Line Notes Flashcards

1
Q

When checking the final loadsheet what are the limits ECAM fuel, TRIM fuel and ECAM CofG?

A

ECAM fuel +/-400kgs
TRIM fuel +/-400kgs
ECAM CofG +/-1%

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2
Q

In the database identifier, what does QF61302001 mean?

A

QF6: Qantas A380

13: the last two digits of the year in which the validity period commences
02: the number of the AIRAC cycle for the calendar year
01: the version number of the database for the current cycle

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3
Q

At what times are the latest wind forecasts available?

A

0400, 1000, 1600, and 2200z

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4
Q

How is the FL200 Total Hold Available (THA) fuel calculated?

A

Step 1 (fuel calculation): THA=(FOD)-(10% of Descent fuel)-(APP fuel)-(FFR)

Step 2 (conversion to holding time):
FL200 THA (HH:MM)=(THA fuel)/(special holding fuel flow)
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5
Q

In meteorological terms what does VC mean?

A

Vicinity

Meaning 5-10sm or 8-16kms

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6
Q

In meteorological terms what does CIG mean?

A

There is no BKN or OVC cloud below the indicated height.

Ie CIG030

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7
Q

What do category A, B, C, and D MEL repair intervals mean?

A

Category A: must be repaired in the time limit specified.

Category B: must be repaired within 3 consecutive days (72 hours), excluding the day of the report.

Category C: must be repaired within 10 consecutive days (240 hours), excluding the day of the report.

Category D: must be repaired within 120 consecutive days.

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8
Q

How does Ground Speed mini affect Vapp?

A

It adds 1/3 of the Tower reported Headwind component to a minimum value of 5kts to VLS.
Flight Crew can modify Vapp.

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9
Q

What is the maximum difference between rwy length for landing from OANS and the rwy length for landing from charts where BTV must not be used?

A

35m or 115ft

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10
Q

According to ICAO recommendations, the geometry of a high speed exit may enable the flight crew to vacate the rwy up to what ground speed?

A

50kts

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11
Q

BTV
If a rwy exit is selected in the last 300m of the rwy, what will BTV aim for?
What part of the rwy does this coincide with?

A

BTV will target to reach 10kts at 300m from the end of the rwy.
This coincides with rwy CL lighting becoming all red.

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12
Q

When can’t BTV be used for landing?

A

On contaminated rwys,
Any reverse inoperative, or
When rwy discrepancy exceeds 35m

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13
Q

What is the approximate fuel jettison dump rate?

A

2,500kg/min

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14
Q
At sea level, with the bleed off, what are the ENG start parameters?
THR
EGT
N1
N2
N3
Fuel Flow?
A
THR    5%
EGT    370°
N1       17%
N2       50%
N3       60%
FF        600kg/h
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15
Q

During an RTO, below what speed is there no automatic deployment of the spoilers and autobrake?

A

72kts

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16
Q

How does the FADEC use Modified Engine Take-Off Thrust Setting (METOTS)?

A

It limits the ENGs to a maximum of 78% N1 while the speed is below 35kts.

17
Q

When is an overspeed warning triggered?

A

VMO + 4kts (344kts)

18
Q

When is Overspeed PROTECTION activated?

A

VMO +10kts (350kts) indicated by green dashes.

19
Q

At what AOB will the FD bars disappear from the PFD?

A

> 45°

20
Q

What does Vls represent?

A

The lowest speed with the A/THR engaged.

21
Q

What does Va PROT represent?

A

With no A/THR the speed can reduce to Va PROT. If the AP is engaged, it will disconnect. FCC will maintain Va PROT if the sidestick is released.

22
Q

What is the sterile flight deck period?

A

From commencement of T/O roll to airborne.

And,

When the ‘Exit’ signs illuminate to when the aircraft stops or turns off the active runway.

23
Q

What are the max and min speeds for turbulence?

A

Max: 300kts/0.85

Min: Green Dot

24
Q

What are the symptoms of a damaged engine?

A

Two or more of the following observations:
Rapid increase of EGT above redline
Mismatch of rotor speeds or no rotation
Aircraft vibrations of buffeting
Abnormal ENG oil pressure or temperature
Hydraulic system loss
Repeated, or non controllable engine stalls
Burning or oil smell in the flight deck

25
Q

Who has control of the radio during ‘Deferred Procedures’?

A

Deferred Procedures are checklists, not ECAMs, therefore the PM.

26
Q

To perform an action requested by a procedure, how should the PM articulate the sequence?

A

Stating:
Related panel (Air)
Control (X bleed)
Action (close)

“Air, X bleed, close”.

27
Q

What is the difference between LDG DIST affected and LDG PERF affected?

A

LDG DIST means that only the landing distance is affected.

LDG PERF affected means the FMC does not know the landing configuration of the acft and this will need to be manually entered to give both LDG SPD and LDG DIST.

28
Q

In EMER ELEC CONFIG which flight control is not available?

A

Thrust Reversers. These are operated by an Electrical Thrust Reverser Actuation System (ETRAS) that operates and locks the transitioning cowls.

29
Q

Where is RWY auto land approval stated both in Australia and Internationally?

A

In Australia, in the FCOM

Internationally, autoland will be annotated on the approach plate adjacent to the landing minima.

30
Q

Landing geometry..
What RWY touchdown length do the following crossing heights represent?

52’
63’
74’
What is the formula?

A

52’ equates to 1000’
63’ is 1200’
74’ is 1400’

Formula:
Crossing height X 19 = RWY touchdown length
(1/tan 3°)

31
Q

When ATC cannot be contacted for Wx deviation, what are the procedures?

A

Call on 121.5 and 123.45,
Watch for TCAS,
Turn all exterior lights on,
For deviations less than 10nm remain at alt,
For deviations greater than 10nm a climb or descent of 300’ is required.
If the deviation is north of track - descend,
If it’s to the south - climb

32
Q

What is the LMC limit?

A

700kgs total.

Note: LMC allowance is to be applied to all adjustments, not just net change.

33
Q

APU management.
On arriving at the acft, if the APU is:

OFF, above what cabin temp must it and the bleed be turned on?

On, and temperatures can be maintained below what temp can the APU be turned off?
If the APU is off, when do you turn it of?

A

APU:

OFF, 27°

On, 27°

Turn APU on at ETD - 15 mins.

34
Q

From a Maintanence perspective, when is the acft considered dispatched?

A

After acft doors are closed.

MEL preamble presentation

35
Q

Cruise other than optimum, what is the approx fuel penalty for operating:

4000’ below optimum?

8000’ below optimum?

Flight above optimum up to ceiling?

A

4000’ below optimum? Approx 5% of fuel

8000’ below optimum? Approx 10% of fuel

Flight above optimum up to ceiling? Up to 4% increase

36
Q
What are the flight parameter deviations for:
IAS?
V/S?
Pitch attitude?
Bank angle?
ILS/FLS?
A

IAS? Vapp +10kts/-5kts
V/S? > 1000ft/min ROD
Pitch attitude? +7°/-3°
Bank angle? 5°
ILS/FLS? 1/2a dot for LOC and GS

37
Q

At what stages does thrust washout occur?

A

D03. 85%. 27,000’
D02. 90%. 30,000’
D01. 97%. 33,000’
Cl max. 100%