LOD Flashcards
1
Q
Using the maximum nosewheel steering of ________, the min runway width for a 180 degree turn is _______
A
72 degrees, 174’
2
Q
What swings the largest arc during a turn?
A
The wing tip
3
Q
How many cabin doors are there?
A
8
4
Q
Flight deck emergency equipment?
A
PFD
Crash axe
Halon bottle
Escape hatch
PBE
Flashlight
Gloves
5
Q
When do emergency exit lights illuminate?
A
AC, DC, and/or emergency power supply not available
6
Q
How long do cabin oxygen masks last?
A
22 minutes
7
Q
When do cabin oxygen masks automatically deploy?
A
Cabin altitude above 13,800’
8
Q
How many portable oxygen bottles are in the cabin?
A
19
9
Q
When is the oxygen pressure number green with an amber box?
A
Pressure is 350-700 psi
10
Q
When is the oxygen number all amber
A
Pressure below 350 psi
11
Q
What does REGUL PR LO mean?
A
- Oxygen crew supply PB is off
- Oxygen pressure in manifold is below 47 psi
12
Q
Max operating altitude?
A
43100
13
Q
Max takeoff and landing tailwind?
A
15 knots
14
Q
Max crosswind for takeoff?
A
35 knots
15
Q
Max crosswind for landing?
A
40 knots
16
Q
On takeoff, the autopilot must not be engaged for ________?
A
5 seconds after lift off
17
Q
After a go around, the autopilot must not be engaged below?
A
100 feet
18
Q
Max wind for auto land?
A
Headwind - 40 knots
Crosswind - 30 knots
Tailwind - 15 knots
19
Q
Do not extend the flaps above?
A
20,000’
20
Q
How many flight attendants?
A
7
21
Q
Wingspan?
A
212’ 5”
22
Q
Length?
A
218’ 7”
23
Q
Height?
A
55’ 3”
24
Q
When do I get a red “CABIN PRESSURE” in the cabin door window?
A
On the Ground
Slide is disarmed
Differential pressure above .036
25
How many cargo doors?
3- forward, aft, and bulk
26
When does the logo light illuminate in the AUTO position?
On the ground OR slats extended
27
How many nose takeoff lights are there?
6
28
What powers emergency lights?
8 Emergency Power Supply Units (EPSUs)
29
Where do EPSUs get power?
Non essential DC power
OR
Internal battery packs for 10 minutes
30
When do emergency lights come on automatically?
DC power not available
OR
DC EMERGENCY power not available
OR
115V AC not available
31
What are the three oxygen systems?
Flight Crew
Passenger
Portable
32
When does the oxygen pressure display an amber half box?
Less than 1150 PSI
33
When does the oxygen pressure display all amber?
Less than 350 PSI
34
What is a BOMU
Bleed Overheat Monitoring Unit
35
The APU can provide bleed air for pressurization up to _____?
25,000’ for single pack
22,500’ for dual pack
36
The APU can provide air for inflight engine start up to _____?
25,000’
37
What is CSAS
Conditioned Air Service System
38
What is FTIS?
Fuel Tank Inerting System
39
Which 3 valves close when you turn the Engine Bleed Push Button off?
Bleed valve
HP valve
Overpressure valve
40
What does the ENGINE BLEED FAULT light mean?
Valve position disagrees
Over temperature
Over pressure
Reverse flow protection failed
Leak detected in the duct
41
What does the APU BLEED FAULT light mean?
APU running and valve failed closed
Leak detected in the duct
42
When will a Pack Valve close?
Low pressure
FIRE PB is pressed
43
How many recirculation fans are there?
4
44
What is the TASOV
Trim air shutoff valve. It’s like the cross feed valve for trim air
45
What is the SCS
Supplemental Cooling System (to cool galleys)
46
What does PACK FAULT light mean?
Pack valve disagrees
Pack overheat
Pack failure
Bleed leak
47
What does HOT AIR FAULT light mean?
Overheat
48
What does BULK CARGO ISOL VALVES FAULT light mean?
Valves have failed OR disagree
49
The Cabin Temperature Selector at 12 o’clock sets _____
76 degrees F
50
What does the WING A-ICE amber message mean?
Valve disagree
Abnormal pressure
51
Does wing anti ice operate on the ground?
Yes, valves open 20 seconds then close until weight off wheels
52
Wing PB FAULT Light?
Without ON light,
Valve disagree, monitoring channels not in synch, leak detected
With ON light,
Valve disagree, control system faulty, abnormal pressure
53
ENG ANTI ICE PB FAULT Light?
FAULT LIGHT only -
Valve abnormally open
FAULT LIGHT AND ON Light -
Valve abnormally closed or system failed
54
When does PROBE AND WINDOW HEAT operate in AUTO?
When an engine is running
55
Wipers should not be used at speed greater than ______?
230 knots
56
RAIN REPELLENT is only operational when_____?
Engines are running
57
ENGINE ANTI ICE FAULT Light?
Valve disagree
System failed
58
Which slates does WING ANTI ICE heat?
3,4, and 5
59
When is the ice detection system operational
1500’ AGL
60
Wing Anti Ice valves close automatically when _____?
No airflow
Leak
AC power loss
SAT above 30 C
After 20 seconds on the ground
61
When can a second autopilot be engaged?
ILS or GLS approach after APPR PB is pushed
62
How many flight guidance computers (PRIMS)?
3
63
How many Flight Management Systems (FMS)?
3
64
On the Autoflight System Control Panel (AFS CP), which guidance has priority?
Selected over Managed
65
When do I get a red AUTO LAND light?
Below 200’ and unable to perform an auto land
66
What is the active auto thrust range with one engine inoperative?
Just above idle to Flex MCT
67
When FMA modes are blue they are?
Armed
68
How do I disengage auto thrust for the rest of the flight?
Hold the intuitive disconnect switch for 15 seconds
69
When is the CVR operating in the AUTO mode?
Engine start until 5 min after shutdown
70
What does the Auto Transformer Unit (ATU) do?
Converts 230V AC power to 115V AC power
71
What does the TR do?
The transformer rectifier converts 230V AC power to 28V DC
72
Gen FAULT PB light?
Generator failed or not running
73
GEN DRIVE FAULT PB Light?
Generator overheat or fault requiring the drive to be disconnected
74
In flight, the APU generator can replace up to _______ engine generators
2
75
The emergency generator is powered by the ______?
RAT, it deploys automatically with total AC power loss
76
What does the static inverter do?
Converts DC battery power to 115V AC power under certain conditions
77
What does the EMER GEN FAULT PB Light mean?
RAT is extending, OR
RAT is extended and not supplying power
78
How many batteries?
4
BAT 1+2, BAT EMER 1+2
79
BAT FAULT PB light?
Overcurrent
Overheat
Contractor failure
Power up test failure
80
What type of engine?
Rolls Royce Trent XWB-84, produces 84,200 lbs of thrust
81
How many Channels does each FADEC control?
2, only one is active at a time
82
At aircraft power up, the FADEC is powered for
15 minutes
83
The FADEC becomes self powered when?
Above 8% N3
84
Engine ignition must be manually selected on when?
Moderate rain
Moderate turbulence
Standing water or slush on runway
85
Continuous ignition is automatically activated when?
Inflight flameout
Heavy rain or hail
Inadvertent cycling of engine master lever
86
When does thrust go to Approach Idle?
Inflight, with gear extended OR flaps at 2,3, or FULL
87
Do not use max reverse below
70 knots
88
Reverse thrust is available when?
On ground
One FADEC operating
Reverse selected
Engine running
89
What does THR display in normal mode?
% of max thrust (N1) at TOGA power with bleed off
90
ENGINE MASTER LEVER FAULT Light?
Automatic start abort
Fuel valve disagree
Overthrust
Malfunction of thrust control
91
When does the engine attention getting box turn amber?
Engine failed
N1 or EGT Exceeds limit
Thrust reversers unlocked inflight
92
If both engines are operating in the degraded mode, what happens to auto thrust?
It disconnects
93
Min oil quantity for engine start?
14 quarts
94
Can I use APU bleed air for Wing Anti Ice?
No
95
APU MASTER SWITCH FAULT Light?
Automatic shutdown or APU failed
96
APU START PB AVAIL Light?
APU ready to supply bleed air and electrics
97
What is required to start the APU?
2 28 V DC batteries
230V AC power
98
What happens if there’s an APU fire on the ground?
APU automatically shuts down
APU discharges it’s fire extinguisher after 10 seconds
99
After three attempted APU starts, wait ______?
60 minutes
100
An engine fire warning is generated when______?
Both loops detect a fire
One loop detects if the other is failed
Both loops fail within 5 seconds of each other
101
How many fire warning loops are in the APU?
2
102
How many fire extinguisher bottles for the APU?
1
103
How many fire loops are in the main landing gear bay?
2
104
How many smoke detectors are needed to trigger a cargo smoke warning light?
2, or 1 with the other failed
105
How many smoke detector pairs in each cargo compartment?
Forward- 4
Aft- 3
Bulk- 1
106
How many fire bottles are there for the cargo fire extinguishing system?
2, for either forward or aft
107
How long does cargo fire bottle 2 discharge for?
5 hours
108
How many Flight Control Computers?
6
3 PRIMS and 3 SECS
109
What do Flight Control Computers actuate?
Aileron
Elevator
Rudder
Trimable Horizontal Stab (THS)
Spoilers
110
How many hydraulic actuator types are there?
3
111
Which spoilers assist in roll control?
3-7
112
Is there aileron trim?
No
113
When do speed brakes automatically extend?
VMO/MMO
EMERGENCY DESCENT MODE
114
When do speedbrakes automatically retract?
Alpha protection active
Low speed stability active
Go around
115
What is needed for speedbrake extension on landing?
Thrust levers idle
Spoiler armed
Gear compressed
Wheel speed greater than 72
116
On a rejected takeoff, ground spoilers extend when?
Idle
Greater than 72 knots
117
When is pitch trim automatically set for takeoff?
Engine start OR
Ground spoilers armed
118
What is the configuration if I select flaps 1 while airborne?
If below 203 knots, slats 1 flaps 1
If at or above 203 knots, slats 1 only
119
When is flap load relief available?
Configuration 2, 3, and Full
120
When does flap load relief retract flaps?
When VFE is exceeded by 2.5 knots
121
What is Normal Law?
The highest and most capable level of flight control automation and protection
122
What is Alternate Law?
A high level fly by wire capability, with many stabilities and protections including autopilot
123
What is Direct Law?
The lowest level of fly by wire capability. All protections and stabilities are lost, including autopilot.
124
What is Backup Control?
Provides control in the event of a loss of all flight control computers
125
In Normal Law, what protections are provided?
Pitch
Roll
Over and under speed
Angle of attack
Load factor
126
What are load factor limits in Direct Law?
Slats retracted -1 to 2.5
Slats extended 0 to 2
127
What is the bank angle limit in Normal Law?
67 degrees
128
What is the pitch attitude limit in Normal Law?
-15 degrees to 30 degrees
129
Side stick must be held to achieve a bank angle greater than _____?
33 degrees
130
What is the max roll rate?
15 degrees per second
131
What are the phases of flight for Normal Law?
Ground
Inflight
Flare
132
When does Normal Law Flight Mode begin and end?
5 seconds after liftoff until 100’ on approach
133
When is the Low Energy Warning available in manual flight?
Configuration 2, 3, or FULL
Between 100’ and 2500’ for landing
Between 200’ and 2500’ for takeoff
134
When is the low energy warning available in auto flight?
Always
135
How do I know I’m in Normal Law?
Green equal signs on the PFD
136
How do I know I’m in Alternate Law?
Amber XX on the PFD
137
How do I know I’m in Direct Law?
USE MAN PITCH TRIM message on the PFD
138
When can I use the DISPLAY CYCLE Switch?
When the green AVAIL light is on
139
What is the CRC?
Continuous Repetitive Chime
140
What is the ECAM?
Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor
141
What is the OIS?
Onboard information system
142
What is the KCCU?
Keyboard cursor control unit
143
What does an amber half box in the Fuel on Board label mean?
Fuel in at least one tank is not useable
144
When does TO Inhibit memo display?
Between takeoff thrust and 1500’ or 2 minutes after liftoff
145
When does Landing Inhibit memo display?
Between 800’ and 60 seconds after slowing through 80 knots
146
How are dispatch messages ordered?
Most current on top
147
What does a flashing FAULT light in the IR PB mean?
Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode
148
What does the ADIRS ON BAT light mean?
One or more ADIRUs are supplied by batteries
149
How do I do a fast alignment?
Go from NAV to OFF and back to NAV in under 5 seconds
150
What does each ADIRU use for position?
IRs
GNSS
Radio NAVAIDS
151
What is an EPU
Estimated Position Uncertainty. NM radius around the aircraft where the aircraft is in that position 95% of the time.
152
When am I in NAV PRIMARY mode?
NAV mode is IRS/GNSS
NAV accuracy is high (EPU
153
What flight control law am I in if PFDs display ISIS inertial data?
Direct law
154
In the polar region (82 degrees N), what happens if I don’t manually select True North?
Autopilot disconnect
155
Max slope
2 %
156
Max takeoff and landing altitude
10,000’
157
How much fuel can be carried?
243,400 pounds
158
Wing fuel tank capacity?
51,600 pounds
159
Max fuel imbalance?
6,600 pounds
160
Fuel center tank capacity?
140,000 pounds
161
What does it mean when a fuel tank quantity number is in an amber box?
Fuel not useable
162
What does it mean when a wing fuel tank quantity number is in a half amber box?
Some fuel not useable
163
What does it mean when a wing fuel tank quantity number is underlined?
Fuel imbalance
164
When do I get a WING LO LEVEL?
Less than 3500 lbs in a wing tank
165
What does the OVERFLOW message on the fuel page mean?
Overflow of the surge tank detected
166
Fuel Pump PB FAULT light?
Low pressure or pump has failed
167
Can I gravity feed the engines?
Wing tank- yes
Center tank- no
168
Fuel CENTER TANK FEED FAULT light?
Fuel distribution incorrect
Low fuel level
169
When do I get a FUEL LEVEL LO caution?
<3500 lbs in a wing tank
170
How can I close the low pressure fuel valves?
Engine Master Lever
Engine Fire PB
171
Which fuel pump normally runs the APU?
Left center
172
How does fuel move from wing tank to center tank?
Gravity transfer
173
Which fuel pumps are available in the emergency electrical configuration?
L and R main tank
174
Amber range of fuel temperature?
Below -40 degrees C
Above 50
175
When is predictive wind shear operative?
On the ground and inflight below 1500’
176
When does the weather radar turn on?
Takeoff OR
Manually after engine start
177
When is weather radar turned off?
60 seconds after landing
On the ground with no engine
On the ground with flaps up
178
What do I need to display weather radar on the VD?
Terrain function
179
How is turbulence displayed on the ND?
Magenta
180
Can I select weather and terrain at the same time on my ND?
No
181
When do I get a terrain caution? Warning?
60 seconds from terrain
30 seconds from terrain
182
How is a corrective TCAS RA displayed?
Red and green on the IVSI
183
In ABOVE Mode, TCAS shows traffic ________?
2700’ below to 9900’ above
184
How many engine driven Hydraulic pumps are there?
4
185
Normal hydraulic pressure?
5,000 psi
186
What powers hydraulics on the ground if engines are off?
1 Electric motor pump (EMP)
187
How do I close a hydraulic fire shutoff valve (FSOV)?
ENG FIRE PB
OR
ENG SUPPLY PB
188
Hydraulic Engine Driven Pump FAULT light?
Low pressure
Low reservoir fluid
High temperature
Reservoir overheated
189
Is closing the hydraulic Fire Shutoff Valve (FSV) reversible?
No
190
When are electric hydraulic pumps inhibited?
After engine start
191
Which electric pump automatically operates the cargo doors
Yellow
192
What controls the hydraulic system?
HMC -Hydraulic Monitor and Control
193
What is the impact of one hydraulic pump instead of 2?
Longer gear retraction time
194
How do flight controls operate with a complete loss of hydraulics?
EHA- electro hydrostatic actuators
OR
EBHA- electrical backup hydraulic actuators
195
How do brakes work with loss of hydraulics?
Accumulator
196
How do slats and outer flaps work with a loss of hydraulics?
Electric motors
197
Which hydraulic system operates nose gear retraction?
Yellow
198
Which hydraulic system operates the main gear and doors?
Green
199
When do I get a GEAR NOT DOWN WARNING?
Below 750’
200
Max landing gear speed?
250 knots (0.55 Mach)
201
Max gear extension altitude?
21,000
202
Max landing gear gravity extension speed?
220 knots
203
What are the 4 braking modes?
Normal
Alternate
Emergency
Park brake
204
Below _______ psi in the accumulator, I lose anti skid brakes
1600
205
Below _______ psi in the accumulator, I lose all braking modes
1400
206
Do I have anti skid in alternate braking?
Yes
207
Do I have anti skid or auto brakes in emergency braking?
No
208
How many brake applications do I get in emergency braking mode?
6
209
What is the max brake temperature for takeoff?
300 degrees C
210
When do basic auto brakes activate?
Ground spoilers extend and nosewheel on ground
OR
Five seconds after ground spoilers extend
211
What deactivates auto brakes?
Ground spoilers retract
Auto thrust disconnect PB
Manual brakes
Park brake
212
When does RTO braking engage?
Ground spoilers extend
Speed above 40 knots
213
What speed does BTV braking slow you to?
10 knots
214
What are the 2 variable speed modes?
Speed and Mach
215
RAT min speed?
140 knots
