increasing the dose of atorvastatin up to 80mg

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9
Q

For stroke prevention in non-valvular AF, what factors are considered in choosing between warfarin and direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs)?

A

Factors include age, renal function, bleeding risk, and patient preference. DOACs are often preferred due to their predictable pharmacokinetics and fewer interactions compared to warfarin.

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10
Q

In the management of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF), what neurohormonal antagonist is recommended, and when is it contraindicated?

A

ACE inhibitors or ARBs are recommended in HFrEF. Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists (e.g., spironolactone) are also indicated, but they are contraindicated in severe renal dysfunction or hyperkalemia.

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11
Q

Explain the mechanisms of action of medications such as orlistat in the treatment of obesity.

A

Inhibits pancreatic lipase, reducing fat absorption.

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12
Q

What are two contra-indications to orlistat?

A

Cholestasis
Chronic malabsorption syndrome

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13
Q

Identify two specific preventive care measures that may be underutilized in a particular ethnic group within a local general practice. How can healthcare providers address this disparity?

A

Mammography and colorectal cancer screening. Strategies may include targeted community outreach, culturally sensitive educational materials, and providing these services in accessible community locations.

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14
Q

In a specific ethnic group, data shows lower rates of influenza vaccination compared to the general population. Provide three targeted interventions a general practice could implement to address this disparity, considering cultural and accessibility factors.

A

Interventions may include culturally tailored vaccination campaigns, offering vaccination at community events, and employing multilingual staff to provide education and administer vaccines.

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15
Q

In a practical exam scenario, a patient advocates for improved cultural competence within a general practice. Provide three measurable actions the patient can take to actively contribute to creating a more culturally competent healthcare environment.

A

Actions may include joining patient advisory councils, providing feedback on cultural competence training programs, and collaborating with the practice to develop culturally sensitive patient education materials.

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16
Q

Describe two key components of advanced care planning that are particularly relevant when managing end-of-life care for patients with heart failure. Provide examples of how these components can be applied in the context of heart failure.

A

Components may include identifying healthcare proxies (Trusted family)
Discussing treatment preferences. In heart failure, this could involve exploring preferences regarding aggressive interventions like resuscitation or the use of mechanical circulatory support devices.

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17
Q

What medication is given in COPD to loosen the phlegm?

A

Acetylcystine

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18
Q

What are the symptoms of diabetes?

A

Polyuria, polydipsia, unexplained weight loss (type 1), blurry vision, fatigue

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19
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for type 2 diabetes if the patient is asymptomatic?

A
  • You can use either a plasma glucose or a HbA1c sample
  • If the patient is asymptomatic you must repeat the blood tests.
  • Fasting glucose must be greater than or equal to 7.0mmol/L
  • Random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1mmol/L (after 75g oral glucose tolerance test)
  • HbA1c of greater than or equal to 48mmol/mol (6.5%) is diagnostic
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20
Q

Does an HbA1c of less than 48mmol/mol (6.5%) exclude diabetes?

A

No
It is not as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes

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21
Q

What is defined as pre-diabetes?

A

HbA1c is 42-47 mmol/mol
Or fasting glucose is
6.1-6.9 mmol/l

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22
Q

How do you diagnose type 2 diabetes?

A

Suspected T2DM?

Fasting glucose >7mmol/l or HBA1c >48 mmol/mol

Symptomatic?

Yes
Diagnosis confirmed

No
Repeat HbA1c/fasting glucose. If abnormal- diagnosis confirmed

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23
Q

Do you have to test for c-peptide and diabetes-specific autoantibodies if they have one or more of the following?
ketosis
rapid weight loss
age of onset below 50 years
BMI below 25 kg/m²
personal and/or family history of autoimmune disease

A

NO
Only plasma glucose tests. No need for further investigations

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24
Q

When should you add Metformin in type 1 diabetes?

A

IF the BMI is >25kg/m2

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25
Q

How often should you recommend self-monitoring of blood glucose in diabetes?

A

recommend testing at least 4 times a day, including before each meal and before bed
more frequent monitoring is recommended if frequency of hypoglycaemic episodes increases; during periods of illness; before, during and after sport; when planning pregnancy, during pregnancy and while breastfeeding

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26
Q

What is the insulin regime of choice for type 1 diabetes?

A

Twice-daily insulin detemir
Multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens

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27
Q

Describe a typical insulin regime for a type 1 diabetic?

A

Insulin regimes are initiated by a specialist in diabetes. Patients are usually initiated on a basal-bolus regime.

The basal part refers to an injection of a long acting insulin, such as “Lantus”, typically in the evening. This gives a constant background insulin throughout the day.

The bolus part refers to an injection of a short acting insulin, such as “Actrapid”, usually three times a day before meals. This is also injected according to the number of carbohydrates consumed every time the patient has a snack.

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28
Q

Under what circumstance would your HbA1c target be 53mmol/mol <7.0%) in a type 2 diabetic?

A

Any drug which may cause hypoglycaemia (lifestyle and sulfonylruea)

29
Q

How should you diagnose asthma in patients under the age of 5?

A

Those who are unable to perform the objective tests
Use clinical judgement based on symptoms

30
Q

What symptoms would make you suspect asthma?

A

Presence of more than one variable symptom of wheeze, cough, breathlessness and chest tightness
- Symptoms are commonly episodic, diurnal (worse at night or in the early morning)
- Triggered by exercise, viral infection and exposure to cold air or allergens
- Expiratory polyphonic wheeze

31
Q

How do you check for occupational asthma?

A

High-risk in welding, baking, animal handling and paint spraying.

Ask
- Are symptoms better on days away from work?
- Are symptoms better when on holiday?

32
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of asthma

A
  • Chronic inflammatory airway disease
  • Reversible airway obstruction
  • The smooth muscle is hypersensitive
  • Responds to stimuli by constricting causing airflow obstruction
33
Q

What is a key finding on auscultating the lungs in a patient with asthma?

A

They will have a widespread polyphonic expiratory wheeze

34
Q

What if the patient has a monophonic wheeze? Then what will you be thinking?

A

Inhaled foreign body
Tumour
Thick sticky mucus plug obstructing an airway

35
Q

What percentage of peak flow variability is a positive result with a peak flow diary?

A

More than 20%

36
Q

What is a direct bronchial challenge testing?

A

is the opposite of reversibility testing. Inhaled histamine or methacholine is used to stimulate bronchoconstriction, reducing the FEV1 in patients with asthma. NICE say a PC20 (provocation concentration of methacholine causing a 20% reduction in FEV1) of 8 mg/ml or less is a positive test result.

37
Q

What factors can affect a FeNO reading?

A
  • Smoking can depress it
  • Steroid use
38
Q

What is a MART inhaler?

A

Maintenance and relief therapy
LABA and ICS

39
Q

Why are powder inhaler preferred to MDI’s?

A

They have better lung deposition

40
Q

What do you go over in an asthma review?

A
  • Number of asthma attacks
  • Adherence
  • Nocturnal symptoms
  • Smoking status
  • Spirometry and variability testing
  • Observe and give advice on the person’s inhaler technique
41
Q

What is emphysema?

A

Involves damage and dilatation of the alveolar sacs and alveoli, decreasing the surface area for gas exchange

42
Q

What are some non-pharmacological management options for COPD?

A
  • Smoking cessation
  • Pulmonary rehabilitation
  • Annual influenza vaccination
  • One off pneumococcal
  • LTOT
43
Q

What are indications for surgery for COPD?

A
  • Upper lobe predominant emphysema
  • FEV1 >20% predicted
  • PaCO2 <7.3kPa
  • TLCO >20%
44
Q

What is pulmonary rehabilitation and how often do you attend it?

A
  • Specialised MDT approach
  • Exercises
  • Breathing techniques
  • Every 3 years
45
Q

What is the difference between breathlessness in asthma and COPD?

A

Continuous and worsening breathlessness
Asthma variable

46
Q

How can you tell the difference between asthma and COPD?

A

Asthma more common to wake up at night breathless
Asthma is more likely to have diurnal symptoms

47
Q

Why do you do a blood test for someone presenting with heart failure?

A

In case they are anaemic.
Patients can present with chest pain

48
Q

Why are urea and electrolytes important in heart failure managment?

A

Baseline
Especially if you are starting them on ramipril

49
Q

Why do you do LFTs in a patient with heart failure?

A

LFTs- in case they will go on a statin

50
Q

What would you start someone on with angina?

A

GTN spray
Aspirin
Bisoprolol

51
Q

What is a characteristic of ischemic heart disease pain?

A

Exertional pain

52
Q

What further blood tests are indicated in high lipid levels?

A
  • Thyroid function (hypothyroidism can cause increase fat)
  • Fasting glucose
  • Renal function tests
  • Liver function tests
53
Q

Why is aspirin cardioprotective?

A
  • Aspirin inhibits the enzyme COX.
  • COX is involved in producing prostaglandins, which promote inflammation and blood clot formation.
  • By inhibiting COX, aspirin reduces the production of thromboxane A2, a prostaglandin that promotes platelet aggregation and blood clot formation.
  • This helps prevent the formation of new blood clots and reduces the risk of clot-related events like heart attacks and strokes.
  • Aspirin also has anti-inflammatory properties, which may further contribute to its cardioprotective effects by reducing inflammation in blood vessels and decreasing the likelihood of plaque rupture.
54
Q

When is a fasting glucose test used?

A

In those whom HbA1c is not considered diagnostic (children, gestational diabetes, hemoglobinopathy)

In asymptomatic patients with a normal second test, active surveillance is recommended.

55
Q

How often should you check your blood glucose levels if you are a diabetic driving?

A

Insulin-dependent diabetics must check their blood glucose every 2 hours whilst driving

56
Q

How to remember lytic bone lesions?

A

Lytic Bone Lesions:
Mnemonic: “FEG NOC”

Fibrous Dysplasia
Eosinophilic Granuloma
Giant Cell Tumour
Non-ossifying Fibroma
Osteoblastoma
Chondroblastoma

57
Q

How to remember sclerotic bone lesions?

A

Sclerotic Bone Lesions:
Mnemonic: “MGM STOP”

Metastases (Prostate, Breast)
Gardner’s Syndrome
Myelofibrosis
Sclerotic Osteosarcoma
Tuberculosis (chronic)
Osteopetrosis
Paget’s Disease

58
Q

What type of lesion occurs from renal cell carcinoma

A

Lytic

59
Q

What type of lesion comes from chondrocarcinoma?

A

Lytic

60
Q

Briefly outline what the NHS healthcheck is used for.

A

The NHS health check occurs for patients aged 40-74, aims to prevent stroke, heart attack, kidney disease and dementia

61
Q

What is measured in an NHS healthcheck?

A
  • Medical history
  • BMI, weight, blood pressure and pulse
  • Lipid profile, HbA1C
  • QRISK3
62
Q

List two criteria for the diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) according to NICE guidelines.

A

eGFR < 60 ml/min/1.73 m² for more than 3 months.

Evidence of kidney damage (e.g., albuminuria) for more than 3 months.

63
Q

Describe the action of SGLT-2 inhibitors

A

Mechanism of Action
Normal Physiology:
SGLT-2 is responsible for reabsorbing approximately 90% of filtered glucose back into the bloodstream from the renal tubular fluid.
This co-transporter uses the sodium gradient created by the sodium-potassium ATPase pump to facilitate glucose reabsorption.

Action of SGLT-2 Inhibitors:
SGLT-2 inhibitors block the SGLT-2 co-transporter.
By inhibiting this transporter, these medications prevent glucose reabsorption in the PCT.
Consequently, glucose is excreted in the urine, leading to a reduction in blood glucose levels.

64
Q

How long before a meal should you take short acting insulin?

A

25 minutes before

65
Q

How long does short acting insulin take to work, how long does it last?

A

Short-acting insulin takes about 30 to 60 minutes to start working and lasts 5 to 8 hours.

66
Q

How often do you have well man checks/NHS checks

A

Every 5 years
From ages 40-74

67
Q

What are the differences between conus medullaris syndrome and cauda equina syndrome?

A

Key Differences
Level of Injury:

CMS: Injury at the conus medullaris (L1-L2).
CES: Injury to the nerve roots below the conus medullaris (cauda equina).
Symmetry of Symptoms:

CMS: Typically bilateral and symmetrical.
CES: Often asymmetrical and can be unilateral.
Motor and Sensory Function:

CMS: Motor weakness tends to be less severe, sensory loss is more likely to be symmetrical.
CES: Motor weakness can be more pronounced, with asymmetrical sensory loss.
Reflex Changes:

CMS: Mixed reflex changes (brisk knee reflexes, absent ankle reflexes).
CES: Generally hyporeflexia or areflexia in the lower limbs.
Bladder and Bowel Dysfunction:

CMS: More likely to present early and be severe.
CES: May present later, but still significant.

68
Q

Why is HbA1C not used in type 1 diabetes?

A

HbA1c can be used in the diagnosis, but cannot fully be relied upon as early type 1 diabetes can have fluctuating glucose values over a short period of time. Therefore, it is not the preferred method.