Locomotion Flashcards

1
Q

Why is repaired tendon said to functionally deficient

A

Because repair involves fibrosis and the formation of scar tissue. Scar tissue is stronger but stiffer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the structure of tendon

A

Triple helix collagen molecule => Collagen fibril => Collagen fibre => Subfascicle => Fascicle => secondary and tertiary fascicles => Tendon unit

  • Fibroblasts - withing fascicle. Liealong long axis, make ECM
  • Endotenon - Contains blood vessels, nerve, lymph
  • Epitenon - Connective tissue that binds fasicles and endotenon together to form tendon
  • Paratenon - Aids in gliding mechanism in absence of tendon sheath.Main route for blood vessels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Whats the difference between postional tendons and energy storing tendons

A

Positional - Anatomically opposing.Transfer muscle force to generate movement at a joint

Energy storing - Store energy from previous stride, then release at recoil. Increasing efficiency of high speed locomotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is stress, creep and stress relaxation

A

Stress - Load experienced by the tendon per unit cross sectional area

Creep - Increased deformation under constant load

Stress relaxation - Load required to cause specific tissue strain decreases with time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe indirect fracture healing

A

Normal process

  • When fracture occurs, bleeding causes haematoma formation. GF’s released
  • Small amount of bone is resorbed at bone ends & more GF’s released.
  • GF’s drive extra osseous blood supply, differentiation, osteogenesis & callus formation
  • Remodelling

Fracture => haematoma => granulation tissue => Connective tissue => fibrocartilage & cancellous bone => bone.

Successive cell types require more oxygen. Stages of callus can be skipped if adequate oxygen tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the 2 Ways of direct fracture healing

A

Contact healing

  • Absolute stability required, NO movement
  • Artificially compressed (e.g plate) to <0.01mm
  • Direct migration of osteons

Gap healing

  • No movement
  • <1mm gap
  • Lamellar bone forms in fracture gap forming a weak joint.
  • Osetons cross fracture gap
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is malunion and what are the 6 types of Non-union

A

Malunion - Bone unites correctly but in wrong postion

Non union - Failure or delay in bone healing

  1. Hypertrophic - Callus formed but fracture not healed, inedequate fixation. ( Medullay bone from elsewhere can be placed in gap, allowing increased GF secretions)
  2. Oligotrophic - Not enough callus
  3. Dystrophic - No callus
  4. Nectrotic - Fragment of bone thats been isolated from blood supply (sequestrium)
  5. Gap - Lost tissue in the middle
  6. Atrophic - Bone is resorbed. Commonly occurs in radial ulna fractures of toy breeds.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the forces acting on a fracture

A
  • Due to the curved shape of diaphyseal bones, Bending loads set up compression on one side and tension on the other
  • Shear forces displace fractures perpindicular to long axis, causing over riding
  • Twisting loads from muscle contraction => Torsion. These loads are rarely symmetrical, also promoting shear
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What treatment would be used for a minimally misaligned fracture

A

Coaption (cast) - Immobilise fracture

Promblems:

  • Can result in furthur malalignment
  • Can’t apply to fracture proximal to stifle/elbow
  • Cost of frequent redressing can be expensive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 3 surgical methods of fixing a diaphyseal fracture

A
  1. External skeletal fixator - Holds bone in place. Allows for secondary bone union (Callus formation), quick and easy to apply, is cheap and adjustable. However pins can loosen
  2. Plate - Allows secondary or primary bone union. Can apply compression, neutralisation or butress. Achieve perfect reduction and is minimally invasive. However requires large skill set and equipment set
  3. Interlocking nails - Intramedullary pin which is fenetrated to allow the nails to lock into cortical bone. Strong and used for comminuted fractures.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What Complimentary prostesis can be used

A
  • Lag screw - At right angle to fracture line
  • Cerclage wire - For long oblique fractures. Can disturb extra osseues blood supply
  • Intramedullary pin - Resists shear force. Must combine with another method for resistance to compression & torsion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 4 A’s when evaluating fractures

A
  • Alignment (of whole bone)
  • Apposition (how fracture is alligned)
  • Apparatus
  • Activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What attaches to the extensor process of the distal phalanx

A
  • In the hindlimb, Long digital extensor
  • In the forlimb, Common digital extensor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does the hoof grow

A

Throughout life, Growth occurs from the coronary corium where germinal cells produce keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how does laminitis occur

A

Arteriovenous anastomoses usually closed under normal circumstances. However when its open, allows blood to bypass capillary network & into dermis & causes ishaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the 4 diagnostic nerve blocks of the equine limb

A
  • Low palmer digital block - Anaesthetises navicular bone and distal phalanx. Insert between lateral cartilages.
  • Mid pastern palmer digital block - Anaesthetises Navicular bursa, distal phalanx, distal interphalangeal joint. Needle inserted under tightened ergot ligament
  • Abaxial sesamoid block - Anaesthetises proximal interphalangeal joint, distal sesamoid ligament and lamellar corium. Palpate palmar digital nerves on abaxial surface of proximal sesamoid
  • Low palmar block - Anaesthetises metacarpophalangeal joint & proximal sesamoid. Groove between interosseus muscle and flexor tendons
17
Q

How would you diagnose lameness in the forlimb and hindlimb

A

Forelimb

During weight bearing on the lame limb, the head will lift to try eleviate the weight of the limb and dip on the normal limb so it bears the weight of the head and neck

Hindlimb

Greater degree of difference between maximal and minumum pelvic heights during the stride of the lame limb

18
Q

Label the ultrasound of the equine distal limb (transverse)

A
  1. Super digital flexor tendon
  2. Deep digital flexor tendon
  3. Check ligament (inferior)
  4. Suspensory ligament
  5. Metacarpal bone (third)

B - Tendon sheath

19
Q

What are the direct and indirect costs of lameness

A

Direct

  • Veterinary treatment
  • Drugs
  • Reduced milk yield
  • Herd persons time wasted
  • Milk wasted due to withholding time of medicines

Indirect

  • Reduced fertility
  • Increased rate of culling
20
Q

Describe the lameness scoring test for cows

A
  • Score 1 - Flat back when walking and standing. normal
  • Score 2 - Stands with a flat back, arch in back when walking
  • Score 3 - Back arch when standing and walking. shortening of stride
  • Score 4 - Partially weight bearing on affected limb
  • Score 5 - Affected limb wont bear weight. Reluctant to move
21
Q

Whats the difference between prevelance and incidence

A

Incidence - The number of cases over a given period of time (36/100 cows were lame this year)

Prevelance - The amount of cases on a given day ( 36/100 cows are lame today)

22
Q

What management factor can affect the prevelance of laminitis

A

Housing

Needs sufficient space to lay down and ruminate for 11-14 hours. if insufficient time is spent ruminating, decrease in bicarbonate causing ruminal acidosis. This causes laminitis due to poor quality horn and inflammation of laminae

Feed

TMR must be sufficiently mixed, otherwise cows will pick out more palatable feed leaving roughage. Decrease in bicarbonate.

23
Q

What control measures should be taken to reduce lameness in cattle

A
  • Foot bath schedule
  • Routine trimming
  • Immediate treatment of clinical cases
  • Keep accurate records
24
Q

Describe the sructure of intervertebral disk

A
  • Nucleus puloposus - Contained under pressure inside
  • Annulus fibrosus - Encircling bundles of fibrocartilage
25
Q

Whats the difference between chondrodystrophic dogs and non chondrodystrophic dogs and their types of prolapse of IVD

A

Chondrodystrophic dogs

Generally shorter legged breeds. IVD prolapse is more common in these breeds. A type 1 prolapse occurs, this is where the nucleus pulposus extrudes out of the annulus ventrally onto the spinal cord. Occurs as the annulus fibrosus replaced with hyaline cartilage. Doesn’t extrude dorsally because the annulus fibrosus is thicker distaly. occurs typically 3-7 years.

Non-chondrodystropic dogs

Typically larger breeds. theres a trasition with the nucleus pulposus being replaced with fibrous tissue. Causes type II prolapse. The Annulus fibrosus protrudes, impacting onto the SC. Occurs later in life, typically 5> years of age.