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chapter 3 > lll > Flashcards

lll Flashcards

1
Q

According to ASME, what types of defect are unacceptable? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) Cracks, incomplete fusion, or incomplete joint penetration

B) Cracks only

C) Incomplete fusion

D) None of the above

A

A) Cracks, incomplete fusion, or incomplete joint penetration

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2
Q

Piezoelectric crystals can: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) change mechanical pulses into electrical pulses.

B) change electrical pulses into mechanical pulses.

C) both (a) and (b).

D) None of the above

A

C) both (a) and (b).

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3
Q

If an ultrasonic wave has a velocity of 5.85 × 10³ m/s in steel, the wavelength of a wave with frequency 4 MHz is: (Multiple Choice)

Question options:

A) 0.68 mm.

B) 1.46 m.

C) 0.000684 mm.

D) 1.46 mm.

A

D) 1.46 mm.

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4
Q

IIW recommendations for luminance of a radiographic image to check density should be between: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) 30,000-40,000 cd/m²

B) 3,000-4,000 cd/m²

C) 30-100 cd/m²

D) 300-400 cd/m²

A

C) 30-100 cd/m²

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5
Q

Densitometers are used to measure: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) density of the metal under test.

B) the darkness of the film developing environment.

C) the light transmission through the developed film.

D) None of the above

A

C) the light transmission through the developed film.

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6
Q

An advantage of alternating current is its sensitivity to detect: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) subsurface defects.

B) surface defects.

C) both surface and subsurface defects.

A

B) surface defects.

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7
Q

Black light energies are in the range of: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) 3.6 to 36 nanometres.

B) 100 to 200 nanometres.

C) 330 to 390 nanometres.

D) 100 to 1,000 nanometres.

A

C) 330 to 390 nanometres.

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8
Q

The nick break test: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) was developed by Robert Nick.

B) is an inexpensive way of testing weld soundness.

C) is used for testing parent metal.

D) does not require visual examination.

A

B) is an inexpensive way of testing weld soundness.

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9
Q

When bend tests are to be conducted on a weld sample 8 mm (5/16 in) thick: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) root and face bends are cut 38 mm (1.5 in) wide.

B) side bends are cut 10 mm (3/8 in) wide.

C) root and face bends are cut 25 mm (1 in) wide.

D) side bends are cut 50 mm (2 in) wide.

A

B) side bends are cut 10 mm (3/8 in) wide.

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10
Q

The Charpy test indicates: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) low temperature toughness.

B) the load required to fracture the test specimen.

C) the strength of different metal types.

D) the specimen has low tensile strength.

A

B) the load required to fracture the test specimen.

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11
Q

Which element in stainless steel is mostly responsible for the materials resistance to oxidation? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) Carbon

B) Chromium

C) Molybdenum

D) Nickel

A

B) Chromium

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12
Q

For weld joint preparations, the thermal properties of stainless steels permit a: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) larger root opening.

B) narrower groove angle.

C) smaller root face.

D) deeper groove.

A

B) narrower groove angle.

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13
Q

When welding ferritic stainless steels using a ferritic weld metal, what method must be employed to achieve the best weldment toughness? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) Use a weave technique to lower the cooling rate

B) Maintain a short arc to limit chromium loss

C) Use low heat input stringer beads to increase the cooling rate

D) Use a high preheat temperature to improve weld metal wetting

A

C) Use low heat input stringer beads to increase the cooling rate

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14
Q

In some steels a very slow cooling rate may produce a: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) soft, coarse grain structure with low toughness.

B) hard, fine grain structure with high toughness.

C) hard, martensitic structure with low toughness.

D) hard, martensitic structure with high toughness.

A

A) soft, coarse grain structure with low toughness.

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15
Q

Which of the following is a feature of the cracking mechanism known as hydrogen embrittlement? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) It occurs above a temperature of around 150 °C

B) It occurs only in slow cooling from austenite

C) It is unaffected by local stresses

D) it occurs below a temperature of around 150 °C

A

D) it occurs below a temperature of around 150 °C

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16
Q

The carbon content (%C) for structural steel plates will fall in the range of: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) 0.05%-0.10%

B) 0.15%-0.30%

C) 0.50%-0.80%

D) 1.70%-2.50%

A

B) 0.15%-0.30%

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17
Q

The three basic steps in precipitation hardening are solution treatment, quenching and: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) stress relief.

B) normalizing.

C) aging.

D) tempering.

A

C) aging.

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18
Q
A
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18
Q

Patterns used to form channels vary with the direction in which the movement takes place. If cambering is required, heat should be applied: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) to the flange in the form of block heating and vee heating in the web.

B) to the flange in the form of vee heating and block heating at the web.

C) in the form of equal block heating to flange and web.

D) only to the web.

A

A) to the flange in the form of block heating and vee heating in the web.

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18
Q

Distortion in structural shapes with eccentric weld joints will produce which type of distortion? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) Twisting

B) Angular

C) Bending

D) Shear

A

C) Bending

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19
Q

Part of a good welding procedure should include: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) welding process, filler metal, and maximum heat input.

B) power source, speed of welding, and flame heating.

C) welding technique, voltage, and distortion.

D) joint design, power source, and electrode colour.

A

B) power source, speed of welding, and flame heating.

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20
Q

E4XXT-9 type flux cored electrodes are: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) designed for use without gas shielding.

B) designed for multi-pass welding only in flat position.

C) designed for single pass welding only in all positions.

D) designed for single and multi-pass welding in all positions.

A

D) designed for single and multi-pass welding in all positions.

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21
Q

The term “deoxidizing” is used to describe the action of an element that: (Multiple Choice)

Question options:

A) adds oxygen to the weld metal.

B) stabilizes oxides in the weld metal.

C) removes chemically combined oxygen.

D) produces free oxygen in the weld metal.

A

C) removes chemically combined oxygen.

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22
Q

Heavily coated SMAW electrodes can have iron powder content up to: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) 5%.

B) 15%.

C) 25%.

D) 55%.

A

D) 55%.

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23
Q

An FCAW stainless steel electrode with a “0” in the electrode designation indicates the electrode can be used for: (Multiple Choice)

Question options:

A) all position welding.

B) vertical down fillets and grooves only.

C) flat grooves and horizontal fillets only.

D) overhead fillets and grooves only.

A

C) flat grooves and horizontal fillets only.

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24
Q

Which are the key factors affecting the performance of a GMAW power source for semi-automatic applications? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) Wire size and voltage

B) Voltage and wire size

C) Slope and inductance

D) Current and speed

A

C) Slope and inductance

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25
Q

Small amounts of hydrogen can be added to shielding gas mixtures. Hydrogen containing gas mixtures can only be used to weld: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) austenitic stainless steels.

B) ferritic stainless steels.

C) martensitic stainless steels.

D) quenched and tempered steels.

A

A) austenitic stainless steels.

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26
Q

The gas metal arc welding process uses: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) only inert gases for shielding.

B) both inert and active gas mixtures.

C) only active gas mixtures.

D) active fluxes for shielding.

A

B) both inert and active gas mixtures.

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27
Q

The GMAW process uses: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) a constant current power supply, resulting in an increase in arc voltage as the arc length stays constant.

B) a constant current power supply, resulting in a decrease in arc voltage as the arc length decreases.

C) a constant voltage power supply, resulting in an increase in current as the contact-tip-to-work distance increases.

D) a constant voltage power supply, resulting in an increase in current.

A
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28
Q

The GMAW process uses: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) a constant current power supply, resulting in an increase in arc voltage as the arc length stays constant.

B) a constant current power supply, resulting in a decrease in arc voltage as the arc length decreases.

C) a constant voltage power supply, resulting in an increase in current as the contact-tip-to-work distance increases.

D) a constant voltage power supply, resulting in an increase in current.

A

C) a constant voltage power supply, resulting in an increase in current as the contact-tip-to-work distance increases.

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29
Q

Soldering is a welding process that utilizes a filler metal that melts below: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) 400 °C

B) 450 °C

C) 425 °C

D) 375 °C

A

B) 450 °C

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30
Q

In the PAW process, the keyhole plasma has a current range of greater than: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) 50 amps

B) 100 amps

C) 150 amps

D) 500 amps

A

B) 100 amps

31
Q

Inverter welding power sources are typically used for the pulsed GMAW process because: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) the output can be changed in less than 1/40,000 of a second.

B) a feedback system is not used.

C) the static characteristics cannot be changed.

D) the current output is not limited.

A

A) the output can be changed in less than 1/40,000 of a second.

32
Q

Which was the first welding power source design to incorporate a feedback circuit? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) Inverter

B) Mechanical reactor

C) Silicon-controlled rectifier

D) Saturable reactor

A

D) Saturable reactor

33
Q

The duty cycle of a welding power supply is based upon delivering its rated output for a given number of minutes out of a 10 minute period. Which of the following statement is correct? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) A 300 amp/60% duty cycle machine is rated to deliver 300 amps for 6 minutes in a ten minute period.

B) A 300 amp/30% duty cycle machine is rated to deliver 300 amps in a ten minute period.

C) A 250 amp/30% duty cycle machine is rated to deliver 250 amps for 30 minutes.

D) A 300 amp/60% duty cycle machine is rated to deliver 500 amps maximum for 6 minutes in a ten minute period.

A

A) A 300 amp/60% duty cycle machine is rated to deliver 300 amps for 6 minutes in a ten minute period.

34
Q

For a consumable electrode arc welding process set on DCEN polarity, the majority of the arc energy is concentrated at the: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) electrode.

B) workpiece.

C) shielding gas.

D) outer cone.

A

A) electrode.

35
Q

SAW requires an additional component when it is used with constant current. What is that component? (Multiple Choice)

Question options:

A) Arc ignition

B) Arc stabilizer

C) Arc force

D) Voltage sensing wire feeder

A

D) Voltage sensing wire feeder

36
Q

The main components used to rectify are: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) diodes.

B) transistors.

C) inductors.

D) transformers.

A

A) diodes.

37
Q

The formula for the Ohm’s law is: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) I = V/R

B) I = R/V

C) V = R/I

D) RV = IR

A

A) I = V/R

38
Q

What type of output current is usually required for welding with the GTAW process? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) Constant voltage

B) Very high open circuit voltage

C) Low power factor

D) Constant current

A

A) Constant voltage

39
Q

A transformer in a welding power source is a device that: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) changes the frequency of AC power.

B) changes AC power to DC power.

C) filters DC power.

D) changes the voltage of the AC input power.

A

D) changes the voltage of the AC input power.

40
Q

The natural frequency of a given piezoelectric transducer is determined by: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) the amplitude of the voltage applied.

B) the transducer thickness.

C) the frequency set by the material being inspected and it cannot be changed.

D) None of the above

A

B) the transducer thickness.

41
Q

Planar discontinuities include: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) porosity.

B) slag lines.

C) cracks.

D) hollow beads.

A

C) cracks.

42
Q

The formula for the energy carried by a wave is: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) E= (AF)6

B) E=(Af)3

C) V=I/R

D) E=(Af)2

A

D) E=(Af)2

43
Q

For CSA W59 structural code acceptance and rejection of indications is based on: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) amplitude and type.

B) length and type.

C) type and length.

D) amplitude and length with no attempt to identify the flaw.

A

D) amplitude and length with no attempt to identify the flaw.

44
Q

In the A-scan display, the horizontal displacement of the trace is calibrated to represent: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) the amplitude of the reflected wave.

B) the size of the reflector.

C) distance.

D) the size of the reflector

A

C) distance.

45
Q

For planar discontinuities to be detectable by radiography, the orientation of the discontinuity must be: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) perpendicular to the beam direction.

B) parallel to the beam direction.

C) planar discontinuities are never detectable.

D) Orientation is not a concern.

A

B) parallel to the beam direction.

46
Q

To control geometric unsharpness you would? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) have the radiation source as small as possible.

B) have the greatest distance (within reason) from the source to the specimen.

C) have the film as close as possible to the specimen.

D) all of the above.

A

D) all of the above.

47
Q

Film artifacts are? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) processing problems that can mask discontinuities.

B) types of weld discontinuity images.

C) exposed images seen on archived film.

D) not part of RT.

A

A) processing problems that can mask discontinuities.

48
Q

Best RT images for small diameter pipe requires a minimum how many shots? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

A

A) 2

49
Q

Planar discontinuities are not readily detected with radiography since: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) they are not open to the surface.

B) they are not volumetric.

C) they deflect the beam of radiation.

D) planar defects are acceptable.

A

B) they are not volumetric.

50
Q

RT methods to determine the position of a flaw? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) use 2 source sizes.

B) take shots from 2 angles.

C) use different film speeds.

D) use different wavelengths.

A

B) take shots from 2 angles.

51
Q

How is the amount of exposure measured in a thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) By a small scale that can be read directly from a charged quartz fibre.

B) By the amount of blackening on the film.

C) By hearing a high pitched audible alarm usually worn on a belt.

D) By gently heating to release trapped radiation and measuring it.

A

D) By gently heating to release trapped radiation and measuring it.

52
Q

When estimating the depth of flaws, defects closer to the film are: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) undetectable.

B) not as sharp as shallow defects.

C) sharper than shallow defects.

D) not important.

A

C) sharper than shallow defects.

53
Q

Film speed for best contrast? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) fast, medium grained.

B) medium speed, medium grained.

C) slow speed, fin grained.

D) very slow speed, extra fine grained.

A

D) very slow speed, extra fine grained.

54
Q

What can be done to reduce the effects of scattered radiation on film? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) use longer exposure time.

B) nothing can be done.

C) use a thin lead sheet on back of film.

D) use a stronger source.

A

C) use a thin lead sheet on back of film.

55
Q

Which of the following radiation protection equipment does not give you immediate results? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) audible alarms.

B) thermo-luminescent dosimeters.

C) direct reading dosimeters.

D) survey meters.

A

B) thermo-luminescent dosimeters.

56
Q

Can MPI be used as inspection tool to find discontinuities in ferritic stainless steel? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) Yes, if permitted by the code of construction.

B) No, because ferritic stainless is non-magnetic

C) Only if welded using the GMAW process.

D) Only if the sigma phase is achieved.

A

D) Only if the sigma phase is achieved.

57
Q

A leak test method that utilizes a pressure differential across the wall surfaces is the: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) vacuum test.

B) hydrostatic pressure test.

C) water test.

D) pneumatic pressure test.

A

A) vacuum test.

58
Q

Dye penetration reveals which kind of discontinuities? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) Surface only

B) Subsurface porosity and deep cracks

C) Surface and subsurface linear and round indications

D) Only relevant indications

A

A) Surface only

59
Q

Why Eddy Current techniques are not widely applied to weld inspection (Multiple Choice)

Question options:

A) Due to surface irregularities

B) Due to low current

C) Due to low reactance

D) Due to instrument fragility

A

A) Due to surface irregularities

60
Q

Which current type is less sensitive to surface contact problems? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) HWDC

B) AC

C) FWDC

D) Permanent magnet induced currents

A

B) AC

61
Q

What is a typical maximum depth of detection for the eddy current method in non-ferrous metals? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) 6 mm

B) 35 mm

C) 0.25 mm

A

A) 6 mm

62
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding using LPI method to check welds with a high interpass temperature? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) 20 °C to 140 °C welds are suitable for LPI

B) Penetrants evaporate on hot welds

C) Increased dwell times are required

D) Twice as much penetrant should be used due to evaporation.

A

B) Penetrants evaporate on hot welds

63
Q

A liquid that wets a surface is characterized by: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) no capillary action.

B) a small contact angle.

C) high density.

D) high surface tension.

A

B) a small contact angle.

64
Q

Which of the following is true of leak testing? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) It is not required if visual testing is carried out

B) It may replace pneumatic proof testing

C) It may replace hydrostatic proof testing

D) It is used for liquid and gas retaining containers.

A

D) It is used for liquid and gas retaining containers.

65
Q

The Brinell, Vickers and Rockwell hardness testers all operate on the principle that the degree or hardness is indicated: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) by the depth of the penetrator only.

B) by the size of the impression only.

C) by the amount of load on the penetrator.

D) by the depth penetrated or by the area of resulting impression.

A

D) by the depth penetrated or by the area of resulting impression.

66
Q

What are the two most commonly used type of tensile test specimens used in weldments? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) Root and face specimens

B) All-weld metal and HAZ specimens

C) Longitudinal and through-thickness specimens

D) All-weld metal and transverse weld specimens

A

D) All-weld metal and transverse weld specimens

67
Q

What is the drop weight test? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) A tension test

B) Real world fracture testing

C) UTS based on heating

D) Reducing sample size for testing

A

B) Real world fracture testing

68
Q

What is “Ultimate tensile strength”? (Multiple Choice)

Question options:

A) The largest force applied to a tensile specimen divided by the specimen’s original cross section

B) The highest force recorded during a tensile test

C) The highest stress at which the elastic limit is exceeded

D) Another term for Young’s Modulus

A

A) The largest force applied to a tensile specimen divided by the specimen’s original cross section

69
Q

Why is the hardness test useful to measure hardness in weld zones? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) It is an indication if the weld zone is prone to porosity

B) It is an indication if the weld zone is prone to cracking

C) It is an indication of the grain size

D) It is an indication of toughness

A

B) It is an indication if the weld zone is prone to cracking

70
Q

The nil ductility transition temperature at which a specimen breaks is revealed by the: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) Charpy impact test.

B) drop weight test.

C) tensile test.

D) bend test.

A

B) drop weight test.

71
Q

When the stress rises to a maximum value in a tensile test it is known as: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) the ultimate tensile strength of the material.

B) the yield strength of the material.

C) the elastic limit of the material.

D) The stress/strain curve of the material.

A

A) the ultimate tensile strength of the material.

72
Q

Creep testing is: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) low temperature progressive deformation at static loads.

B) used to determine the amount of elasticity in steel.

C) used only on non-metallic materials.

D) high temperature progressive deformation at constant stress.

A

D) high temperature progressive deformation at constant stress.

73
Q

Rotating parts are proof tested by: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) spinning with extra weights attached.

B) rotating at high speed to increase centrifugal stresses.

C) rotating parts cannot be proof tested.

D) rotating at alternating high and low speeds to vary centrifugal stresses.

A

B) rotating at high speed to increase centrifugal stresses.

74
Q

CTOD testing of materials measures the resistance of the material to crack extension and depends on: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) thickness, temperature, and crack susceptibility.

B) temperature, thickness, loading rate, and local microstructure.

C) toughness, temperature, and loading rate.

D) temperature, toughness, and thickness.

A

B) temperature, thickness, loading rate, and local microstructure.

75
Q

What is the relationship between the value E and the stress and strain defined as? (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) Young’s accordion

B) Ultimate tensile strength

C) Yield point

D) Hooke’s Law

A

D) Hooke’s Law

76
Q

When using fracture mechanics testing, the fracture behaviour of a material tested is dependent on: (Multiple Choice)
Question options:

A) the presence of high levels of sulphur.

B) the presence of high levels of porosity.

C) the presence of high levels of carbon in the steel.

D) the presence of a sharp crack.

A

D) the presence of a sharp crack.

77
Q
A

chapter 3 (14 decks)

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