Line Supervision Flashcards

1
Q

A ___________ is Primarily concerned with planning, directing, implementing and evaluating.

A

Manager

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2
Q

A ____________ is generally responsible for planning, staffing, training, assigning and delegating

A

Supervisor

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3
Q

A __________ is responsible for planning, allocating resources, and developing junior leaders who ultimately carry out the agency’s mission, goals and objectives

A

Manager

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4
Q

A __________ leads a team to accomplish the agency’s mission, goals, and objectives on a daily basis

A

Supervisor

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5
Q

__________ refers to the one-to-one reporting relationship between the subordinate and supervisor.

A

Unity of Command

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6
Q

__________ refers to the total number of subordinates a supervisor can manage as effectively as possible.

A

Span of Control

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7
Q

________ are courses of action, often broad and flexible, adopted and pursued by an agency that provide guidance on the department’s philosophy on identified issues.

A

Policies

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8
Q

________ are detailed descriptions of how officers implement a policy, including the steps taken, the task frequency, and the persons responsible for completing the tasks.

A

Procedures

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9
Q

________ are narrowly defined courses of action, or prohibited courses of action, that enhance the legal and ethical conduct of an organization’s employees.

A

Rules

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10
Q

________ level leaders determine the vision (direction) of the agency

A

Executive

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11
Q

________ leaders ensure the day-to-day operations help achieve the vision.

A

First-Line

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12
Q

__________ identify what equipment, supplies, and training their subordinates need and provide this information through the chain of command in the budget process.

A

First-Line Leaders

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13
Q

The First-Line leader acts as a _________ in helping subordinates understand the agency’s vision, mission, goals, and objectives.

A

Coach

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14
Q

The First-Line Leader acts as a __________ when aiding a subordinate to reach their potential or specific goals through coaching, counseling, guiding, sponsoring, and imparting knowledge.

A

Mentor

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15
Q

___________ are the leader’s expectations for subordinates

A

Antecedents

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16
Q

___________ is up to each individual.

A

Behavior

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17
Q

A leader can _________ another person’s behavior by establishing clear antecedents and delivering consistent consequences.

A

Influence

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18
Q

A __________ is nothing more than the result of an action. It can be a negative sanction or a positive reward.

A

Consequence

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19
Q

The ABC’s of behavior are ___________.

A

Antecedents, Behavior, and Consequence

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20
Q

Eric Erikson maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order through ______ stages of psychosocial development.

A

Eight

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21
Q

Maslow’s theory of Hierarchal needs and the five level of human needs are __________

A

Physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization

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22
Q

Maslow theorized that a hierarchy of needs _______ people, change over time, and lower-level needs must be satisfied before higher needs can be satisfied.

A

Motivates

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23
Q

_________ - Basic tenets of the theory and specific motivator and hygiene factors, Herzberg theorized that people have a need to avoid unpleasantness and a need for personal growth.

A

Herzberg’s Motivation-Hygiene Theory

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24
Q

This theory consists of four cornerstones Voice, Loyalty, Neglect, and Exit. Voice and Loyalty exist as complementary cornerstones. Neglect and Exit exist as complementary cornerstones.

A

Organizational Commitment Theory

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25
Q

Lists of expectations should not be longer than ______ items. People are capable of remembering lists of _______ items easily.

A

7 / 7

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26
Q

When the work environment is ___________, the employee is more likely to be engaged in the work and committed to the organization.

A

Healthy

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27
Q

Sender, Channel, Message, Receiver, and feedback are the ____________.

A

Five Components of the Communication Process

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28
Q

Transmits and encodes the message.

A

Sender

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29
Q

How the message is transmitted.

A

Channel

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30
Q

The content of the communication

A

Message

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31
Q

Receives and decodes the message

A

Receiver

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32
Q

Beneficial, but the least used part of the communication process

A

Feedback

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33
Q

__________ refers to the language used to achieve a desired effect on an audience.

A

Semantics

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34
Q

Structured form of listening and responding that focuses the attention on the speaker.

A

Active Listening

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35
Q

Understanding and retaining what the speaker said.

A

Content Listening

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36
Q

Understanding and evaluating the meaning of the speaker’s message on several levels

A

Critical Listening

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37
Q

Understanding the speaker’s feelings, needs, and wants so that you can appreciate their point of view.

A

Empathetic Listening

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38
Q

The “Big Five” personality traits of Openness, Conscientiousness, Extroversion, Agreeableness, and Neuroticism are also known as the ____________.

A

Five Factor Model

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39
Q

This trait features characteristics such as imagination and insight with a broad range of interests.

A

Openness

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40
Q

Features of this dimension include thoughtfulness, good impulse control, goal directed behaviors, tendency toward organization, mindful to details, and a higher scholastic performance.

A

Conscientiousness

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41
Q

This trait includes characteristics such as excitability, sociability, talkativeness, assertiveness, and high amounts of emotional expressiveness.

A

Extroversion

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42
Q

This personality dimension includes attributes such as trust, altruism, kindness, affection, and other pro-social behaviors.

A

Agreeableness

43
Q

Individuals high in this trait tend to experience emotional instability, anxiety, moodiness, irritability, and sadness.

A

Neuroticism

44
Q

The focus of energy and attention is in the external world.

A

Extraversion

45
Q

The focus of energy and attention is in the internal world.

A

Introversion

46
Q

Taking in and presenting information in a sequential, step-by-step, manner.

47
Q

Taking in and presenting information in a big picture way

48
Q

Make decisions by stepping away from the situation; objective view.

49
Q

Make decisions by stepping into the situation; empathetic view.

50
Q

A planned approach to meeting the deadline in a scheduled manner.

51
Q

A spontaneous approach to meeting the deadline with a rush of activity.

A

Perceiving

52
Q

_________ is understanding, being aware of, being sensitive to, and vicariously experiencing the feelings, thoughts, and experience of another person.

53
Q

_________ is an affinity, association, or relationship between persons or things wherein whatever affects one similarly affects the other.

54
Q

The top four characteristics of leaders that people said they would willingly follow are

A

Honest, Inspiring, Able to Look Forward (Visionary), and Competent

55
Q

Model the Way, Inspire a shared vision, Challenge the process, Enable others to act, and Encourage the heart are the five _____________.

A

Fundamental practices of exemplary leadership

56
Q

The three basic styles of leadership are__________.

A

Autocratic, Democratic, and Laissez-faire

57
Q

The authoritarian leadership style makes all decisions without any input from others.

A

Autocratic

58
Q

The participatory leadership style that allows subordinates to have input in the decision-making process when the situation permits.

A

Democratic

59
Q

The delegator or free-rein leadership style that is hands-off and allows group members to make the decisions, placing few limitations on their actions.

A

Laissez-Faire

60
Q

Lack of self-confidence, level of maturity and life experience, lack of emotional intelligence, fear of failure, refusal to listen and learn from others, little or no training opportunities, preference for non-confrontation, lack of funding, failure to visualize the future concrete terms and allowing generational stereotypes are all ___________.

A

Challenges to Leadership Development

61
Q

Event counseling, performance counseling, and professional growth counseling are all components of ____________.

A

Developmental Counseling

62
Q

The four D’s of time management are _____________

A

Dump, Delegate, Decide when to do, and Do now

63
Q

Stress reduction, maximum efficiency, maximum productivity, cost savings, improved employee morale, management satisfaction, improved agency image, and higher quality decisions are all benefits of ___________.

A

Effective Time Management

64
Q

Goals should be SMART.

A

Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, and Timely

65
Q

This specialized method for weighing pros and cons gets a whole view of all the forces for or against a plan so that a decision can be made which takes into account all interests.

A

Force Field Analysis

66
Q

The proper allocation of resources and personnel to properly handle situations that might impact the daily operations of the organization.

67
Q

Identifying specific personnel or groups to accomplish a specific task, solve specific problems, expand communication with target individuals or groups, and provide services during specific time periods or locations.

68
Q

Assigning authority and transferring a task to a subordinate

A

Delegation

69
Q

Preferential treatment, bias, and failure to deal with problems immediately are all conditions that _____________

A

May lead to Grievances

70
Q

A work-site based program designed to assist an agency in addressing productivity issues and to assist employees in identifying and resolving personal concerns that may affect job performance.

A

Employee Assistance Program

71
Q

Counseling for personal issues, referrals for professional services, and assistance for work environment issues are all services provided by the ____________.

A

Employee Assistance Program

72
Q

An event that has the potential to overwhelm one’s usual coping mechanisms, resulting in psychological distress and impairment of normal adaptive functioning.

A

Critical Incident

73
Q

Any situation that causes an officer to experience unusually strong emotional reactions that have the potential to interfere with their ability to function on the job, either at the time of the incident or through a delayed reaction.

A

Traumatic Incident

74
Q

Civil wrong committed by a person that causes injury or harm to the property or person of the victim.

75
Q

A violation of a duty to act with reasonable care towards others that causes a reasonably foreseeable harm or injury.

A

Negligent Tort

76
Q

A willful action by a person directed towards another person that results in harm to that person

A

Intentional Tort

77
Q

A legal doctrine that the state cannot be sued without its consent, even for wrongful acts of its agents or employees.

A

Sovereign Immunity

78
Q

Sovereign immunity is waived in tort actions by S. 768.28, F.S., when a __________ was caused by the negligent or wrongful act or omission of an employee of the agency while acting within the scope of the employee’s employment.

A

Personal Injury, Death, or Property Loss

79
Q

Liability that a supervisor bears for the actionable conduct of a subordinate.

A

Vicarious Liability

80
Q

Liability an employer bears for the wrongdoing of an employee or agent if it was committed within the scope of employment or agency.

A

Respondeat Superior

81
Q

Liability that results when a supervisor or instructor fails to provide adequate training to subordinates and that failure results in injury

A

Failure to Train

82
Q

Liability that results when an appropriate course of action, as dictated by rules, regulations, or policies, is not followed nor enforced by a supervisor, leading to an outcome that is determined to be harmful to another party.

A

Failure to Direct

83
Q

Liability that results when the supervisor is responsible for a subordinate’s performance and either withholds permission to allow the officer to meet their lawful responsibilities or allows behaviors and outcomes as a result of an officer’s performance without overseeing the administration of those duties.

A

Failure to Supervise

84
Q

Liability that results when employees are provided equipment or other resources without the commensurate training and skill development to use them effectively.

A

Negligent Entrustment

85
Q

Liability that results when known facts, harmful to the mission of the organization, the safety of the public, or other employees of this or other agencies are known and yet disregarded, resulting in harm to other parties or organizations.

A

Deliberate Indifference

86
Q

Liability that results when a supervisor has knowledge of an officer’s misconduct and fails to take corrective action.

A

Failure to Discipline

87
Q

Liability that results when an organization fails to exercise due diligence in its hiring, background investigation, psychological testing, or other legally required or responsible process, thereby allowing the employment of unqualified or substandard employees.

A

Negligent Hiring

88
Q

Liability that results when the organization or its leadership “knew or should have known” that retaining an employee based on past or current behaviors, when such facts have been substantiated, symbolizes deliberate indifference to the position of trust and authority that was granted by the employing agency.

A

Negligent Retention

89
Q

Unsolicited, unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct and offensive conduct of a sexual nature.

A

Sexual Harassment

90
Q

Conduct where a supervisor, employee, or someone with the ability to affect the victim’s terms and conditions of employment demands sexual favors in return for job security or other benefits.

A

Quid Pro Quo

91
Q

An office culture where lewd jokes or other offensive habits are acceptable.

A

Hostile Work Environment

92
Q

The action a person takes to deprive another individual or group of a right because of prejudice involving color, national origin, race, religion, or sex.

A

Discrimination

93
Q

Identify the potential liability associated with use of force incidents.

A

Litigation, Criminal Charges, and Sanctions against the officer, their supervisor, the organization, or any combination.

94
Q

A standard of conduct based on moral duties and virtues that are derived from the principles of right and wrong and demonstrated in how a person or organization acts or should act in relation to others.

95
Q

A person will see behavior as absolutely right or absolutely wrong if the behavior violates their ethical values.

A

Ethical values as values that are absolutes for a person

96
Q

Values that a person sees as important, but they are not absolute rights or absolute wrongs.

A

Non-Ethical Values

97
Q

Things that influence the development of your core values, such as family, friends, religion, textbooks, music, media, and prejudice.

A

Value System Processing

98
Q

Conduct, aims, or qualities that characterize or mark a profession.

A

Professionalism

99
Q

Doing the right thing at the right time for the right reason

A

Ethical and Professional Behavior

100
Q

A situation that causes your head to hurt, your heart to ache, and your stomach to rock.

A

Ethical Dilemma

101
Q

Rigid adherence to an ethical code of conduct

102
Q

Describe the leaders responsibility with the incident command system (ICS).

A

Implement an ICS, Contain the Scene, Ensure safety of officers, and Apprehend any subjects without incident.

103
Q

Describe the supervisors role within the National Incident Management System (NIMS).

A

Assist the incident commander, ensure accountability