Liver & Biliary Overview Flashcards

1
Q
A

B - non-alcoholic steatohepatitis

  • she has type II diabetes, is obese and consumes alcohol regularly
    • these are all risk factors
  • simvastatin can be hepatotoxic, but she has only been taking this for 2 years so it is unlikely
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2
Q
A

A - full recovery

  • HBsAg shows that they have a current infection
    • this could be acute or chronic
  • Anti-HBcAg IgM (IgM core antibody) shows that they must currently have an acute infection
  • someone with an acute hep b infection is most likely to make a full recovery
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3
Q
A

D - IV cefotaxmine and oral lactulose

  • the patient has encephalopathy
  • they also have spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
    • fever
    • worsening abdominal tenderness / distenstion
    • high neutrophil count
  • IV cefotaxime is an antibiotic that will treat the SBP
  • lactulose reduces ammonia production in the gut to prevent encephalopathy from getting worse
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4
Q

What is the underlying cause of jaundice?

A

it is caused by an increased concentration of bilirubin in the blood

(hyperbilirubinaemia)

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5
Q

What are the steps involved in the bilirubin metabolism pathway?

A
  • old RBCs are broken down in the spleen
  • the haemoglobin from RBCs produces iron** and **unconjugated bilirubin
  • the unconjugated bilirubin travels in the blood, bound to albumin, to the liver
  • in the liver it is conjugated by UDPGT enzyme
  • conjugated bilirubin then enters the biliary system and forms part of the bile
  • conjugated bilirubin enters the duodenum in the bile via the common bile duct
  • here it is converted to urobilinogen and stercobilinogen
    • urobilinogen is excreted in the urine
    • stercobilinogen is excreted in the faeces and gives them a dark colour
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6
Q

What causes pre-hepatic jaundice?

What type of hyperbilirubinaemia is present?

A
  • caused by excessive RBC breakdown
    • or impaired uptake of RBCs by the liver
  • this overwhelms the liver’s ability to conjugate bilirubin
  • there is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
  • any bilirubin that is conjugated will be excreted normally, but the excess unconjugated bilirubin will remain in the bloodstream to cause jaundice
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7
Q

What are the 2 major causes of pre-hepatic jaundice?

Why do these lead to jaundice?

A

Haemolysis:

  • increased RBC breakdown leads to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin concentration
  • the liver cannot conjugate the bilirubin fast enough, leading to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin in the blood
    • there is nothing wrong with the liver, there is just a massive excess of bilirubin

Gilbert’s Syndrome:

  • this is a deficiency of the UDPGT enzyme
  • UDPGT enzyme is not working as well as it would in a healthy person, so when this individual becomes stressed / gets an infection they can appear jaundiced
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8
Q

What causes hepatocellular (intrahepatic) jaundice?

What type of hyperbilirubinaemia is produced here?

A
  • caused by dysfunction of the hepatic cells
  • the liver loses some of its ability to conjugate bilirubin, however this is not the main problem
  • if the liver becomes cirrhotic, it compresses the intra-hepatic portions of the biliary tree to cause a degree of obstruction
    • the conjugated bilirubin cannot get into the biliary system
  • this produces a mixed conjugated and unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
    • ​it is mainly conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
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9
Q

What are the main causes of hepatocellular jaundice?

A

Caused by anything that damages the hepatocytes:

  • alcoholic liver disease / cirrhosis
  • hepatitis
    • viral, autoimmune
  • hepatocellular carcinoma / liver mass
  • haemochromatosis
  • iatrogenic e.g. medication
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10
Q

What causes post-hepatic jaundice?

What type of hyperbilirubinaemia is produced?

A
  • this is jaundice caused by obstruction of biliary drainage
  • the liver is still functioning and conjugating bilirubin as normal
  • the conjugated bilirubin cannot get into the duodenum, so it enters the bloodstream instead
  • this produces a conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
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11
Q

How can the causes of post-hepatic jaundice be divided into 3 categories?

A

Intra-luminal causes:

  • gallstones

Mural causes:

  • strictures
  • cholangiocarcinoma
  • drug-induced cholestasis
  • PSC / PBS

Extra-mural causes:

  • pancreatic cancer
  • abdominal masses (e.g. lymphomas)
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12
Q

How can looking at the urine determine what kind of hyperbilirubinaemia might be present?

A
  • conjugated bilirubin is water soluble and so can be excreted in the urine
  • unconjugated bilirubin cannot be excreted in the urine
  • dark (“coca-cola”) urine occurs in conjugated or mixed hyperbilirubinaemia
    • hepatocellular or post-hepatic jaundice
  • normal urine is seen in unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
    • ​pre-hepatic jaundice
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13
Q

In what type of jaundice do the stools appear different?

Why does this occur?

A
  • in post-hepatic jaundice the stools will appear paler
  • this occurs when there is an obstructive picture as there are reduced levels of stercobilin entering the GI tract
    • this normally colours the stool
  • there will also be dark urine and pruritis
    • ​itching is caused by bile salts, as the blockage affects the drainage of bile salts into the duodenum
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14
Q

What blood tests should anyone presenting with jaundice have?

A
  • liver function tests
  • coagulation studies
    • prothrombin time can be used as a marker of liver synthetic function
  • FBC
    • ​anaemia, raised MCV and thrombocytopenia can all be seen in liver disease
  • U&Es
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15
Q

What tests are included in a liver screen?

What does each of these things measure?

A

Bilirubin:

  • quantifies the degree of suspected jaundice

Albumin:

  • marker of liver synthetic function

Transaminases - ALT & AST:

  • markers of hepatocellular injury
    • ​AST : ALT ratio > 2 means likely alcoholic liver disease
    • AST : ALT ratio = 1 means viral hepatitis more likely

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP):

  • raised in biliary obstruction
    • ​as well as during pregnancy, bone disease and certain malignancies

Gamma-GT:

  • more specific for biliary obstruction than ALP
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16
Q

What results would you expect to see for each type of jaundice on LFTs?

A

Pre-hepatic:

  • raised bilirubin only

Hepatocellular:

  • there is damage to hepatocytes so you would expect to see raised AST & ALT

Post-hepatic:

  • there is an obstruction / bile duct damage so you would expect to see raised ALP / GGT
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17
Q

What is meant by hepatitis?

What are the possible causes of this?

A
  • hepatitis is inflammation of the liver
  • it presents with raised AST and ALT
  • causes can be acute or chronic and include:
    • alcoholic hepatitis
    • non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)
    • viruses
    • drugs
    • autoimmune
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18
Q

How does hepatitis tend to present?

A
  • all types of hepatitis tend to present with similar symptoms
  • RUQ pain
  • jaundice (hepatocellular)
  • hepatomegaly
  • joint pain
  • nausea
  • fatigue
  • dark urine
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19
Q

How long does hepatitis have to persist for to become chronic?

What are the possible outcomes of acute and chronic hepatitis?

A
  • acute hepatitis resolves within 6 months
    • it becomes chronic if it lasts for longer than 6 months
  • acute hepatitis can resolve on its own, progress to chronic hepatitis or (rarely) result in acute liver failure
  • chronic hepatitis may progress to cirrhosis, liver failure and hepatocellular carcinoma
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20
Q

What are the 3 conditions that make up the spectrum of alcoholic liver disease?

A
  • steatosis occurs after a few days of heavy drinking
    • this is completely reversible
  • alcoholic hepatitis (inflammation) occurs after long term alcohol use (not a binge)
    • ​this is reversible, especially if mild
  • if alcohol consumption is continued this can cause cirrhosis
    • ​this is IRREVERSIBLE as it involves scarring of the liver
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21
Q

What are the symptoms of mild and severe alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Mild:

  • nausea
  • anorexia
  • weight loss
  • hepatomegaly

Severe:

  • fever
  • jaundice
  • tachycardia
  • tender hepatomegaly
  • bruising
  • encephalopathy
  • ascites
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22
Q

What causes the inflammation associated with alcoholic hepatitis?

A
  • alcohol metabolism requires NAD+
  • when there is excessive alcohol consumption, there is not enough NAD+ available for glycolysis
  • this promotes fatty infiltration into the liver, leading to inflammation
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23
Q

What would a full blood count show in someone with chronic high alcohol intake?

A

macrocytic anaemia

  • this presents as low haemoglobin and high mean cell volume (MCV)
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24
Q

What would liver function tests show in someone with chronic high alcohol consumption?

A
  • AST : ALT ratio > 2
    • remember “alcohol then toAST”
  • increased bilirubin
  • decreased albumin
  • ALP may be normal or raised
  • GGT is raised in someone who drinks a lot of alcohol over long periods of time
    • raised GGT indicates biliary damage, but also chronic alcohol consumption
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25
Q

What would a clotting screen show in someone with chronic alcohol consumption?

A
  • clotting screen is a functional assessment that tells you how well the liver is working
  • the liver makes clotting factors, so clotting time increases when the liver is damaged
  • increased prothrombin time is a sensitive marker of significant liver damage
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26
Q

What imaging is performed in alcoholic liver disease?

What would a liver biopsy show?

A
  • hepatic ultrasound scan is performed
  • liver biopsy is diagnostic, but rarely needed

the presence of Mallory bodies indicates hepatitis

  • these are damaged intermediate filaments within the hepatocytes

there may also be ballooning degeneration of hepatocytes

  • this is a form of liver parenchymal cell death
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27
Q

What is involved in the management of alcoholic liver disease?

A
  • alcohol abstinence
  • diazepam may be given in hospital to manage alcohol withdrawal
    • this prevents withdrawal symptoms and seizures
  • nutrition
    • ​enteral preferred - calories and vitamins - alcoholics are often malnourished
  • weight loss / smoking cessation
  • steroids are given in severe alcoholic hepatitis
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28
Q

What is meant by non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) and how can this progress?

A
  • the presence of a fatty liver in those who do not consume alcohol in amounts generally considered harmful to the liver
  • steatosis is completely reversible
  • this progresses to steatohepatitis (NASH), which involves inflammation
    • this is reversible, especially if it is mild
  • this progresses to cirrhosis, which is irreversible
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29
Q

What are the risk factors associated with NAFLD?

A
  • obesity (truncal)
  • insulin resistance / type II diabetes
  • hyperlipidaemia
  • hypertension
  • metabolic syndrome
  • short bowel syndrome
  • total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
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30
Q

What additional symptoms may someone with NAFLD present with?

A
  • they may have signs of insulin resistance
  • polyuria
  • polydipsia
  • acanthosis nigricans
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31
Q

What are the investigations involved in NAFLD?

A
  • LFTs
    • AST : ALT ratio < 1
    • GGT / ALP may also be raised
  • blood glucose to check for diabetes / how well controlled it is
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32
Q
A
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33
Q

What is involved in the management of NAFLD?

A
  • diet and exercise
  • controlling risk factors
    • statins for hypercholesterolaemia
    • good blood sugar control in diabetes
    • metformin for diabetics
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34
Q

What is the difference between steatosis and non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)?

A
  • steatosis involves fatty accumulation in the liver
    • a liver can remain fatty without disturbing liver function​
  • by various mechanisms and insults to the liver, steatosis can progress to non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)
  • NASH involves steatosis combined with inflammation and sometimes fibrosis
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35
Q

How does someone with NAFLD usually present?

A
  • usually no noticeable symptoms and is only detected during routine blood tests or unrelated abdominal imaging
  • may have some symptoms related to liver dysfunction
    • fatigue
    • malaise
    • dull RUQ abdominal discomfort
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36
Q

What type of infection is usually caused by viral hepatitis A & E?

What are the exceptions to this?

A
  • hep A & E usually cause acute hepatitis, which very rarely progresses to chronic hepatitis
    • when you think of A&E - think of ACUTE problems
  • hepatitis A&E can become chronic in immunosuppressed individuals
  • hepatitis E can cause severe liver failure in pregnant women
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37
Q

How are hepatitis A & E spread?

What is the management for this infection?

A
  • they are spread via the fAEco-oral route
    • this is via contaminated water or sex
  • management is supportive as this infection is acute and will regress on its own
  • ​paracetamol and alcohol should be avoided
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38
Q

What does the presence of IgM and IgG in Hep A / E serology tell you?

A
  • IgM tells you that the infection is acute
    • they currently have the infection
  • IgG tells you that they have had the infection, but have now cleared it
  • IgM = now*
  • IgG = gone*
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39
Q

Do hepatitis B and C tend to be acute or chronic?

What is the risk associated if an infection can become chronic?

A
  • Hep B & C can be acute or chronic
  • Hep C** most commonly becomes _C_hronic**
  • Hep B usually stays acute (80-90% cases)
  • as they can become chronic, there is a risk of cirrhosis / hepatocellular carcinoma
    • this risk is greater with Hep C infection as it is more likely to become chronic
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40
Q

Under what circumstances can Hep D infection occur?

What is the associated risk?

A
  • Hep D is a coinfection / superinfection of Hep B
    • it can only occur if someone is already infected with Hep B
  • Hep D infection increases the risk of liver failure in someone with Hep B infection
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41
Q

What is the treatment for acute Hep B infection?

A
  • it does not require treatment as the infection is cleared naturally in 90% cases
  • if Hep B persists for > 6 months then antiviral treatment is required
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42
Q

What is the treatment for chronic Hep B infection?

What is the problem with this treatment?

A
  • antiviral treatment suppresses HBV DNA replication
    • it is NOT curative, so drug withdrawal leads to relapse
  • if the liver is working well (i.e. no decompensated cirrhosis) then peginterferon-a-2a is given
  • if the liver is functioining poorly (i.e. decompensated cirrhosis), then give tenofovir or entecavir
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43
Q

What is the treatment for hep B when there is a co-existing hep D infection?

A

peginterferon-a-2a AND tenofovir/entecavir

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44
Q

What is the treatment for hepatitis C infection?

A
  • this needs to be treated with antivirals as infection is likely to become chronic
  • treat with sofosbuvir or ledipasvir
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45
Q

What are the 2 antigens associated with the hepatitis B virus?

Which one can be useful in detecting Hep B infection?

A

Surface antigen:

  • HBsAg is on the outside of the molecule
  • if HBsAg is present, there is a current active Hep B infection

Core antigen:

  • HBcAg is in the middle of the virus and is not detectable in the blood
  • this is not useful in telling whether there is a current active infection
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46
Q

What are the 2 antibodies that are associated with Hep B infection?

What does their presence tell you about current infection?

A

Surface antibody:

  • HBsAb tells you that the person has cleared a Hep B infection
    • they had the infection in the past, but do not have it currently
  • OR they have been vaccinated against Hep B

Core antibody:

  • this is only derived from natural infection
  • if IgM is present, there is an acute infection
  • if IgG is present, this person may have a chronic infection
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47
Q

Complete the table

A
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48
Q

What does hepatitis E antigen represent?

A

HBeAg represents degree of replication, and thus infectivity

49
Q

How is hepatitis B spread?

What are children more at risk of if they get this infection?

A
  • most adults clear this infection
    • 10% become carriers and 10% develop chronic infection
  • children are more likely to become carriers / chronic infection
  • this can be transmitted:
    • ​sexually
    • IVDU / blood products
    • vertical transmission
50
Q

How is hepatitis C spread?

What is the major risk associated with this infection?

A
  • blood product spread
    • IVDU / transfusion
  • 80% of adults develop chronic hepatitis, which increases risk of hepatocellular carcinoma
  • infection is usually asymptomatic
51
Q

What are the key features to distinguish between the different hepatitis viruses in a history?

A

Hep A & E:

  • travel to endemic area / faeco-oral (contaminated water)

Hep B:

  • unprotected sex / MSM
  • vertical transmission

Hep C:

  • blood products - IVDU sharing needles
  • FEVER

in all of these infections AST / ALT will be in 1000s

52
Q

What is the main drug cause of hepatitis?

What is investigation and management?

A
  • paracetamol overdose leading to acute liver failure
  • AST / ALT will be in 1000s
  • need to measure serum paracetamol concentration
  • treatment is N-acetyl-cysteine
53
Q

What are other common causes of drug induced hepatitis?

By which mechanisms can drugs cause this?

A
  • some drugs will affect the hepatocytes themselves
    • paracetamol
    • NSAIDs
    • rifampicin
    • erythromycin
  • some drugs induce cholestasis by paralysing the bile duct
    • ​oral contraceptive pill
    • co-amoxiclav
    • nitrofurantoin
54
Q
A
55
Q

What are key features to pick up in the history for autoimmune hepatitis?

Why is it important to identify?

A
  • prevalence is highest in young females and people with other autoimmune diseases
    • e.g. type 1 diabetes
    • hashimoto’s thyroiditis
    • coeliac disease
  • ​it is a chronic disease that can lead to cirrhosis and liver failure if left untreated
56
Q

What tests are used to detect autoimmune hepatitis?

A

autoimmune liver screen

  • this is an autoantibody test that identifies some important antibodies responsible for autoimmune liver disease
  • ANA (antinuclear antibody)
  • ASMA (anti-smooth muscle antibody)
  • AMA (antimitochondrial antibody)
57
Q

What is the definition of haemochromatosis?

A

condition leading to abnormal iron deposition in certain organs

  • skin
  • liver
  • pancreas
  • heart
  • pituitary gland
  • joints
  • the levels of iron build-up in the organs over many years, leading to unpleasant symptoms
58
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary haemochromatosis?

A

Primary haemochromatosis:

  • hereditary - it is autosomal recessive
  • there is an inability to stop iron being absorbed from the GI tract, leading to its accumulation in affected organs

Secondary haemochromatosis:

  • this is due to iron overload
    • e.g. having multiple transfusions
59
Q

What is the pathophysiology involved in why primary (hereditary) haemochromatosis occurs?

A
  • a defect in the HFE gene means that transferrin binds poorly to its receptor
  • this causes the liver to reduce hepcidin production
    • hepcidin usually inhibits ferroportin (enterocyte iron transporter)
  • with reduced hepcidin production, ferroportin activity in the enterocytes in unregulated
  • more iron is transported across the enterocytes, leading to iron accumulation and damage to affected organs
60
Q

What are the main symptoms associated with haemochromatosis?

What can this progress to?

A
  • 75% of cases are asymptomatic
  • hepatomegaly
  • diabetes mellitus onset
  • bronze skin
  • arthralgia
  • male impotence / testicular atrophy
61
Q

Why do males experience an earlier onset of haemochromatosis than females?

A
  • females have an additional method of excreting iron through menstruation
  • this is not possible in males, so iron accumulates more quickly
62
Q

What are the investigations involved in haemochromatosis?

A
  • first line investigation is transferrin saturation and serum ferritin
    • transferrin saturation will be raised
    • serum ferritin will be raised (this is non-specific as it is an acute phase protein)
  • gene typing of HFE
  • gold standard is liver biopsy to see iron deposits
63
Q

What is Wilson’s disease?

Who is affected by this?

A
  • impaired copper excretion leads to copper accumulation in the liver and brain
  • it is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder
  • age of onset is 5 - 35 years
64
Q

What are the clinical features of Wilson’s disease?

A
  • characterised by hepatitis + dementia + parkinsonism in a young person
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • abdominal pain
  • jaundice
  • ascites
  • portal hypertension
  • Kayser-Fleischer rings
65
Q

What are the investigations conducted to diagnose Wilson’s disease?

A
  • 1st line investigation is LFTs + bloods + 24-hour urinary copper
    • raised transaminases & bilirubin
  • reduced serum ceruloplasmin (copper transport protein)
  • increased serum free copper
  • increased urinary copper excretion
  • slit lamp examination
  • gold standard is genetic testing / liver biopsy and measurement of copper content
66
Q

What is meant by cirrhosis?

Does the liver still function if it is cirrhotic?

A
  • normal liver is replaced by fibrosis and nodules of regenerating hepatocytes
  • it can be stable or decompensated (liver failure)
  • the liver still functions when it is cirrhotic, but cirrhosis can eventually lead to liver failure, which can be life-threatening
    • there is also increased risk of HCC
67
Q

What are the most common causes of cirrhosis?

What type of cirrhosis is seen in viral causes and alcoholic causes?

A
  • alcohol misuse
  • viral hepatitis (B / C)
  • autoimmune hepatitis
  • haemochromatosis
  • NASH
  • chronic biliary disease
  • viral hepatitis leads to macronodular cirrhosis (nodules > 3mm)
  • chronic alcohol abuse leads to a micronodular cirrhosis (nodules < 3mm)
68
Q

What are the most common stigmata of chronic liver disease?

A
  • clubbing
  • spider naevi
  • Dupuytren’s contracture
  • palmar erythema
  • gynaecomastia
  • increased bruising
  • a patient can be clincally well with hepatitis or cirrhosis, with signs of chronic stable liver disease
69
Q

What is the normal portal circulation?

What is the purpose of this?

A
  • blood from the spleen (splenic vein) and bowels (inferior and superior mesenteric veins) travels through the liver via the portal vein
  • this blood is full of ingested toxins / pathogens
  • the blood passes through the liver to be detoxified and then becomes part of the systemic circulation via the inferior vena cava
70
Q

What is meant by portal hypertension?

Why does it occur?

A
  • an increased pressure in the portal vein due to cirrhosis (of any cause)
  • it occurs due to a blockage in the liver (e.g. due to cirrhosis) leads to a backlog of blood into the portal system
  • this raises pressure within the portal vein
71
Q

How does blood flow from the portal to systemic circulation in portal hypertension?

A
  • blood in the portal vein has not yet been processed by the liver
  • it transfers into the systemic circulation at sites of porto-systemic anastomoses
    • lower oesophagus
    • anal canal
    • umbilicus
    • splenorenal
  • this increases the pressure in the systemic circulation at the porto-systemic anastomosis points
72
Q

What are clinical signs of portal hypertension?

A
  • distended veins (varices) - caput medusa
    • due to increased pressure as a result of porto-systemic anastomoses
  • ascites
    • blood is backing up into the veins and leaking out into the abdomen
  • splenomegaly
    • the spleen isn’t being drained properly via the splenic vein, so it becomes engorged in blood
  • oesophageal varices
73
Q

What is involved in the management of cirrhosis?

A
  • treat cause + avoid hepatotoxic drugs
    • alcohol
    • NSAIDs
    • sedatives
    • opiates
  • monitor the risk of complications
    • ​MELD score
    • 6-monthly USS
    • endoscopy upon diagnosis and every 3 years following
74
Q

Why does decompensated cirrhosis / liver failure lead to encephalopathy?

A
  • the liver functions to remove gut products from the blood
    • these arrive via the portal vein, and are removed before the blood returns to systemic circulation
  • in decompensated cirrhosis, the hepatocytes are damaged and less functional and there is scar tissue in the liver
  • the liver is less effective at removing gut products from the blood, so they make their way into the systemic circulation (intrahepatic shunting)
  • some blood from the gut bypasses the liver due to raised portal pressure at the sites of porto-systemic anastomoses
  • gut products in systemic circulation then impact on neurotransmission in the brain, causing encephalopathy
    • ​in this case, it is caused by ammonia
75
Q

What is the major risk factor for encephalopathy in the presence of cirrhosis?

What are other risk factors?

A

GI bleeding:

  • bleeding into the gut acts as a “protein meal”
  • blood is broken down into ammonia, which causes encephalopathy
  • the same effect would be seen in a high protein diet

Other causes:

  • infection
  • constipation
  • zinc deficiency
  • benzodiazepines
76
Q

What is the treatment for encephalopathy?

A
  • treat precipitating event + short term protein restriction
    • managing GI bleed, infection, etc.
  • oral lactulose, phosphate enema
    • ​this reduces ammonia production by gut bacteria
  • avoid sedatives
77
Q

What is the treatment for ascites as a complication of cirrhosis?

A
  • need to avoid fluid stasis in the abdomen as it could become infected
  • sodium restriction
  • diuretics - furosemide + spironolactone
  • large volume paracentesis
    • this is different to “ascitic tap” which is diagnostic paracentesis
    • this involves a needle into the abdomen to remove fluid
78
Q

What is spontaneous bacterial perionitis?

How is it diagnosed?

A
  • this is the development of a bacterial infection in the peritoneum
  • it occurs when the ascitic fluid (i.e. an increased volume of peritoneal fluid) becomes infected without an apparent source
  • it is diagnosed using paracentesis (needle aspiration of ascitic fluid)
  • SBP is diagnosed when neutrophil count of the aspirate is > 250 cells per mm3 in the absence of another reason for this
79
Q

What is the treatment for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A
  • antibiotic treatment with cefurotaxime + metronidazole
80
Q

What is the primary prophylaxis for varices?

Why is it needed?

A
  • varices are abnormally dilated vessels (usually veins) that are at risk of rupture
  • primary prophylaxis is in place to prevent rupture of varices
  • if small varices then give non-selective beta-blocker
  • if large varices then EVL (esophageal variceal ligation)
81
Q

What is the management for ruptured varices when there is haematemesis?

A
  • start with ABCDE approach then IV fluids and/or blood
  • need to replace blood when Hb < 7 g/dL or patient could bleed to death
    • fluids will replace volume, but not clotting factors
  • then give terlipressin + antibiotics
    • ​terlipressin reduces blood flow to the gut, which reduces pressure on the portal system
  • EVL is performed after resuscitation when the patient is haemodynamically stable
    • ​this involves placing bands over the varices to stop bleeding
82
Q

What is involved in secondary prophylaxis of oesophageal varices?

A
  • give non-selective beta-blocker to replace terlipressin after 2-5 days
  • if EVL + beta-blocker fails to prevent rupture, then TIPS procedure is performed
    • this involves connecting the portal vein to the hepatic vein in the liver to reduce pressure in the portal system
83
Q

What is the definition of liver failure?

What is the difference between acute and subacute liver failure?

A

severe liver dysfunction leading to jaundice, encephalopathy and coagulopathy

Acute:

  • encephalopathy occurs 1-4 weeks after onset of jaundice
    • it is hyperacute if < 7 days after onset of jaundice
  • seen in paracetamol overdose and viral hepatitis
    • associated with transaminitis (very high AST / ALT)

Subacute:

  • encephalopathy develops 4-12 weeks after onset of jaundice
84
Q

What is meant by acute-on-chronic liver failure?

A
  • this is acute decompensation in a patient who already has chronic liver disease
85
Q
A
86
Q

What is cholelithiasis?

What is biliary colic and why does it occur?

A
  • cholelithiasis refers to a gallstone in the gallbladder
  • biliary colic refers to presence of cholelithiasis + pain
  • the stone in the gallbladder moves into the cystic duct and obstructs the flow of bile moving into the common bile duct
  • the gallbladder contracts vigorously against the stone, which causes pain
  • this is worse after a fatty meal as this stimulates the gallbladder to contract (release of bile helps emulsification of fats)
87
Q

What is meant by acute cholecystitis?

What type of jaundice is present?

A
  • acute cholecystitis refers to cholelithiasis + inflammation with or without infection
  • there is no jaundice in acute cholecystis
  • the stone is within the gallbladder or cystic duct and is not obstructing the flow of bile
88
Q

What investigation is performed to diagnose gallstones?

A

USS of the liver and biliary tree

89
Q

What are the treatments for cholelithiasis, biliary colic and acute cholecystitis?

A
  • no treatment for cholelithiasis as it is an incidental finding
  • biliary colic is treated with analgesia + elective lap chole
  • acute cholecystitis is initially treated:
    • clear fluids only (to prevent gallbaldder from contracting)
    • analgesics
    • fluid resuscitation
    • broad spectrum IV abx if infection

then treated with lap chole within 1 week if uncomplicated

  • if fever and high WCC persists, they could have an abscess
  • perform delayed cholecystectomy after few weeks/months
90
Q

What is meant by choledocholithiasis?

What if there is also pain present?

A
  • choledocholelithiasis refers to a gallstone in the common bile duct
  • if there is choledocholelithiasis + pain then this is biliary colic
    • this term means presence of pain due to gallstones
91
Q

What happens if there is choledocholelithiasis + infection?

Would the patient be jaundiced?

A
  • an infection can develop behind the blocked common bile duct where there is stagnant bile
  • this is ascending cholangitis (infection of bile duct)
    • this is usually due to E. coli
  • the patient may be jaundiced with raised ALP / GGT as there is an obstruction to biliary flow
  • if the stone comes down the CBD to block the pancreatic duct then this can cause pancreatitis
92
Q

What is involved in the investigations of choledochoelithiasis and ascending cholangitis?

A
  • ultrasound of liver and biliary tree
  • ERCP if ascending cholangitis is suspected
93
Q

What is the management for choledocholelithiasis and biliary colic?

A
  • for both analgesia + ERCP + lap chole
  • in cholelithiasis, you do not remove the gallbladder if there is no pain
  • in choledocholelithiasis, remove the gallbladder even if there is no pain
    • the stone in the CBD will go on to cause complications, including pancreatitis and ascending cholangitis
94
Q

What triad is associated with cholangitis?

A

Charcot’s triad

  • pain
  • fever
  • jaundice
95
Q

What is involved in the management of ascending cholangitis?

A
  • initial treatment involves:
    • clear fluids only
    • analgesics
    • fluid resuscitation
    • broad IV antibiotics
    • ERCP to drain pus from common bile duct, then remove stones
  • delayed lap chole will be performed at a later date
96
Q
A
97
Q

What are the 5 Fs that describe the risk factors for gallstones?

A
  • Fair
  • Fat
  • Female
  • Forty
  • Fertile (1 or more children)
98
Q

What sign is often present in acute cholecystitis?

A

Murphy’s sign

  • press hand into the RUQ when patient is breathing in
  • they will stop breathing as it hurts so much when the gallbladder presses into the hand
99
Q

What type of conditions are PBC and PSC?

A
  • primary biliary cirrhosis affects intrahepatic ducts only
    • remember “biliary” - intrahepatic
  • primary sclerosing cholangitis affects both intrahepatic and extrahepatic ducts
    • remember “sclerosing” - extra- and intra- hepatic
  • they are both inflammatory conditions of the bile ducts that cause cholestasis
100
Q

What happens in primary biliary cirrhosis?

What bile ducts are affected and who tends to be affected more?

A
  • only affects intrahepatic ducts
  • more common in females
  • autoimmune condition in which the intrahepatic bile ducts are slowly destroyed
  • this leads to a build-up of bile and other toxins in the liver (cholestasis)
101
Q

What other conditions is PBC associated with?

How is it diagnosed?

A
  • it is associated with other autoimmune conditions including Sjorgen’s syndrome and rheumatoid arthritis
  • raised antimitochondrial antibodies are usually diagnostic
  • a “florid duct lesion” will be present on histology
    • this is a granulomatous destruction of bile ducts
102
Q

What are the complications of PBC?

A
  • cirrhosis
  • hepatocellular carcinoma
  • granuloma
    • aggregation of macrophages that occurs due to chronic inflammation
103
Q

What is primary sclerosing cholangitis?

Which ducts are affected and which gender is affected more often?

A

a long-term progressive disease of the liver and bile ducts characterised by inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts that usually allow bile to drain from the liver

  • affects both intra- and extra- hepatic ducts
  • affects males more than females
104
Q

What condition is associated with PSC?

What are potential complications?

A
  • associated with ulcerative colitis
  • complications include cirrhosis, hepatocellular carcinoma and cholangiocarcinoma
105
Q

How is PSC diagnosed?

What would it look like on histology?

A
  • it is diagnosed with MRCP
    • this shows a beaded appearance - segmental fibrosis with saccular dilation
  • histology will show “concentric onion skin fibrosis”
  • many antibodies, including pANCA, may be raised
106
Q

What are the 2 main symptoms of pancreatic cancer?

What is the main form of pancreatic cancer?

A
  • pancreatic cancer presents with painless jaundice and a palpable gallbladder
  • pancreatic cancers are mostly adenocarcinomas from exocrine tissue
    • 75% are found in the head of the pancreas
107
Q

What are the risk factors for pancreatic cancer?

A
  • smoking
  • obesity
  • type 2 diabetes mellitus
  • chronic pancreatitis
108
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of pancreatic cancer?

A
  • it commonly has a delayed presentation due to non-specific signs
    • malaise
    • weight loss
    • abdominal pain
  • post-hepatic jaundice is a later sign
  • if the tumour in the head of the pancreas obstructs the bile duct, this leads to painless jaundice and a palpable gallbladder
  • metastasis can lead to hepatomegaly
109
Q

What are the investigations for pancreatic cancer?

What tumour marker will be raised?

A
  • 1st line can be USS but pancreatic protocol CT is more sensitive and shows the extent of local or distant spread
  • gold standard is biopsy via ERCP / EUS
  • CA19-9 tumour marker will be raised
110
Q

What are the 2 different categories of malignant liver tumours?

A

Primary tumours:

  • these originate in the liver
  • 90% are hepatocellular carcinomas
    • these occur in people who have had cirrhosis for a long time
  • cholangiocarcinomas are cancer of the bile ducts

Secondary tumours (most common):

  • these are liver tumours that have metastasised from elsewhere
  • common sites are:
    • bowel
    • breast
    • oesophagus
    • stomach
    • pancreas
111
Q

What are the risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A
  • this is a primary malignancy of hepatocytes that usually occurs in a cirrhotic liver
  • hepatitis B and C infection
  • alcoholic liver disease
  • autoimmune hepatitis
  • haemochromatosis
  • NAFLD
  • aflatoxin
  • PBC / PSC
  • smoking
  • obesity
112
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A
  • malaise
  • anorexia
  • weight loss
  • RUQ pain
  • jaundice
  • ascites (due to chronic liver disease)
  • cachexia
  • hepatomegaly
113
Q

What are the investigations for hepatocellular carcinoma?

Which tumour marker will be raised?

A
  • LFTs and viral serology are first line
  • tumour marker is AFP
  • those at high risk of HCC have a 6-monthly USS
    • if a liver mass is found, they are referred via 2ww pathway
  • liver CT to confirm the mass
  • gold standard is liver biopsy
114
Q

What is cholangiocarcinoma?

Where does it arise from?

A
  • they are usually adenomas of the bile duct epithelium
  • can arise from intra- or extra-hepatic ducts or the gallbladder
115
Q

What are the risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma?

A
  • PSC
  • worm infections
  • cirrhosis
116
Q

What does it present similarly to?

How can they be distinguished>

A
  • signs and symptoms are the same as pancreatic cancer
    • pancreatic cancer is more common
  • they are distinguished by imaging / histology
117
Q

What are the investigations for cholangiocarcinoma?

A
  • first line is abdominal USS
    • this shows dilated intrahepatic ducts and mass lesion
  • gold standard is biopsy using ERCP
118
Q
A