LOD Flashcards
Using the maximum nosewheel steering of ________, the min runway width for a 180 degree turn is _______
72 degrees, 174’
What swings the largest arc during a turn?
The wing tip
How many cabin doors are there?
8
Flight deck emergency equipment?
PFD
Crash axe
Halon bottle
Escape hatch
PBE
Flashlight
Gloves
When do emergency exit lights illuminate?
AC, DC, and/or emergency power supply not available
How long do cabin oxygen masks last?
22 minutes
When do cabin oxygen masks automatically deploy?
Cabin altitude above 13,800’
How many portable oxygen bottles are in the cabin?
19
When is the oxygen pressure number green with an amber box?
Pressure is 350-700 psi
When is the oxygen number all amber
Pressure below 350 psi
What does REGUL PR LO mean?
- Oxygen crew supply PB is off
- Oxygen pressure in manifold is below 47 psi
Max operating altitude?
43100
Max takeoff and landing tailwind?
15 knots
Max crosswind for takeoff?
35 knots
Max crosswind for landing?
40 knots
On takeoff, the autopilot must not be engaged for ________?
5 seconds after lift off
After a go around, the autopilot must not be engaged below?
100 feet
Max wind for auto land?
Headwind - 40 knots
Crosswind - 30 knots
Tailwind - 15 knots
Do not extend the flaps above?
20,000’
How many flight attendants?
7
Wingspan?
212’ 5”
Length?
218’ 7”
Height?
55’ 3”
When do I get a red “CABIN PRESSURE” in the cabin door window?
On the Ground
Slide is disarmed
Differential pressure above .036
How many cargo doors?
3- forward, aft, and bulk
When does the logo light illuminate in the AUTO position?
On the ground OR slats extended
How many nose takeoff lights are there?
6
What powers emergency lights?
8 Emergency Power Supply Units (EPSUs)
Where do EPSUs get power?
Non essential DC power
OR
Internal battery packs for 10 minutes
When do emergency lights come on automatically?
DC power not available
OR
DC EMERGENCY power not available
OR
115V AC not available
What are the three oxygen systems?
Flight Crew
Passenger
Portable
When does the oxygen pressure display an amber half box?
Less than 1150 PSI
When does the oxygen pressure display all amber?
Less than 350 PSI
What is a BOMU
Bleed Overheat Monitoring Unit
The APU can provide bleed air for pressurization up to _____?
25,000’ for single pack
22,500’ for dual pack
The APU can provide air for inflight engine start up to _____?
25,000’
What is CSAS
Conditioned Air Service System
What is FTIS?
Fuel Tank Inerting System
Which 3 valves close when you turn the Engine Bleed Push Button off?
Bleed valve
HP valve
Overpressure valve
What does the ENGINE BLEED FAULT light mean?
Valve position disagrees
Over temperature
Over pressure
Reverse flow protection failed
Leak detected in the duct
What does the APU BLEED FAULT light mean?
APU running and valve failed closed
Leak detected in the duct
When will a Pack Valve close?
Low pressure
FIRE PB is pressed
How many recirculation fans are there?
4
What is the TASOV
Trim air shutoff valve. It’s like the cross feed valve for trim air
What is the SCS
Supplemental Cooling System (to cool galleys)
What does PACK FAULT light mean?
Pack valve disagrees
Pack overheat
Pack failure
Bleed leak
What does HOT AIR FAULT light mean?
Overheat
What does BULK CARGO ISOL VALVES FAULT light mean?
Valves have failed OR disagree
The Cabin Temperature Selector at 12 o’clock sets _____
76 degrees F
What does the WING A-ICE amber message mean?
Valve disagree
Abnormal pressure
Does wing anti ice operate on the ground?
Yes, valves open 20 seconds then close until weight off wheels
Wing PB FAULT Light?
Without ON light,
Valve disagree, monitoring channels not in synch, leak detected
With ON light,
Valve disagree, control system faulty, abnormal pressure
ENG ANTI ICE PB FAULT Light?
FAULT LIGHT only -
Valve abnormally open
FAULT LIGHT AND ON Light -
Valve abnormally closed or system failed
When does PROBE AND WINDOW HEAT operate in AUTO?
When an engine is running
Wipers should not be used at speed greater than ______?
230 knots
RAIN REPELLENT is only operational when_____?
Engines are running
ENGINE ANTI ICE FAULT Light?
Valve disagree
System failed
Which slates does WING ANTI ICE heat?
3,4, and 5
When is the ice detection system operational
1500’ AGL
Wing Anti Ice valves close automatically when _____?
No airflow
Leak
AC power loss
SAT above 30 C
After 20 seconds on the ground
When can a second autopilot be engaged?
ILS or GLS approach after APPR PB is pushed
How many flight guidance computers (PRIMS)?
3
How many Flight Management Systems (FMS)?
3
On the Autoflight System Control Panel (AFS CP), which guidance has priority?
Selected over Managed
When do I get a red AUTO LAND light?
Below 200’ and unable to perform an auto land
What is the active auto thrust range with one engine inoperative?
Just above idle to Flex MCT
When FMA modes are blue they are?
Armed
How do I disengage auto thrust for the rest of the flight?
Hold the intuitive disconnect switch for 15 seconds
When is the CVR operating in the AUTO mode?
Engine start until 5 min after shutdown
What does the Auto Transformer Unit (ATU) do?
Converts 230V AC power to 115V AC power
What does the TR do?
The transformer rectifier converts 230V AC power to 28V DC
Gen FAULT PB light?
Generator failed or not running
GEN DRIVE FAULT PB Light?
Generator overheat or fault requiring the drive to be disconnected
In flight, the APU generator can replace up to _______ engine generators
2
The emergency generator is powered by the ______?
RAT, it deploys automatically with total AC power loss
What does the static inverter do?
Converts DC battery power to 115V AC power under certain conditions
What does the EMER GEN FAULT PB Light mean?
RAT is extending, OR
RAT is extended and not supplying power
How many batteries?
4
BAT 1+2, BAT EMER 1+2
BAT FAULT PB light?
Overcurrent
Overheat
Contractor failure
Power up test failure
What type of engine?
Rolls Royce Trent XWB-84, produces 84,200 lbs of thrust
How many Channels does each FADEC control?
2, only one is active at a time
At aircraft power up, the FADEC is powered for
15 minutes
The FADEC becomes self powered when?
Above 8% N3
Engine ignition must be manually selected on when?
Moderate rain
Moderate turbulence
Standing water or slush on runway
Continuous ignition is automatically activated when?
Inflight flameout
Heavy rain or hail
Inadvertent cycling of engine master lever
When does thrust go to Approach Idle?
Inflight, with gear extended OR flaps at 2,3, or FULL
Do not use max reverse below
70 knots
Reverse thrust is available when?
On ground
One FADEC operating
Reverse selected
Engine running
What does THR display in normal mode?
% of max thrust (N1) at TOGA power with bleed off
ENGINE MASTER LEVER FAULT Light?
Automatic start abort
Fuel valve disagree
Overthrust
Malfunction of thrust control
When does the engine attention getting box turn amber?
Engine failed
N1 or EGT Exceeds limit
Thrust reversers unlocked inflight
If both engines are operating in the degraded mode, what happens to auto thrust?
It disconnects
Min oil quantity for engine start?
14 quarts
Can I use APU bleed air for Wing Anti Ice?
No
APU MASTER SWITCH FAULT Light?
Automatic shutdown or APU failed
APU START PB AVAIL Light?
APU ready to supply bleed air and electrics
What is required to start the APU?
2 28 V DC batteries
230V AC power
What happens if there’s an APU fire on the ground?
APU automatically shuts down
APU discharges it’s fire extinguisher after 10 seconds
After three attempted APU starts, wait ______?
60 minutes
An engine fire warning is generated when______?
Both loops detect a fire
One loop detects if the other is failed
Both loops fail within 5 seconds of each other
How many fire warning loops are in the APU?
2
How many fire extinguisher bottles for the APU?
1
How many fire loops are in the main landing gear bay?
2
How many smoke detectors are needed to trigger a cargo smoke warning light?
2, or 1 with the other failed
How many smoke detector pairs in each cargo compartment?
Forward- 4
Aft- 3
Bulk- 1
How many fire bottles are there for the cargo fire extinguishing system?
2, for either forward or aft
How long does cargo fire bottle 2 discharge for?
5 hours
How many Flight Control Computers?
6
3 PRIMS and 3 SECS
What do Flight Control Computers actuate?
Aileron
Elevator
Rudder
Trimable Horizontal Stab (THS)
Spoilers
How many hydraulic actuator types are there?
3
Which spoilers assist in roll control?
3-7
Is there aileron trim?
No
When do speed brakes automatically extend?
VMO/MMO
EMERGENCY DESCENT MODE
When do speedbrakes automatically retract?
Alpha protection active
Low speed stability active
Go around
What is needed for speedbrake extension on landing?
Thrust levers idle
Spoiler armed
Gear compressed
Wheel speed greater than 72
On a rejected takeoff, ground spoilers extend when?
Idle
Greater than 72 knots
When is pitch trim automatically set for takeoff?
Engine start OR
Ground spoilers armed
What is the configuration if I select flaps 1 while airborne?
If below 203 knots, slats 1 flaps 1
If at or above 203 knots, slats 1 only
When is flap load relief available?
Configuration 2, 3, and Full
When does flap load relief retract flaps?
When VFE is exceeded by 2.5 knots
What is Normal Law?
The highest and most capable level of flight control automation and protection
What is Alternate Law?
A high level fly by wire capability, with many stabilities and protections including autopilot
What is Direct Law?
The lowest level of fly by wire capability. All protections and stabilities are lost, including autopilot.
What is Backup Control?
Provides control in the event of a loss of all flight control computers
In Normal Law, what protections are provided?
Pitch
Roll
Over and under speed
Angle of attack
Load factor
What are load factor limits in Direct Law?
Slats retracted -1 to 2.5
Slats extended 0 to 2
What is the bank angle limit in Normal Law?
67 degrees
What is the pitch attitude limit in Normal Law?
-15 degrees to 30 degrees
Side stick must be held to achieve a bank angle greater than _____?
33 degrees
What is the max roll rate?
15 degrees per second
What are the phases of flight for Normal Law?
Ground
Inflight
Flare
When does Normal Law Flight Mode begin and end?
5 seconds after liftoff until 100’ on approach
When is the Low Energy Warning available in manual flight?
Configuration 2, 3, or FULL
Between 100’ and 2500’ for landing
Between 200’ and 2500’ for takeoff
When is the low energy warning available in auto flight?
Always
How do I know I’m in Normal Law?
Green equal signs on the PFD
How do I know I’m in Alternate Law?
Amber XX on the PFD
How do I know I’m in Direct Law?
USE MAN PITCH TRIM message on the PFD
When can I use the DISPLAY CYCLE Switch?
When the green AVAIL light is on
What is the CRC?
Continuous Repetitive Chime
What is the ECAM?
Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor
What is the OIS?
Onboard information system
What is the KCCU?
Keyboard cursor control unit
What does an amber half box in the Fuel on Board label mean?
Fuel in at least one tank is not useable
When does TO Inhibit memo display?
Between takeoff thrust and 1500’ or 2 minutes after liftoff
When does Landing Inhibit memo display?
Between 800’ and 60 seconds after slowing through 80 knots
How are dispatch messages ordered?
Most current on top
What does a flashing FAULT light in the IR PB mean?
Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode
What does the ADIRS ON BAT light mean?
One or more ADIRUs are supplied by batteries
How do I do a fast alignment?
Go from NAV to OFF and back to NAV in under 5 seconds
What does each ADIRU use for position?
IRs
GNSS
Radio NAVAIDS
What is an EPU
Estimated Position Uncertainty. NM radius around the aircraft where the aircraft is in that position 95% of the time.
When am I in NAV PRIMARY mode?
NAV mode is IRS/GNSS
NAV accuracy is high (EPU<RNP)
What flight control law am I in if PFDs display ISIS inertial data?
Direct law
In the polar region (82 degrees N), what happens if I don’t manually select True North?
Autopilot disconnect
Max slope
2 %
Max takeoff and landing altitude
10,000’
How much fuel can be carried?
243,400 pounds
Wing fuel tank capacity?
51,600 pounds
Max fuel imbalance?
6,600 pounds
Fuel center tank capacity?
140,000 pounds
What does it mean when a fuel tank quantity number is in an amber box?
Fuel not useable
What does it mean when a wing fuel tank quantity number is in a half amber box?
Some fuel not useable
What does it mean when a wing fuel tank quantity number is underlined?
Fuel imbalance
When do I get a WING LO LEVEL?
Less than 3500 lbs in a wing tank
What does the OVERFLOW message on the fuel page mean?
Overflow of the surge tank detected
Fuel Pump PB FAULT light?
Low pressure or pump has failed
Can I gravity feed the engines?
Wing tank- yes
Center tank- no
Fuel CENTER TANK FEED FAULT light?
Fuel distribution incorrect
Low fuel level
When do I get a FUEL LEVEL LO caution?
<3500 lbs in a wing tank
How can I close the low pressure fuel valves?
Engine Master Lever
Engine Fire PB
Which fuel pump normally runs the APU?
Left center
How does fuel move from wing tank to center tank?
Gravity transfer
Which fuel pumps are available in the emergency electrical configuration?
L and R main tank
Amber range of fuel temperature?
Below -40 degrees C
Above 50
When is predictive wind shear operative?
On the ground and inflight below 1500’
When does the weather radar turn on?
Takeoff OR
Manually after engine start
When is weather radar turned off?
60 seconds after landing
On the ground with no engine
On the ground with flaps up
What do I need to display weather radar on the VD?
Terrain function
How is turbulence displayed on the ND?
Magenta
Can I select weather and terrain at the same time on my ND?
No
When do I get a terrain caution? Warning?
60 seconds from terrain
30 seconds from terrain
How is a corrective TCAS RA displayed?
Red and green on the IVSI
In ABOVE Mode, TCAS shows traffic ________?
2700’ below to 9900’ above
How many engine driven Hydraulic pumps are there?
4
Normal hydraulic pressure?
5,000 psi
What powers hydraulics on the ground if engines are off?
1 Electric motor pump (EMP)
How do I close a hydraulic fire shutoff valve (FSOV)?
ENG FIRE PB
OR
ENG SUPPLY PB
Hydraulic Engine Driven Pump FAULT light?
Low pressure
Low reservoir fluid
High temperature
Reservoir overheated
Is closing the hydraulic Fire Shutoff Valve (FSV) reversible?
No
When are electric hydraulic pumps inhibited?
After engine start
Which electric pump automatically operates the cargo doors
Yellow
What controls the hydraulic system?
HMC -Hydraulic Monitor and Control
What is the impact of one hydraulic pump instead of 2?
Longer gear retraction time
How do flight controls operate with a complete loss of hydraulics?
EHA- electro hydrostatic actuators
OR
EBHA- electrical backup hydraulic actuators
How do brakes work with loss of hydraulics?
Accumulator
How do slats and outer flaps work with a loss of hydraulics?
Electric motors
Which hydraulic system operates nose gear retraction?
Yellow
Which hydraulic system operates the main gear and doors?
Green
When do I get a GEAR NOT DOWN WARNING?
Below 750’
Max landing gear speed?
250 knots (0.55 Mach)
Max gear extension altitude?
21,000
Max landing gear gravity extension speed?
220 knots
What are the 4 braking modes?
Normal
Alternate
Emergency
Park brake
Below _______ psi in the accumulator, I lose anti skid brakes
1600
Below _______ psi in the accumulator, I lose all braking modes
1400
Do I have anti skid in alternate braking?
Yes
Do I have anti skid or auto brakes in emergency braking?
No
How many brake applications do I get in emergency braking mode?
6
What is the max brake temperature for takeoff?
300 degrees C
When do basic auto brakes activate?
Ground spoilers extend and nosewheel on ground
OR
Five seconds after ground spoilers extend
What deactivates auto brakes?
Ground spoilers retract
Auto thrust disconnect PB
Manual brakes
Park brake
When does RTO braking engage?
Ground spoilers extend
Speed above 40 knots
What speed does BTV braking slow you to?
10 knots
What are the 2 variable speed modes?
Speed and Mach
RAT min speed?
140 knots
