Long's IPM Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What do microorganisms use as a source of food?

2. What is microflora?

A
  1. Reduced carbons e.g. humans

2. Population of microorganisms. They have a resident population but also transient that can change

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2
Q

What is symbiosis and what are the symbiotic associations with microbes?

A

Symbiosis are different organisms coming into contact with each other.

Mutualism ↔ commensalism ↔ parasitism

If relationship moves towards mutualism, then re-establishment of a healthy host occurs. If relationship moves towards parasitism then infectious disease process begins.

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3
Q

What is commensalism?

A

Microorganism associated with host e.g. human for a source of food and shelter but causes no harm to host.

Host can benefit as well from metabolism of commensal microorganisms (normal microflora). If host and commensal are separated both will survive independently. However the defence system in the host must ensure the microorganism stays at a restricted anatomical site and doesn’t replicate above a certain number.

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4
Q

What is mutualism?

A

Host and microorganism completely dependent on each other. If they are separated, they die. It is not really present in humans but prevalent in animals e.g.) cattles have mutualistic organisms that break down cellulose wall in plants.

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5
Q

What is parasitism?

A

Microorganism (now parasite) causing harm to host when using it as a good source (moves anatomical site and increases in numbers).

E.coli moving from colon to urinary tract will cause a UTI

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6
Q

Why is the skin not an ideal place for microbial growth?

A

Impermeable barrier to outside world.
Very inhospitable place for majority of microbes to grow as the horny layer is dead.
Secretions of the skin also make it hostile (salt, oil, enzymes that attack microbes)
Microorganisms that survive tend to be present on mucosal surface (GI tract, inner mouth)

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7
Q

What microorganisms are associated with the skin?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (gram +ve cocci)

Propionibacterium acnes = anaerobic organism living deep within hair follicle (most common organism on the skin)

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8
Q

Where does most microflora generally reside in the respiratory tract and name two examples.

A

Mainly in inner layers of the nose and oropharynx (back of throat)

Neisseria Meningitidis (gram -ve cocci)
Streptococcus pneumoniae (gram +ve cocci)

These remain commensal in most individuals . These organisms can be colonised by pathogenic organisms yet they do not have signs/symptoms of disease due to immune response. This is colonisation not infection, however one person’s colonisation is another person’s infection.

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9
Q
  1. Why is there not a huge resident population of microbes in the oral cavity?
  2. What kind of microbes generally survive and why?
A
  1. Secretion of saliva that contains lysosomes that attack glycosidic linkage in peptidoglycan (physical washing removes organisms).
  2. Some can survive, especially anaerobic gram +ve bacteria in between the teeth that live in the gums (responsible for gum disease and tooth decay). They are resistant to physical degradation of saliva and they attach to enamel.
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10
Q
  1. The respiratory tract hasn’t got a huge population of organisms and if there are, it is usually transient. Why?
  2. What are some exceptions to this?
A
  1. Due to mucous secretions and cilia to wash away and remove mucous in microorganisms (mechanical motion)
    Lower respiratory tract contains cells that feed off microorganisms via phagocytosis (alveolar macrophage)
  2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, TB, streptococcus pneumoniae, influenza virus)
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11
Q

Why is there isn’t there a huge amount of microorganisms in the upper GI tract (oesophagus and stomach)?

What are some exceptions?

A

Microorganisms are washed from oesophagus to stomach. In the stomach, there is a hostile environment and microbes are killed by acidic conditions (pH 2) , especially when digesting foods.

Helicobacter pylori, lactobacilli

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12
Q

Discuss the microorganism population in the colon.

A

Huge number of microorganisms present (faculative anaerobic and aerobic present).

The faeces contains a lot of microorganisms to control numbers within the body.

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13
Q

Discuss the microflora and the Genitourinary Tract

A

Tends not to have microflora except from the opening of the ureter

Kidneys constantly producing urine which is sterile in a healthy person.

In women, the uterine surface has large mucosal surface. Microflora is restricted to a few species due to acidic environment of the vagina. e.g. Lactobacillus can survive.

Vaginal epithelial surface produces glycogen which is then broken down by enzymes from epithelial surface producing lactose.
Lactobacillus metabolises this which lowers pH in vagina which controls microorganisms and maintains population

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14
Q

How does the environment of the vagina change with the menstrual cycle?

A

Microflora changes and this is where you can get signs and symptoms of disease such as thrush

Change of metabolism in vagina due to hormonal changes

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15
Q

Koch’s postulate is the criteria to establish a causative relationship between microbe and disease. What are they?

A
  • Organism must be found in all hosts with disease
  • Organism must be isolated in pure culture
  • Organism should produce the same disease when inoculated into a healthy host
  • Organism should be re-isolated in pure culture
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16
Q

What are the disadvantages of Koch’s postulates?

A
  • Doesn’t give you any idea of host as they may have an immune response (some may cause colonisation, some may cause infection)
  • Ethics issue
  • How do you know the organism is causing the disease and not something else?
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17
Q

What is the molecular version of Koch’s postulates?

A
  • Genes/their products have pathogenic potential
  • Genes should be found in all pathogenic strains but not in a virulent strain
  • Disruption of gene results in reduced virulence
  • Non-virulent strain can be transformed into virulent strain via gene cloning
  • Gene must be expressed during infectious process
  • Gene should elicit an immune response
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18
Q

What is a virulence factor?

A

Enables a host to cause a disease and contains characteristics responsible for transmission.

They can be endotoxins or exotoxins

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19
Q

What are the stages of infection?

A
  1. Transmission of pathogen
  2. Adhesion and colonisation of the host
  3. Invasion of pathogen
  4. Growth and multiplication
  5. Evasion of immune response
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20
Q

The first stage of infection is transmission of pathogen. How can a pathogen be transmitted?

A
  • Direct/indirect contact
  • Airbourne
  • Dustbourne
  • Via insect vector
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21
Q

The second stage of infection of adhesion and colonisation of the host. In what ways can adhesion occur?

A
  • Via pili to certain receptors. Pili = protein fibre bundles that can break down easy so is very transient adhesion. E.coli attaches this way onto epithelial surface on urinary tract. It can be advantageous as an immune defence system can kick and attack its own pili.
  • Adhesion via F proteins (afibral) = much tighter adhesion
  • Biofilm formation- microorganisms can secrete mucous polysaccharide polymers, sticking to epithelial surface, which is a safer place for microorganisms to grow and more mucous is secreted e.g.) Pseudomonas.

Biofilms can move against gravity causing an ascending infection, such as E.coli moving up to kidneys especially those who have catheters as biofilms are formed in plastic tubes

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22
Q

Discuss the third stage of infection, invasion of pathogen and the different ways in which invasion occurs.

A
  • Physically move its way between junctions between cells
  • Transportation
  • Make cells (which are normally phagocytic-causing cells) to rearrange actin skeleton
  • Use bacterial resin to attach
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23
Q

Discuss the fourth stage of infection, growth and multiplication.

A
  • Free iron is limiting in natural environments
  • Siderophores ( catechols/hydroxymates) chelate free iron
  • Exotoxins can release bound iron from cells
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24
Q

Discuss the fifth stage of infection, evasion of immune response

A

Will cause symptoms and signs of disease if it evades immune system

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25
Q

What is opsonisation?

A

Immune system process where particles such as bacteria are targeted for destruction via phagocytes. Process where a pathogen is marked in order for it to be phagocytosed.

Opsonisation with antibody greatly increases adherence to phagocytes

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26
Q

What are exotoxins and give examples of them

A

Proteins produced by vegetated microbial cells secreted into the environment
- A-B toxins (Diphtheria, Cholera)
- Hydrolytic enzymes
- Bacterial Products:
Neurotoxin (C.tetani)
Enterotoxin (Escherichia coli, salmonella)
Cytotoxin (S.aureus, C.Difficile)

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27
Q

What are A-B toxins?

A
  • Exotoxins
  • Divided by structure (A and B portion)
  • A portion is catalytic active subunit
  • B portion is binding subunit specificity
  • Linked by disulphide bond which breaks and separates A and B
  1. ADP ribosylates the toxin
  2. Removes ADP ribose from NAD, then uses ADP ribose to ribosylate target protein - effect depends on protein (usually inactivates it)
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28
Q

What is the mode of action of the exotocin, botulinum toxin?

A
  • Normally, acetylcholine induces contraction of muscle fibres
  • The toxin blocks release of acetylcholine inhibiting contraction from pre-synaptic membrane
  • Induces flacid paralysis
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29
Q

What is the mode of action of the exotoxin, tetanus toxin?

A

Normally, glycine releases stops acetylcholine release and allows muscle relaxation

Tetanus bind to inhibitory interneurons preventing glycine release - spastic paralysis

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30
Q

What are super antigens?

A
  • Normal antigen presentation- a small subset of t cells are not produced and cascade pathway occurs to form antibody
  • Superantigens cause non-specific activation of T cells causing XS IL-2 production, which stimulates TNFa anf other cytokines by other cells to induce shock
  • Can start to attack the body due to this massive immune response resulting in tissue breakdown

e. g) streptococcus pyogenes:
- Membrane activating
- Also produces a-toxin which affects pore formation causing swelling, cell lysis, releasing the cell contents as a food source for microorganisms

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31
Q

Explain the exotoxin Lecithinase of Clostridium Perfringens

A
  • Membrane activating
  • Phospholipase breaks phosphate groups in glycerol
  • Phosphate groups by themself are charged making them unstable and the membrane breaks down
  • RBCs are also broken down to try and get a source of iron
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32
Q

Explain the exotocin effect of hydrolytic enzymes

A
  • Lipase, amylase
  • Virulence factors
  • Hyaluronidases and proteases disrupt tissue structure
  • This allows spread and nutrients
  • Necrotising fascilitis caused by Group A streptococci
  • Treat with Broad spectrum ABX and ITU
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33
Q

What are endotoxins?

A
  • Only released when cell has died
  • Lipid A portion in lipid polysaccharide layer in gram -ve so endotoxins are also known as Lipopolysaccharides
  • Stimulate cytokine release to induce septic shock
  • Found in outer membrane of gram -ve bacteria
  • Can occur in gram +ve (usually from peptidogylcan)
34
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of sepsis?

A
  • Body temperature > 38 or <36
  • HR > 90bpm
  • Resp rate > 20 breaths/min (normal resp rate is 12-20)
  • WBC >12 or <4 x10^9/L
35
Q

What are the risk factors for sepsis?

A
  • Age extremes
  • Chronic medical condition
  • Surgery/trauma
  • Hospitalisation
  • IV cannula, urinary catheter
36
Q

Give examples of biochemical, chemical and physical defences in terms of innate immune response?

A

Biochemical - lysozyme, sebaceous gland secretions, commensal organisms in gut and vagina, spermine in semen

Chemical and phsyical - mucous, cilia lining in trachea, acid in stomach, skin

37
Q

How does the human immune system distinguish between non-self and human tissue?

A
  • Possess very different proteins that allow them to survive in their niche
  • Immune system recognises different amino acid sequences
  • May have some enzymes in common but the difference is still recognised
  • Some self cells can be recognised as non-self, such as cancer cells
  • Absence of MHC class 1 - non-self and NK cells will destroy these cells
38
Q

What is humoral factors in immunity?

A

Involves body fluids- soluble chemicals such as proteins

39
Q

What are neutrophils?

A
  • Long living
  • Make up most of WBC count
  • Phagocytic with microorganisms and recgonise non-self via opsonisation with C3b
40
Q

What are monocytes?

A
  • Short living
  • Differentiate into macrophages
  • Macrophages settle onto epithelial surfaces (instead of moving around like neutrophils)
41
Q

What happens in phagocytosis?

A
  • Involves pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMP)
  • Phagosome is formed
  • Granule fusion and killing complete formation of phagolysosome (phagosome + lysosome)
  • Release of microbial products (cell debris)
42
Q

What do neutrophils do?

A
  • Attracted to sites of infection by C3a and release vacuole contents after phagocytosis
  • Chemical marker = C3a as it circulates within cardiovascular and lymph system and can move into tissue
43
Q

Where does cell debris go after phagocytosis?

A

Circulates in blood and lymph until it reaches the liver.

44
Q

What is the acute inflammatory response?

A
  • In the liver, cell debris stimulates acute phase proteins= C3, mannose binding lectin, CRP. They all amplify the innate response via opsonisation
  • Mast cell degranulation occurs via C3a stimulation
  • Histamine has a local effect on epithelial tissue resulting in diapedesis (blood cells moving through walls of capillary, usually accompanies inflammation)
45
Q

What is the extra immune defence mechanism in the body against gram -ve bacteria? Why is this additional mechanism needed?

A
  • Harder to attack gram -ve due to thick outer membrane hence why this happens
  • Formation of C5 convertase (via C3 convertase + C3b)
  • C5b forms a membrane attack complex which can penetrate the lipid polysaccharide layer
46
Q

What is the difference between innate and adaptive immunity?

A
  • Innate = non-specific. The cells respond in a generic way and is a short term defence system.
  • Adaptive = specific. Based on antigen-antibody generator. It is a long term defence system. Has to be specific for a given antigen or epitope. Adaptive immunity contains memory and may never be used depending on exposure.
47
Q

What are the different parts of an antibody?

A

Antibodies are flexible proteins consisting of heavy and light chains

FC region

  • Activates innate immunity
  • Part of the protein on FC receptor activates classical complement pathway as you need to have an antibody present to initate this (via protein c1). C1 will bind to FC region on antibody to increase vascular permeability and chemotaxis

FAB region

  • Fragment that is antigen binding
  • Have variable amino acid sequences for specificity
  • Can use enzymes to break up FC and FAB via breakage of disulphide bridges
  • Antibody tgs antigen for attack

Production of antibodies = humoral immune system and forms the link between innate and adpative immunity

48
Q

What is an epitope?

A

Part of antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself

49
Q

What is the primary response?

A
  • 1st exposure
  • Builds up antibodies after exposure and lymphocytes properly
  • After this, memory cells are produced and stored in primary lymphoid tissue
  • Usually have IgM forming as it has many antigen binding sites (high energy process)
50
Q

What is the secondary response?

A
  • 2nd exposure and onwards
  • Can produce antibodies more quickly to fight infection
  • Antibody switching can occur from IgM to IgG as it is more efficient (faster and more powerful)
51
Q

Why is it important to have tolerance in our immune system?

A

To prevent auto-immunity as some of our proteins may be similar to microbial proteins

52
Q

What is the most common and least common antibody?

A

Most common = IgG

Least common = IgE

53
Q

How is genetic diversity and antibody specificity achieved?

A
  • Removal of genes you don’t want during gene expression and recombine genes from the library when it is transcribed
  • Somatic mutation and variation in mRNA splicing (removing introns)
54
Q

How do antibodies protect mucosal surfaces?

A
  • IgA = secreted onto mucosal surfaces
  • Microorganism can cross mucosal surface which stimulates production of IgE as well which degranulates mast cells
  • Needs at least 2 IgE molecules as they will cross link mast cell receptors
  • Histamine release will affect permeability of tissue so innate immunity molecules can come in and protect the body
55
Q

What is Antibody Dependent Cell Mediated Cytotoxicity?

A
  • Effector cell of immune system lyses target cell
  • Usually mediated by IgG causing metabolic damage
  • IgE - inflammatory response
  • T cells stimulate lymphokines which stimulates goblet cells resulting in expulsion of debris
  • T lymphocytes stimulate B lymphocytes to produce antibodies
56
Q

What two ways can bacteria damage a host and what is the response?

A
  1. Toxic. Body’s response is antibody to toxins for neutralisation
  2. Invasive. Body’s response: can neutralise spreading factors (hyaluronidase)
57
Q

What is a B-cell antigen receptor?

A
  • Transmembrane receptor protein located on outer surface of b cells
  • Uses antibody as a receptor specific for epitope
  • Has 2 parts:
    1. membrane bound antibody isotope (IgG, IgE etc)
    2. Signal transduction moiety (heterodimer e.g. Ig alpha or beta) bound via disulphide bridges
58
Q

What is the thymus and its role in the immune system?

A

Specialised primary lymphoid organ of the immune system

T cells mature here

59
Q

How do NK cells play a role in adaptive cell-mediated immunity?

A

Natural Killer cells recognise cells lacking MHC Class 1 as an innate response

60
Q

What are the 4 types of hypersensitivity?

A
  1. Anaphylatic
  2. Antibody dependent cytotoxic hypersensitivity
  3. Complex mediated hypersensitivity
  4. Cell mediated/delayed type
61
Q

Discuss the anaphylatic type of hypersensitivity

A

Presence of allergen- cross linking between IgE, more antibody to bind causing more mast cell granulation than normal.
Mast cell releases newly synthesised and performed mediators (histamine) so much that it causes anaphylaxis

62
Q

Discuss the antibody-dependent cytotoxic hypersensitivity

A

e.g.) Blood transfusion. Antibodies against these new erythrocytes and the erythrocytes are treated as non-self and broken down
Extracellular cytotoxic attack (K cells, Tg cells, myeloid cells)

63
Q

Discuss the complex mediated hypersensitivity

A

Usually once non-self has been neutralised, the complexes formed in immune response will be cleared. If it takes longer, it is recognised as non-self.

This causes formation of anti-antibodies

64
Q

Discuss the cell mediated/delayed type hypersensitivity

A
  • Occurs in the skin
  • Macrophage in the skin, presenting antigen on their surface. There is a cytotoxic response which produces TH1 cells and in doing so, TH1 cells release cytokines to activate T killer cells
  • Becomes cytotoxic to the macrophage itself and granuloma growths form e.g.) Leprosy
  • Can also be cytotoxic to the antigen/MHC Class 2
  • Advantage- TB vaccination, granulomas form if being exposed to TB before (secondary immune response)
65
Q

What is selective vaccination?

A
  • Only given to those at highest risk
  • Travel
  • Occupational (anthrax), needle stick injuries
  • Outbreak control
  • High risk groups e.g. HepB vaccine for neonates born to HepB +ve mothers
66
Q

What are the 3 types of mass vaccination?

A
  1. Eradication- Disease and causal agent removed worldwide (smallpox)
  2. Elimination- Disease disappeared from one region but remains elsewhere
  3. Containment- Disease no longer a significant public health problem e.g. Haemophilus Influenza B
67
Q

What is herd immunity?

A
  • Only applies to diseases that are passed on from human to human
  • For each disease, there is a certain level of immunity in the population which protects the whole population
  • Disease can be eradicated even if there are people who remain susceptible
  • Provides indirect protection of unvaccinated as well as vaccinated individuals
68
Q

What are the aims of an ideal vaccine?

A
  • Produces same immune protection which usually follows natural infection but without causing disease
  • Generates long lasting immunity (enough memory cells that when exposed to infection again, you mount a secondary immune response)
  • Interrupts spread of infection
69
Q

How does a vaccine work?

A
  1. Vaccine is taken up by APC
  2. Activates T and B cells to give memory cells
  3. Generates TH and cytotoxic T Killer cells to several epitopes
  4. Antigen persists to continue to recruit B memory cells and produce high affinity antibody
70
Q

What is the difference between active and passive immunisation?

A

Passive- Antitoxins and immunoglobulins which provide immediate source of antibody

Active:
- Live vaccines (weakened organism which replicates in the host)

  • Killed/inactivated/subunit vaccines (Killed microorganisms, inactivated toxins or other subunits)
71
Q

What is passive immunity?

A
  • Immunoglobulins = concentrated antibody preparations given IM/IV to provide immediate short-term protection against disease
  • For high risk people of experiencing severe disease/developing complications from the disease
  • Only for a few weeks/months
  • Does not stimulate immune response to produce any antibodies

Examples:

  • Palirizumab to prevent RSV
  • Diphtheria anti-toxin (used for treatment not protection)
72
Q

What are live vaccines?

A

Attenuated strains which replicate in host:

  • Weakened virus/bacterium so cannot cause disease in healthy people
  • Closest to actual infection - results in strong, long-lasting immune response
73
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of live vaccines?

A

Advantages:

  • Single dose often sufficient
  • Strong immune system evoked
  • Local and systemic immunity produced

Disadvantages:

  • Poor stability
  • Potential to revert to virulence
  • Contraindicated in immunosuppressed patients
  • Potential for contamination
  • Interference by viruses/vaccines and passive antibody
74
Q

What are inactivated vaccines?

A
  • Suspensions of whole intact killed organisms, such as influenza, rabies
    OR
  • Acellular and subunit vaccines (Contain one or a few components of organisms important in protection) such as diphtheria toxoid
75
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of inactivated vaccines?

A

Advantages:

  • Stable
  • Constituents clearly defined
  • Unable to cause infection

Disadvantages:

  • Need several doses (boosters)
  • Local reactions common
  • Short lasting immunity
  • Adjuvant needed to keep vaccine at injection site and activates antigen presenting cell to increase body’s immune response
76
Q

What are conjugation vaccines?

A

Process of linking polysaccharide antigen to a protein carrier, such as diphtheria that the infant’s immune system already recognises in order to provoke an immune response

77
Q

What do you need to ensure with combination vaccines?

A
  • Combined antigens give just as good immune response compared to individual vaccines
  • Rate of adverse reactions are the same as if they were administered separately
78
Q

Name the components of vaccines other than the API

A
  • Adjuvants e.g. Aluminium salts to increase immune response to a vaccine
  • Preservatives e.g. thiomersal preventing contamination
  • Additives e.g. gelatin to stabilise vaccines from heat/freeze drying, maintaining a vaccine’s potency
  • Residuals from manufacturing process:

a) Streptomycin ABX preventing contamination during manufacturing process
b) Egg proteins as some vaccines are grown in chick embryo cells (Influenza)
c) Yeast proteins e.g. Hep B vaccine

79
Q

What are some side effects of vaccines?

A
  • Pain, swelling, redness at injection site
  • Small nodules at injection site
  • Fever
  • Headache
  • Nausea
80
Q

What are the two types of vaccine failures?

A
  1. Primary failure:
    Fails to make adequate immune response to initial vaccination
  2. Secondary failure:
    Individual makes adequate immune response initially but then immunity wanes over time (need for boosters)
81
Q

Identify the physical and chemical barriers that prevent colonisation and infection of the human body by microbial pathogens.

A
  • Skin – waterproof mechanical barrier that prevents pathogens from entering (unless the skin is damaged)
  • Tears and saliva contains enzymes such as lysozyme and amylase to break down cell walls in bacteria
  • Mucous trap pathogens in the body in places such as the respiratory tract
  • Cilia- little hairs to waft the pathogens and mucous out of the body via the mouth
  • Stomach acid pH 2 to destroy any ingested pathogens
  • Urine flushes out pathogens