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Electrical Foundations (Common Core) > Line C > Flashcards

Line C Flashcards

1
Q

Name the parts of the handsaw shown in Figure 1.

A
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2
Q

What term is used to describe the clearance a saw blade has when it cuts wood?

a. Set
b. Slop
c. Slack
d. Shape

A

Set

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3
Q

What term is used to describe the slot of material that is removed by a saw?

a. Kerf
b. Loof
c. Swift
d. Tooth

A

Kerf

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4
Q

What can cause a handsaw to buckle when cutting into wood?

a. Saw too long
b. Blade too wide
c. Too little pressure
d. Too much pressure

A

Too much pressure

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5
Q

What is a backsaw also known as?

a. Ripsaw
b. Bucksaw
c. Spine saw
d. Tenon saw

A

Tenon saw

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6
Q

What features are shared by the backsaw and the mitre saw?

a. Tapered nose
b. Rip blade profile
c. Metal reinforcing strip
d. Straight handle pattern

A

Metal reinforcing strip

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7
Q

Identify the saws in Figure 2.

A

a. Compass saw
b. Keyhole saw
c. Hacksaw
d. Pull saw

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8
Q

To cut wood fibres, what are the teeth of the crosscut saw shaped like?

a. Pegs
b. Hooks
c. Knives
d. Chisels

A

Knives

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9
Q

What do the numbers “1218” printed on a hacksaw blade indicate?

a. 18 in. long and 12 teeth per inch
b. 8 in. long and 121 teeth per inch
c. 12 in. long and 18 teeth per inch
d. the date of manufacture: 12th month 18th day

A

12 in. long and 18 teeth per inch

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10
Q

Hacksaw blades should have the teeth facing forward so that all cutting is done on the forward stroke.

A

True

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11
Q

What type of file is best for rough, fast cutting of metal?

a. Nail
b. Cabinet
c. Single-cut
d. Double-cut

A

Double-cut

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12
Q

Where is the length of a file correctly measured from?

a. End to end
b. Heel to tang
c. Point to heel
d. Edge to edge

A

Point to heel

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13
Q

Which file is used to obtain a smooth cut?

a. Rasp
b. Flat face
c. Single-cut
d. Double-cut

A

Single-cut

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14
Q

What is used to clean files that are clogged with waste material?

a. A pick file
b. A file card
c. A file comb
d. Soapstone

A

A file card

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15
Q

When sharpening a chisel, what effect will overheating cause?

a. Melting
b. Strengthening
c. Loss of temper
d. Dulling of the edge

A

Loss of temper

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16
Q

Identify the two blade types shown in Figure 3.

A

a. Bevel edge

b. Straight edge

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17
Q

Which chisel should not be struck by a mallet?

a. Paring
b. Firmer
c. Framing
d. Mortise

A

Paring

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18
Q

The bevelled cutting edge of a flat cold chisel is ground to what angle?

a. 50°–60°
b. 60°–70°
c. 70°–90°
d. 90°–100°

A

60º–70º

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19
Q

What should be done when the head of a chisel becomes mushroomed?

a. Tape the edge.
b. Grind the edge clean.
c. Use it for light work only.
d. Paint it red as a warning.

A

Grind the edge clean.

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20
Q

When manufactured, what part of a chisel is actually hardened and tempered?

a. It is tempered throughout.
b. It is tempered at the striking end.
c. It is tempered at the cutting end only.
d. It is tempered at the cutting and striking ends.

A

It is tempered at the cutting end only.

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21
Q

What part of the combination square contains a spirit level?

a. Fixed head
b. Bevel head
c. Square head
d. Protractor head

A

Square head

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22
Q

What angle is the bevel on a drill-point gauge?

a. 49°
b. 59°
c. 69°
d. 79°

A

59º

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23
Q

What are the smallest graduations on a metric pocket tape?

a. Metres
b. Decimetres
c. Millimetres
d. Centimetres

A

Millimetres

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24
Q

What tool should be used to measure the internal bore of a cylinder?

a. A drill gauge
b. Inside calipers
c. A feeler gauge
d. Outside calipers

A

Inside calipers

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25
Q

What is a scriber intended for?

a. Chipping slag from welds
b. Cleaning threads on bolts
c. Lining up holes in plate steel
d. Scratching lines on soft metals

A

Scratching lines on soft metals

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26
Q

Which dimension in Figure 1 correctly indicates thread pitch?

A

A

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27
Q

In Figure 2, which is the correct way to wind up a steel tape?

A

A

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28
Q

Which of the following tools would best be used to lay out a circle?

a. Chalk line
b. Compass
c. Try square
d. Micrometer

A

Compass

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29
Q

What type of square has a sliding head that can be used to lay out 90° and 45° angles?

a. Try square
b. Framing square
c. Carpenter’s square
d. Combination square

A

Combination square

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30
Q

What is the smallest dimension that can be accurately be measured with a Vernier caliper?

a. 2.0 mm
b. 0.2 mm
c. 0.02 mm
d. 0.002 mm

A

0.02 mm

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31
Q

What is an advantage of using C-clamps?

a. They are useful for small, tight areas.
b. They are quick opening and quick closing.
c. They exert only a limited amount of pressure.
d. They never require the use of protective padding.

A

They are useful for small tight areas.

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32
Q

What is an advantage of using hand-screw clamps?

a. They are quick opening and quick closing.
b. They are best when used on round objects.
c. They can apply pressure using different angles.
d. They always require the use of protective wood strips or padding.

A

They can apply pressure using different angles.

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33
Q

Identify the clamps illustrated in Figure 1.

A

a. C-clamp
b. Hand-screw clamp
c. Spring clamp
d. Pipe-style clamp

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34
Q

Which clamp is the quickest and easiest to use but is limited in the amount of pressure it can apply?

a. C-clamp
b. Band clamp
c. Hand-screw clamp
d. Spring clamp

A

Spring clamp

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35
Q

Which clamp is best suited for clamping irregularly shaped objects?

a. C-clamp
b. Band clamp
c. Hand-screw clamp
d. Spring clamp

A

Band clamp

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36
Q

Which of these clamping tools is attached to a work bench?

a. C-clamp
b. Bar clamp
c. Wood vise
d. Hand-screw clamp

A

Wood vise

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37
Q

What can be done to protect the workpiece when using a bench vise?

a. Use a set of soft jaw caps.
b. Grip your workpiece by the corners.
c. Grip it as tightly as possible to prevent movement.
d. Grip it very lightly to prevent damage to the piece.

A

Use a set of soft jaw caps.

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38
Q

How is the size of a vise determined?

a. The width of the vise jaws
b. The length of the vise handle
c. The overall weight of the vise
d. The height of the jaws above the bench surface

A

The width of the vise jaws

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39
Q

When hammering on a workpiece in a vise, in which direction should you apply force?

a. Toward the movable jaw
b. Down toward the bench
c. From the side of the vise
d. Toward the stationary jaw

A

Toward the stationary jaw

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40
Q

When precision drilling on a drill press, how should the machine vise be secured?

a. Held firmly with one hand
b. Held firmly with both hands
c. Held firmly by a second person
d. Bolted firmly to the drill press table

A

Bolted firmly to the drill press table

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41
Q

Which type of hammer is used to pull nails?

a. Sledge
b. Ball-peen
c. Curved claw
d. Straight claw

A

Curved claw

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42
Q

What is a preferred characteristic for a quality hammer?

a. It has a short handle.
b. It has an extra-long handle.
c. It should feel well balanced.
d. It should feel heavy in the head.

A

It should feel well balanced.

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43
Q

Which hammer is best used when driving stakes or drift pins?

a. Sledge
b. Ball-peen
c. Curved claw
d. Straight claw

A

Sledge

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44
Q

What type of hammer is best used to set rivets or drive a punch?

a. Sledge
b. Ball-peen
c. Curved claw
d. Straight claw

A

Ball-peen

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45
Q

What is the head of a quality ball-peen hammer made from?

a. Cast alloy iron
b. Cast alloy steel
c. Forged stainless steel
d. Drop-forged alloy steel

A

Drop-forged alloy steel

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46
Q

How is the size of a ball-peen hammer determined?

a. Length of the head
b. Weight of the head
c. Length of the handle
d. Weight of the entire hammer

A

Weight of the head

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47
Q

What type of hammer is a brass-headed hammer considered to be?

a. Framing hammer
b. Riveting hammer
c. Soft-face hammer
d. Lightweight hammer

A

Soft-face hammer

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48
Q

What must be done with a cracked hammer handle?

a. Soak it in water.
b. Use for light duties only.
c. Tape it to prevent splinters.
d. Replace it with a new handle.

A

Replace it with a new handle.

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49
Q

What type of bar is best used for framing work when nails have to be pulled from lumber?

a. Crowbar
b. Nail claw
c. Wonder bar
d. Wrecking bar

A

Nail claw

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50
Q

What type of bar is also known as a “gooseneck”?

a. Crowbar
b. Nail claw
c. Wonder bar
d. Wrecking bar

A

Wrecking bar

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51
Q

What type of short, flat bar is best used for light prying and stripping work?

a. Crowbar
b. Nail claw
c. Wonder bar
d. Wrecking bar

A

Wonder bar

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52
Q

What type of long, heavy bar would have a wedge point for digging soil or stripping concrete forms?

a. Crowbar
b. Nail claw
c. Wonder bard. Wrecking bar

A

Crowbar

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53
Q

How should a hand level be stored when not in use?

a. Hang it up.
b. Place it in water.
c. Lay it on its edge.
d. Stack it on its end.

A

Hang it up.

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54
Q

What can a plumb bob establish?

a. Level lines
b. Vertical lines
c. Diagonal lines
d. Horizontal lines

A

Vertical lines

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55
Q

What must be avoided when using a laser level?

a. Mounting it on a tripod
b. Placing it on a level surface
c. Looking directly at the laser
d. Using the instrument by yourself

A

Looking directly at the laser

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56
Q

Three-vial hand levels used curved vials.

A

False

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57
Q

A line level is the best option for very accurate layouts.

A

False

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58
Q

What is the usual method of supporting a laser level?

a. Bench
b. Tripod
c. String line
d. Saw horse

A

Tripod

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59
Q

How many vials does a torpedo level have?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6

A

3

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60
Q

What type of wrench is used to tighten Allen screws?

a. Hex wrench
b. Socket wrench
c. 12-point wrench
d. Adjustable wrench

A

Hex wrench

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61
Q

What type of wrench has a box end at one end and an open end at the other?

a. Open-box wrench
b. Double-duty wrench
c. Combination wrench
d. Double-ended wrench

A

Combination wrench

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62
Q

How is the size of an adjustable wrench determined?

a. By its jaw length
b. By its total weight
c. By its overall length
d. By the size of its jaw opening

A

By its overall length

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63
Q

How should wrenches be maintained?

a. Greased daily
b. Wiped clean daily
c. Varnished occasionally
d. Soaked in solvent after each use

A

Wiped clean daily

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64
Q

How can an hex wrench be reconditioned if worn?

a. Bend it into shape.
b. It must be discarded.
c. Hammer the end flat.
d. Grind the worn end off slowly.

A

Grind the worn end off slowly.

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65
Q

Which wrench provides the best grip on a fastener?

a. Box-end wrench
b. Spud wrench
c. Open-end wrench
d. Adjustable wrench

A

Box-end wrench

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66
Q

What tool should be avoided when tightening nuts or bolts?

a. Socket wrench
b. Slip-joint pliers
c. Adjustable wrench
d. Open-end wrench

A

Slip-joint pliers

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67
Q

What tool is especially useful for removing cotter pins and for trimming cotter pins to the desired length after installation?

a. Locking pliers
b. Side-cutting pliers
c. Needle-nose pliers
d. Interlocking slip-joint pliers

A

Side-cutting pliers

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68
Q

What type of pliers can be opened to a number of positions while the jaws remain parallel to each other?

a. Locking pliers
b. Side-cutting pliers
c. Needle-nose pliers
d. Interlocking slip-joint pliers

A

Interlocking slip-joint pliers

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69
Q

What type of pliers have a built-in spring mechanism that allows them to be locked into position?

a. Locking pliers
b. Side-cutting pliers
c. Needle-nose pliers
d. Interlocking slip-joint pliers

A

Locking pliers

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70
Q

What type of screwdriver is used for turning screws that have a single slot?

a. Torx screwdriver
b. Phillips screwdriver
c. Flat-blade screwdriver
d. Robertson screwdriver

A

Flat-blade screwdriver

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71
Q

In what sizes are Phillips screwdrivers available?

a. 1, 2, 3, and 4
b. 0, 00, 001, and 002
c. 3/32 in., 1/8 in., 3/16 in., and 1/4 in.
d. A, B, C, and D

A

1, 2, 3, and 4

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72
Q

What type of screw head is illustrated in Figure 1?

a. Star head
b. Torx head
c. Phillips head
d. Robertson head

A

Torx head

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73
Q

What determines the size of a screwdriver?

a. Width of the tip
b. Length of the shank
c. Overall length of the driver
d. Size of the screw the driver fits

A

Length of the blade

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74
Q

Name the parts of the screwdriver shown in Figure 2.

A
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75
Q

In Figure 3, which illustrations of slot screwdriver tips and screws in Figure 3 show a correct fit?

A

Correct: c, d

Incorrect: a, b, e

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76
Q

Which screwdriver has the tips at right angles to the shank?

a. Offset screwdriver
b. Stubby screwdriver
c. Ratchet screwdriver
d. Cabinet-tip screwdriver

A

Offset screwdriver

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77
Q

Identify the screwdriver tips shown in Figure 4.

A

a. Phillips
b. Slot
c. Robertson
d. Torx
e. Clutch drive

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78
Q

Why is a torque wrench used?

a. To loosen stubborn fittings
b. To apply a specified twisting force
c. To prevent a bolt or cap screw from breaking
d. To get maximum torque on a bolt or cap screw

A

To apply a specified twisting force

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79
Q

What is equipped with most sets of tubing cutters?

a. Level
b. Scriber
c. Reamer
d. Spare wheel

A

Reamer

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80
Q

What is not a main part of a puller?

a. Jaws
b. Reamer
c. Cross arm
d. Centre-forcing screw

A

Reamer

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81
Q

Which is not a basic shape of shovel blade?

a. Spade
b. Round
c. Square
d. Diamond

A

Diamond

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82
Q

What pressure is a grease gun capable of achieving?

a. 500 psi
b. 1000 psi
c. 5000 psi
d. 10 000 psi

A

10 000 psi

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83
Q

What is the definition of a power tool?

a. A tool that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
b. A tool that converts hydraulic energy into mechanical energy
c. A tool that converts pneumatic energy into mechanical energy
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

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84
Q

Which of the following is an example of a combustion-powered tool?

a. Rototiller
b. Cordless drill
c. Hydraulic jackhammer
d. Air paint sprayer

A

Rototiller

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85
Q

Which type of power tool converts the chemical energy found in fuel gases to electrical energy?

a. Electric power tools
b. Hydraulic power tools
c. Air power tools
d. Combustion engine power tools

A

Combustion engine power tools

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86
Q

How are air tools powered?

a. Using the energy of combustion
b. Transferring energy through compressed air
c. Transferring energy through pressurized liquids
d. All of the above

A

Transferring energy through compressed air

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87
Q

Which type of power tool uses liquid to convey energy?

a. Electric power tool
b. Hydraulic power tool
c. Powder-actuated tool
d. Air power tool

A

Hydraulic power tool

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88
Q

Which power tool employs a chemical propellant to drive fasteners?

a. Electric power tool
b. Hydraulic power tool
c. Powder-actuated tool
d. Air power tool

A

Powder-actuated tool

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89
Q

Portable electric power tools can be corded or battery powered.

A

True

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90
Q

Combustion-powered tools typically use diesel or gasoline as their energy source.

A

True

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91
Q

Air tools are found only in the painting industry.

A

False

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92
Q

Which part of the body is most commonly injured in accidents involving power tools?

a. Eyes
b. Face
c. Knees
d. Fingers

A

Fingers

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93
Q

What is the cause of a large portion of power tool injuries, according to WorkSafeBC?

a. Using the incorrect power supply
b. Uncontrollable speeds employed by the operator
c. Power surges causing the tool to behave erratically
d. Changing bits or blades while the power source is connected

A

Changing bits or blades while the power source is connected

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94
Q

Which power tool is most commonly involved in workplace accidents?

a. Cordless drill
b. Power sander
c. Air drill
d. Various types of power saws

A

Various types of power saws

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95
Q

What factors contribute to making cordless power tools safer than corded ones?

a. Most corded tools are more compact.
b. Cords provide a U-ground and a safe path to ground for any stray voltage.
c. Batteries have a higher voltage than wall outlets, and therefore use safer, lower amperages.
d. Batteries have a much lower voltage than wall outlets and therefore have a reduced shock factor.

A

Batteries have a much lower voltage than wall outlets and therefore have a reduced shock factor.

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96
Q

What is the safest course of action if it is discovered that the U-ground prong on a bench tool plug is missing?

a. Use the tool; if it runs, it works.
b. Only use the cord in a dry environment.
c. Tag the tool as “damaged” and remove from service and have the cord fixed.
d. Find another tool to use until someone takes care of the broken tool.

A

Tag the tool as “damaged” and remove from service and have the cord fixed.

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97
Q

What is required when portable electrical equipment is used outdoors or in a damp environment?

a. The operator must be trained in wet work.
b. The equipment must be protected by a GFCI.
c. The equipment must be protected by a tarp.
d. The operator must wear insulated rubber boots.

A

The equipment must be protected by a GFCI.

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98
Q

What must be done to safely use an electric power tool that is not double insulated?

a. The cord must be three pronged and grounded.
b. The work must be approved by the safety officer.
c. The supply voltage must be 208 volts, three phase.
d. There is no special consideration for tools that aren’t double insulated.

A

The cord must be three pronged and grounded.

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99
Q

Batteries for cordless power tools are interchangeable and have the same voltage.

A

False

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100
Q

Clean plastic parts with a cloth and mild soapy water, never with solvents.

A

True

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101
Q

The owner’s manual for power tools is only meant for new workers.

A

False

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102
Q

The power cord of a portable power tool is a convenient and safe option for hoisting tools up a ladder.

A

False

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103
Q

An inoperative or damaged tool should be tagged out of service and reported to supervision.

A

True

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104
Q

Ensuring that personnel, equipment, and material such as wires and pipe will not be damaged by a power tool is the responsibility of the operator.

A

True

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105
Q

Power tool motors are generally considered waterproof and are protected from both water and oil.

A

False

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106
Q

Corded power tools are generally considered safer than cordless as the power source is more consistent and reliable.

A

False

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107
Q

Sharp blades and bits are more dangerous than dull blades and bits.

A

False

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108
Q

How is the size of a portable circular saw designated?

a. By the depth of its cut
b. By the length of its base
c. By the strength of its motor
d. By the diameter of its blade

A

By the diameter of its blade

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109
Q

How is the depth of cut controlled on a portable circular saw?

a. By varying the cutting speed
b. By raising or lowering the base
c. By changing the size of the blade
d. By altering the speed of the motor

A

By raising or lowering the base

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110
Q

How are the straightest, most accurate cuts made with a portable circular saw?

a. By eye
b. By freehand
c. Using a chalk line
d. With a straightedge

A

With a straightedge

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111
Q

What is the recommended way to make a bevel cut using a portable circular saw?

a. Tilting the base
b. Raising the blade
c. Tilting the lumber
d. Using a special saw blade

A

Tilting the base

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112
Q

What is the intended purpose of the rip guide?

a. Control the angle of the cut
b. Control the length of the stock
c. Control the squareness of the cut
d. Control the width of the stock being cut

A

Control the width of the stock being cut

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113
Q

What is the ideal depth to set the saw when performing a straight cut?

a. Maximum depth
b. Slightly deeper than the stock
c. Equal to the thickness of the stock
d. Slightly less than the thickness of the stock

A

Slightly deeper than the stock

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114
Q

What is the PPE required for the use of a circular saw?

a. Gloves
b. Apron
c. Dust mask
d. Eye protection

A

Eye protection

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115
Q

In which direction should the circular saw teeth point if the blade is installed correctly?

a. Up
b. Down
c. Either up or down
d. To the rear of the saw

A

Up

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116
Q

In addition to ear protection, what PPE must be worn when cutting masonry products with a portable circular saw?

a. Hard hat
b. Dust cap
c. Dust mask
d. Leather apron

A

Dust mask

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117
Q

What is a sabre saw designed to cut?

a. Curved cuts
b. Heavy timbers
c. Long, straight cuts
d. Masonry products

A

Curved cuts

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118
Q

What is the proper length of a sabre saw blade?

a. Half the depth of the cut
b. Stock thickness plus stroke length
c. Stock thickness minus stroke length
d. The thickness of the material being cut

A

Stock thickness plus stroke length

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119
Q

What is the safest practice to start a sabre saw cut in the middle of a workpiece?

a. Use a short blade
b. Drill a starter hole
c. Reverse the blade
d. Use a starter blade

A

Drill a starter hole

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120
Q

Why must the sabre saw be held firmly against the workpiece you are cutting?

a. To control chattering
b. To prevent bevelled cuts
c. To prevent dulling the teeth
d. To avoid the sawdust from flying

A

To control chattering

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121
Q

What is the tooth pattern found on a circular saw blade designed for ripping lumber?

a. Filed straight across
b. Filed to a knife-like point
c. Brazed with alternate slopes on the back of each tooth
d. Brazed with a bevel on the face of each tooth

A

Filled straight across

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122
Q

What other circular saw blades are similar in appearance to those designed to cut plywood?

a. Rip blade
b. Crosscut blade
c. Chisel-tooth blade
d. Combination blade

A

Crosscut blade

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123
Q

What two words best describe the carbide metal used for carbide-tipped saws?

a. Strong and durable
b. Forged and magnetic
c. Hard and brittle
d. Light and indestructible

A

Hard and brittle

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124
Q

Which two materials are abrasive circular saw blades designed to cut?

a. Plastic and vinyl
b. Plastic and wood
c. Non-ferrous metals and plastic
d. Ferrous metals and masonry products

A

Ferrous metals and masonry products

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125
Q

Which feature is most important to match when purchasing replacement blades for a sabre saw?

a. The width
b. The length
c. The thickness
d. The chuck end

A

The chuck end

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126
Q

What material are sabre saw blades with coarse teeth designed to cut?

a. Lumber
b. Plastic material
c. Any sort of metal
d. Thin panel products

A

Lumber

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127
Q

What feature best describes sabre saw blades used to cut ferrous metals?

a. The blade’s wavy teeth
b. A thin and narrow blade
c. The blade’s coarse teeth
d. All metal blades are short and stubby

A

The blade’s wavy teeth

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128
Q

A metal-cutting band saw may use hydraulics to create downward pressure. What is another technique used to create downward pressure, more typically found in smaller models?

a. The use of air
b. The use of a feed screw
c. The use of a worm screw
d. The use of counterweights

A

The use of counterweights

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129
Q

What are some band saws equipped with to prevent overheating the workpiece?

a. A mist spray
b. A blower system
c. An abrasive blade
d. High-speed blades

A

A mist spray

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130
Q

What happens when a metal-cutting band saw has cut through the workpiece?

a. A beeper will sound.
b. The stock will unclamp.
c. The saw will increase in speed.
d. The saw will automatically shut off.

A

The saw will automatically shut off.

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131
Q

What action can be taken to reduce heat buildup when using a band saw to make a heavy cut?

a. Use a well-worn blade.
b. Reduce the blade speed.
c. Increase the blade speed.
d. Apply greater downward pressure.

A

Reduce the blade speed.

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132
Q

Which of the band saw blades listed below is the least expensive to purchase?

a. Raker set blade
b. Carbon steel blade
c. High-speed steel blade
d. Semi-high-speed steel blade

A

Carbon steel blade

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133
Q

To cut non-ferrous metals, which one of the following blades cuts the quickest and easiest?

a. Wavy set blade
b. Skip-toothed blade
c. Hook-toothed blade
d. Regular-toothed blade

A

Hook-toothed blade

134
Q

Which blade should not be used to cut thin or narrow sections of metal?

a. Narrow blade
b. Raker set blade
c. Skip-tooth blade
d. Abrasive cut-off wheels

A

Skip-tooth blade

135
Q

Which metal-cutting band saw blade is the best choice for quickly cutting ferrous metals?

a. Skip-tooth, carbon steel blade
b. Regular-tooth, carbon steel blade
c. Skip-tooth, high-speed steel blade
d. Hook-tooth, high-speed steel blade

A

Skip-tooth, high-speed steel blade

136
Q

What teeth spacing can be found in the skip-tooth and hook-tooth metal cutting band saw blades?

a. 1 to 3 teeth per inch
b. 3 to 6 teeth per inch
c. 6 to 24 teeth per inch
d. 6 to 32 teeth per inch

A

3 to 6 teeth per inch

137
Q

What material is the power cut-off saw blade made of?

a. Carbide
b. Diamond grit
c. High-speed steel
d. Reinforced abrasives

A

Reinforced abrasives

138
Q

Why are long pieces of cutting material supported at both ends and clamped to the bed of a cut-off saw?

a. To achieve an off-square cut
b. To prevent stalling the motor
c. To avoid turning the end of the stock
d. To avoid the risk of breaking the blade

A

To avoid the risk of breaking the blade

139
Q

Which protective equipment must be worn when using a cut-off saw?

a. Safety glasses
b. A leather apron
c. Goggles and a hard hat
d. Face shield and gloves

A

Face shield and gloves

140
Q

What must be confirmed before safely using an abrasive cut-off wheel to cut metal?

a. That the blade is an all-purpose blade
b. That the blade is designed to cut metal
c. That the word “masonry” is on its label
d. That the blade’s direction of rotation is correct

A

That the blade is designed to cut metal

141
Q

What is the primary safety concern to consider when choosing an abrasive disk for a cut-off saw?

a. Depth of cut
b. Ferrous rating
c. Temperature limit
d. Maximum speed rating

A

Maximum speed rating

142
Q

What wrench is used to tighten the drill chuck to the drill bit?

a. Chuck key
b. Allen key
c. Hex wrench
d. Drill wrench

A

Chuck key

143
Q

Where would the on/off switch typically be found on a portable electric drill?

a. On the D-handle
b. On the pistol grip
c. On the left side of the drill
d. On the rear of the motor housing

A

On the pistol grip

144
Q

What control does a variable speed switch give the drill operator?

a. Size of the hole
b. Reduced risk of jamming
c. Speed of rotation
d. Direction of rotation

A

Speed of rotation

145
Q

On which of the following are the lowest fixed speeds typically found?

a. ½ in. drills
b. 3/8 in. drills
c. ¼ in. drills
d. Cordless drills

A

½ in. drills

146
Q

What is the safety concern that requires the operator to wear eye protection when using a drill?

a. Toxic fumes
b. Jamming the drill
c. Hot, airborne particles
d. Overheating the work

A

Hot, airborne particles

147
Q

What is the primary safety risk if the drill switch is locked in the on position?

a. Jamming the drill
b. Breaking the drill bit
c. Overheating of the work
d. Hot, airborne particles

A

Jamming the drill

148
Q

What is/are the necessary feature(s) of a drill to drive and remove screws?

a. It must have a geared chuck.
b. It must have a keyless chuck.
c. It must have variable speed control.
d. It must have both variable speed and a reversing switch.

A

It must have both variable speed and a reversing switch.

149
Q

According to the manufacturer and safe work practice, when is it safe to reverse the direction of rotation of a drill motor?

a. Only if the drill is unplugged
b. Only after full speed is reached
c. Once the switch has been opened
d. Only once the motor has stopped turning

A

Only once the motor has stopped turning

150
Q

What is the correct term to describe the smooth round portion of the twist drill that makes contact with the chuck?

a. Body
b. Twist
c. Shank
d. Shaft

A

Shank

151
Q

What is the correct term to describe the spiral groove portion of the twist drill?

a. Point
b. Twist
c. Shank
d. Body

A

Body

152
Q

How many systems are used to indicate the diameter or size of the twist drill?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

4

153
Q

Choosing from metric twist drill system, what is the smallest available size?

a. 0.01 mm
b. 0.1 mm
c. 0.5 mm
d. 1.0 mm

A

0.1 mm

154
Q

Choosing from the numbered twist drill system, what is the largest twist drill available?

a. 1
b. 60
c. 80
d. 100

A

1

155
Q

Choosing from the letter twist drill system, what is the smallest size available?

a. A
b. Z
c. AA
d. ZZ

A

A

156
Q

Choosing from the fractional twist drill system, what is the smallest size available?

a. 1/32 in.
b. 1/64 in.
c. 1/100 in.
d. 1/1000 in.

A

1/64 in.

157
Q

Using a properly sharpened twist drill to drill into mild steel, what should the shavings look like?

a. They should be flaked.
b. They should be spiral coils.
c. They should resemble sawdust.
d. They should be short and curved.

A

They should be spiral coils.

158
Q

What is the ideal and safest heel clearance on a twist drill?

a. 12°
b. 59°
c. 1.5 mm (1/16 in.)
d. Approximately half the length of the cutting lip

A

12°

159
Q

What is the result if the lip clearance provided to a twist drill is insufficient?

a. The cutting edge will chatter.
b. The cutting edge will cut slowly.
c. The cutting edge will cut too rapidly.
d. The cutting edge will become dull quickly.

A

The cutting edge will cut slowly.

160
Q

What factors are required for both cutting lips on a twist drill to produce shavings of equal thickness?

a. The heel clearance must be correct.
b. The cutting lips must be of equal angle.
c. The cutting lips must be of equal length.
d. The cutting lips must be of equal length and angle.

A

The cutting lips must be of equal length and angle.

161
Q

What guides a hole saw at the start of a cut?

a. A pilot bit
b. A hole saw jig
c. The kerf of the blade
d. A steady hand and an experienced operator

A

A pilot bit

162
Q

What guides the multi-spur bit during drilling operations?

a. The shaft of bit
b. The tips of the bit
c. The sides of the bit
d. The centre point of the bit

A

The sides of the bit

163
Q

Which drill bit is best suited for drilling deep holes in wood?

a. A spur bit
b. A spade bit
c. An auger bit
d. A carbide-tipped bit

A

An auger bit

164
Q

What material is a carbide-tipped bit designed to drill?

a. Wood
b. Metal
c. Plastic
d. Concrete

A

Concrete

165
Q

When comparing larger drill bits to smaller drill bits, which of the following best describes larger drill bits?

a. Larger bits require less torque.
b. Larger bits require slower speeds.
c. Larger bits require shorter handles.
d. Larger bits require less downward pressure.

A

Larger bits require slower speeds.

166
Q

When using a hand drill, when should the operator ease up on feed pressure?

a. To allow the bit to cool
b. As the bit breaks through the work
c. As soon as the bit starts to cut the work
d. From the start to allow the bit to self-feed

A

As the bit breaks through the work

167
Q

When should drill speed be increased?

a. When the metal is soft.
b. When the metal is ferrous.
c. When the metal is very hard.
d. When the metal is clamped to the drill press.

A

When the metal is soft.

168
Q

What term is used to describe the entire upper unit of the drill press?

a. Head
b. Power unit
c. Working end
d. Operational unit

A

Head

169
Q

Where must the operator secure the workpiece to safely prevent it from moving while being drilled on a drill press?

a. To the table
b. To the spindle
c. To the column
d. To the depth stop

A

To the table

170
Q

Which power tool is designed to shape the surfaces and edges of wood stock?

a. Router
b. Cold chisel
c. Bench grinder
d. Angle grinder

A

Router

171
Q

Which power sander is designed to remove small amounts of stock and is considered a finishing tool?

a. Router
b. Planer
c. Belt sander
d. Orbital sander

A

Orbital sander

172
Q

What is the safe procedure to use a belt sander with a torn belt?

a. Replace the torn belt with a new belt.
b. Flip the belt over to use the other side.
c. Trim the edge of the belt where it is torn.
d. Continue to use until the sander no longer removes material.

A

Replace the torn belt with a new belt.

173
Q

What important step must occur before safely changing a belt on a belt sander?

a. Completing a risk assessment
b. Ensuring the power is disconnected
c. Ensuring the work stock is properly secured
d. Ensuring the on/off switch is in the off position

A

Ensuring the power is disconnected

174
Q

Which type of grinder is designed for fine work and work that is difficult to access?

a. Disk grinder
b. Pencil grinder
c. Bench grinder
d. Straight grinder

A

Pencil grinder

175
Q

What is the name for a grinder with a grinding disk that rotates at 90° to the axis of the motor?

a. Angle grinder
b. Pencil grinder
c. Bench grinder
d. Straight grinder

A

Angle grinder

176
Q

When is it safe to use an angle grinder with the guard removed?

a. It is never safe to do so.
b. It is safe if double eye protection is used.
c. It is safe if the grinder guard has a quick release.
d. It is safe if the guard gets in the way of the work required.

A

It is never safe to do so.

177
Q

Which part of the bench grinder protects the operator from hot, flying debris?

a. The tool rest
b. The fire blanket
c. The spark guard
d. The ground-fault interceptor

A

The spark guard

178
Q

How does horsepower of a bench grinder’s motor relate to wheel size?

a. Motor size and wheel size do not relate.
b. As motor size decreases, wheel size increases.
c. As motor size increases, wheel size increases.
d. As motor size increases, wheel size decreases.

A

As motor size increases, wheel size increases.

179
Q

What is the procedure for working safely with a bench grinder wheel that is cracked?

a. Position the tool rest closer to the wheel, not less than 5 mm.
b. Replace the wheel immediately, as a cracked wheel is dangerous.
c. Use the wheel only for light duty grinding such as tool sharpening.
d. Use the dressing tool to clean the wheel and remedy out-of-round.

A

Replace the wheel immediately, as a cracked wheel is dangerous.

180
Q

What procedure is recommended for determining if a bench grinder wheel is cracked?

a. Power up the grinder to see if the wheel breaks apart.
b. Employ the tool dresser to remove excess metal particles.
c. Hold the wheel up to a light source to see light shine through the crack.
d. Lightly tap the wheel with a screwdriver handle and listen to the sound.

A

Lightly tap the wheel with a screwdriver handle and listen to the sound.

181
Q

What condition will be present if a bench grinder wheel is out-of-round?

a. The work will vibrate excessively.
b. The sparks will change colour.
c. The tool rest will need to be adjusted closer to the wheel.
d. The wheel will show signs of excessive amounts of metal particles.

A

The work will vibrate excessively.

182
Q

What important safety conditions must be met when replacing a bench grinder wheel?

a. The new wheel must be for coarse and fine work.
b. The brand name and weight must match the old wheel.
c. The rpm rating of the wheel must equal or exceed the grinder rpm.
d. The new wheel must be sharp, and the arbour hole must be dead centre of the wheel.

A

The rpm rating of the wheel must equal or exceed the grinder rpm.

183
Q

At what distance should the tool rest be positioned from the wheel?

a. A minimum of 3 mm (1/8 in.)
b. A minimum of 5 mm (1/6 in.)
c. A maximum of 8 mm (1/3 in.)
d. Whichever distance feels comfortable

A

A minimum of 3 mm (1/8 in.)

184
Q

Where must the tool rest be positioned in relation to the wheel?

a. Below the wheel
b. Above the wheel
c. At a 37.5° angle from the wheel
d. No lower than the centre of the wheel

A

No lower than the centre of the wheel

185
Q

What tool should be used to remedy a bench grinder wheel that is out-of-round or dirty?

a. Tool rest
b. Wheel dresser
c. Hard object such as a screwdriver handle
d. If the wheel is out-of-round, it should be replaced.

A

Wheel dresser

186
Q

How should an operator of a bench grinder prevent overheating the work when sharpening or reconditioning a hand tool?

a. Dress the wheel to eliminate overheating.
b. Pay close attention to the sound of the grinding.
c. Continue grinding until the work has changed colour.
d. Frequently dip the work in water and work with a clean wheel.

A

Frequently dip the work in water and work with a clean wheel.

187
Q

What does a change of colour in a drill bit or cold chisel indicate when sharpening with a bench grinder?

a. The hand tool is sharp enough.
b. The metal is overheated and the tool may be weakened.
c. Different colours indicate different grain spacing on the grinder wheel.
d. The grinder wheel is inappropriate for the job and needs to be replaced.

A

The metal is overheated and the tool may be weakened.

188
Q

What do the letters “rpm” stand for?

a. Rated pipe material
b. Revolutions per minute
c. Revolutions past midpoint
d. Rated and primed material

A

Revolutions per minute

189
Q

What markings should be found on the standard marking system for most grinding wheels?

a. Operating speed, work material, and weight of wheel
b. Bench grinder speed, date of manufacturing, and contact information
c. Wheel diameter, wheel thickness, and maximum operating speed
d. Minimum operating speed, safety instructions, and manufacturer’s information

A

Wheel diameter, wheel thickness, and maximum operating speed

190
Q

How are air tools able to perform work?

a. Air tools harness electricity.
b. Air tools harness magnetic energy.
c. Air tools harness energy in compressed air.
d. Air tools harness energy in compressed water.

A

Air tools harness energy in compressed air.

191
Q

When is it safe to use compressed air to clean work clothes?

a. It is safe if PPE is worn.
b. It is never safe to do so.
c. It is safe if work clothes are dusty.
d. It is safe if the clothes are coveralls.

A

It is never safe to do so.

192
Q

How is compressed air a hazard to the human body?

a. Compressed air contains toxins.
b. Compressed air can cause frostbite.
c. Compressed air is highly pressurized.
d. Compressed air can drive air bubbles into the body.

A

Compressed air can drive air bubbles into the body.

193
Q

What PPE is used to mitigate the strong vibrations of air impact work?

a. Leather apron
b. Eye protection
c. Heavy-duty gloves
d. Hearing protection

A

Heavy-duty gloves

194
Q

How often should an operator inspect and lubricate an air tool?

a. Before and after each use
b. Approximately once a week
c. When the operator notices poor performance
d. Air tools do not require lubrication or inspection.

A

Before and after each use

195
Q

What is the purpose of the pressure regulator?

a. To control the speed of a tool
b. To limit air pressure to the tool
c. To expel excess air and exhaust air
d. To filter debris and moisture from compressed air

A

To limit air pressure to the tool

196
Q

What is an air compressor?

a. A motor that is run on pressurized air
b. A filter used to condition pressurized air
c. A machine that compresses air to perform work
d. A tool that uses pressurized air to perform work

A

A machine that compresses air to perform work

197
Q

Which component stores compressed air to ensure sufficient volume?

a. Air storage unit
b. Reservoir tank
c. High-pressure tank
d. Compression storage tank

A

Reservoir tank

198
Q

What does the term “dynamic pressure” describe?

a. The range of air pressures an air tool functions in
b. The controlled manner in which air tools are used
c. The air pressure that is maintained while the air tool is in use
d. The air pressure that is in the line while the air tool is not in use

A

The air pressure that is maintained while the air tool is in use

199
Q

What is the ideal condition of compressed air entering an air tool?

a. Air should be clean and dry.
b. Air should be warm and dry.
c. Air should be cold and moist.
d. Air should be moist and clean.

A

Air should be clean and dry.

200
Q

Which safety component allows the operator to remove excess moisture from a compressed air line?

a. The exhaust port
b. The drain-off valve
c. The water regulator
d. The pop safety valve

A

The drain-off valve

201
Q

How often should the trap on the moisture separator be drained?

a. Daily
b. Weekly
c. Monthly
d. When the operator feels it is necessary

A

Daily

202
Q

Why is it important to remove moisture from compressed air?

a. Moisture causes the tool to short cycle.
b. Moisture increases the weight of the tool.
c. Moisture creates excessively noisy exhaust.
d. Moisture dilutes lubricant and can damage the tool.

A

Moisture dilutes lubricant and can damage the tool.

203
Q

Which safety component captures grit and dirt from the compressed air before it enters the air hose?

a. The filter
b. The lubricator
c. The speed governor
d. The pressure regulator

A

The filter

204
Q

How is a compressed air hose constructed?

a. It is made with reinforced flexible rubber.
b. It is made with multi-layered polybutylene.
c. It is made with cross-connection polyethylene.
d. It is merely a water hose with a smaller diameter.

A

It is made with reinforced flexible rubber.

205
Q

Why must only specially designed impact sockets be used with an air impact wrench?

a. Air wrenches generate too much force for normal sockets.
b. Air wrenches use a connection system unique to air power tools.
c. Ordinary sockets are not long enough to be used with an air tool.
d. Ordinary sockets are not large enough to be used with an air tool.

A

Air wrenches generate too much force for normal sockets.

206
Q

How is torque controlled in an air impact wrench?

a. By regulating the air flow to the motor
b. By throttling the trigger on the wrench
c. By choosing a specific filter for the air line
d. Torque cannot be controlled when working with air tools.

A

By regulating the air flow to the motor

207
Q

Why is the portable air drill often preferred to the electric drill?

a. Electricity is often more expensive.
b. Air drills have better speed control.
c. Air drills do not require hoses or cords.
d. Electric drills cannot overheat or be damaged by overloading.

A

Air drills have better speed control.

208
Q

What material is typically used to make air chisel tool bits?

a. High-quality cast iron
b. High-quality alloy steel
c. High-quality aluminum alloy
d. Cold-treated high-quality alloy steel

A

High-quality alloy steel

209
Q

How are powder-actuated tools able to drive fasteners into concrete?

a. They employ electric energy to drive the fastener or piston.
b. They employ the rapid expansion of gas to drive the fastener or piston
c. They employ the power of pressurized air to drive the fastener or piston.
d. They employ the power of pressurized water to drive the fastener or piston.

A

They employ the rapid expansion of gas to drive the fastener or piston.

210
Q

What feature defines a low-velocity powder-actuated tool?

a. A tool in which the average test velocity exceeds 492 ft./sec. (150 m/sec.)
b. A tool in which the average test velocity does not exceed 492 ft./sec. (150 m/sec.)
c. A tool in which the average test velocity does not exceed 656 ft./sec. (200 m/per sec.)
d. A tool in which the average test velocity does not exceed 328 ft./sec. (100 m/sec.)

A

A tool in which the average test velocity does not exceed 328 ft./sec. (100 m/sec.)

211
Q

How does an indirect-acting powder-actuated tool drive a fastener into the base material?

a. The rapidly expanding gases act directly on the fastener.
b. The rapidly expanding gases are indirectly vented out of an exhaust port.
c. The rapidly expanding gases act directly on a piston that drives the fastener.
d. The rapidly expanding gases act indirectly on a piston that drives the fastener.

A

The rapidly expanding gases act directly on a piston that drives the fastener.

212
Q

How is a powder load identified?

a. By colour
b. By calibre
c. By case type
d. By colour and case type

A

By colour and case type

213
Q

With the right powder load, a powder-actuated tool can drive a fastener into any base material.

A

False

214
Q

Fastener selection is varied and can include nail-style fasteners as well as special-application fasteners such as electrical conduit clips.

A

True

215
Q

The powder-actuated tool is safe to use on thin base material if the operator uses a backing material to prevent accidental pass-through of the base material.

A

True

216
Q

If the correct powder load is chosen, a fastener may be driven into any masonry material.

A

False

217
Q

Any worker may use a powder-actuated tool, as it functions in a very intuitive manner.

A

False

218
Q

A powder-actuated tool should be stored unloaded, and loads must be stored separately.

A

True

219
Q

A powder-actuated tool must fire only if the trigger is depressed. There must be no other action.

A

False

220
Q

In the case of a misfire the operator must hold the tool in place for five seconds.

A

True

221
Q

Only masonry material must be tested for suitability, as steel is consistent and predictable.

A

False

222
Q

Only fasteners approved by the manufacturer should be used.

A

True

223
Q

To select the proper power level to be used with a specific fastener, always perform a test firing using the highest power level recommended for the tool.

A

False

224
Q

What is the definition of the term mechanical advantage?

a. A term used instead of horsepower
b. The qualifications to work on vehicles
c. The use of tools or mechanical devices to multiply force
d. The rate of work with a hand tool compared to a power tool

A

The use of tools or mechanical devices to multiply force

225
Q

When using two slings to hoist a load, at what angle to horizontal is the stress on the slings the least?

a. 30 degrees
b. 45 degrees
c. 60 degrees
d. 90 degrees

A

90 degrees

226
Q

When using two slings to hoist a load, what happens to the sling stress as the sling angle to horizontal changes?

a. As the sling angle increases, the sling stress increases.
b. As the sling angle decreases, the sling stress increases.
c. As the sling angle decreases, the sling stress decreases.
d. As the sling angle increases, the sling stress remains the same.

A

As the sling angle decreases, the sling stress increases.

227
Q

What is meant by the term centre of gravity?

a. The lowest portion of an object
b. The point at which the object will balance
c. The portion of an object that is the heaviest
d. The spot a latch point is placed on a piece of equipment

A

The point at which the object will balance

228
Q

How can the mechanical advantage of a pulley system be described?

a. The ratio of the rope movement to the pulley size
b. The effort distance compared to the resistance distance
c. The distance between the moving block and the fixed block
d. The thickness of the rope compared to the safe working load

A

The effort distance compared to the resistance distance

229
Q

If a load is rigged with the centre of gravity off to one side, what will happen when it is hoisted in the air?

a. The load will swing to the left.
b. The load will topple out of the rigging.
c. The load will hoist cleanly without movement.
d. The load will tilt until the centre of gravity is directly below the hook.

A

The load will tilt until the centre of gravity is directly below the hook.

230
Q

What happens if you hoist an object with the centre of gravity above the lifting points?

a. The load could topple.
b. The sling angle will be too great.
c. The centre of gravity will locate itself near one sling.
d. The hoist will be safe. This is a very common rigging practice.

A

The load could topple.

231
Q

What is the safe and proper procedure if during a hoist the load tilts more than 5 degrees?

a. Lower the lift and rearrange the rigging.
b. Lower the lift and declare the load unsafe for rigging.
c. Continue with the lift, keeping a close eye on the load.
d. Continue with the lift, using the tag line to counter the tilt.

A

Lower the lift and rearrange the rigging.

232
Q

What is the mechanical advantage of a block and tackle with two sheaves on the fixed block and two sheaves on the travelling block?

a. 2:1
b. 3:1
c. 4:1
d. 6:1

A

4:1

233
Q

Where is the safety system located on the block and tackle?

a. At the fixed sheaves
b. At the travelling sheaves
c. At the running end of the fibre rope
d. The block and tackle has no safety system.

A

The block and tackle has no safety system.

234
Q

Which lifting device is designed for vertical lifting but is limited in any horizontal application?

a. The Tirfor
b. The chain fall
c. The pallet jack
d. The come-along

A

The chain fall

235
Q

Which lifting device is designed for short vertical lifts as well as horizontal pulls?

a. The Tirfor
b. The chain fall
c. The pallet jack
d. The come-along

A

The come-along

236
Q

Which lifting device is designed to pull in all positions, uses self-energizing jaws, and has an unlimited amount of cable travel?

a. The Tirfor
b. The chain fall
c. The pallet jack
d. The come-along

A

The Tirfor

237
Q

What is the safety system found in the Tirfor?

a. The handle bends when overloaded.
b. The Tirfor does not have a safety system.
c. The safety stitching will break when overloaded.
d. A shear pin must break and seize the load when overloaded.

A

A shear pin must break and seize the load when overloaded.

238
Q

What is the safety feature found on a cable-type come-along?

a. The handle bends when overloaded.
b. The safety stitching will break when overloaded.
c. A shear pin must break and seize the load when overloaded.
d. The cable type come-along does not have a safety system.

A

The handle bends when overloaded

239
Q

What feature does the OHS Regulation require on all trolleys?

a. Drop stops
b. An alarm must sound when the trolley is overloaded.
c. The trolley motor must stop when there is an overload.
d. A shear pin must break and seize the load when the trolley is overloaded.

A

Drop stops

240
Q

What type of crane is referred to as a gantry or bridge crane?

a. A jib crane
b. A floor hoist
c. A boom hoist
d. An overhead travelling crane

A

An overhead travelling crane

241
Q

Which materials handling equipment is commonly known as a pallet truck?

a. A forklift
b. A screw jack
c. A gantry crane
d. A manual forklift

A

A manual forklift

242
Q

Generally, which type of overhead travelling crane has a higher lifting capacity?

a. Boom
b. Derrick
c. Top running
d. Under running

A

Top running

243
Q

How is the size of a jack designated?

a. By weight
b. By length
c. By length or lift
d. By capacity

A

By capacity

244
Q

What does the abbreviation WLL stand for?

a. Wire line load
b. Watch line load
c. Weight load limit
d. Working load limit

A

Working load limit

245
Q

In wire rope terminology, what does “one rope lay” refer to?

a. The number of wires per strand
b. The thickest point of a wire rope
c. The wire direction of winding within the strand
d. The lengthwise distance for one strand revolution

A

The lengthwise distance for one strand revolution

246
Q

What is the minimum grade of chain that can be used for overhead hoisting?

a. 70
b. 80
c. 100
d. 120

A

80

247
Q

What is it that enables both of the threaded rods in a turnbuckle to simultaneously tighten or loosen while turning the sleeve in one direction?

a. There are only threads on one end of the sleeve.
b. The threads are a larger diameter at one end than at the other.
c. The threads are locking at one end and non-locking at the other.
d. The threads are left handed at one end and right handed at the other.

A

The threads are left handed at one end and right handed at the other.

248
Q

What type of synthetic web sling has metal triangles of equal size on each end?

a. Basket web sling
b. Choker web sling
c. Endless web sling
d. Twisted eye web sling

A

Basket web sling

249
Q

What type of sling is best for loads that are abrasive or hot and require a wide bearing surface?

a. Grade 120 chain sling
b. Lang lay wire rope sling
c. Choker synthetic web sling
d. Triangle end metal mesh sling

A

Triangle end metal mesh sling

250
Q

What type of eyebolt is illustrated in the graphic below?

a. Round eyebolt
b. Washerless eyebolt
c. Shoulderless eyebolt
d. Long shanked eyebolt

A

Shoulderless eyebolt

251
Q

What is the maximum pull angle that shoulder eyebolts are able to withstand?

a. 30 degrees to the side
b. 60 degrees to the vertical
c. 45 degrees to the vertical
d. 60 degrees to the horizontal

A

45 degrees to the vertical

252
Q

When several slings are to be attached to a single hook, what is used to make the connection to the hook?

a. U bolt
b. Shackle
c. Turnbuckle
d. A series of cable clips

A

Shackle

253
Q

To prevent cross-bow loading, what is the maximum angle between any two slings at a shackle?

a. 15 degrees
b. 30 degrees
c. 45 degrees
d. 60 degrees

A

45 degrees

254
Q

Besides allowing the rigger to quickly connect a choker hitch to a load, what other purpose does the design of a choker hitch serve?

a. It prevents cross-bow loading.
b. It allows the rigger to use a bridle hitch.
c. It allows the rigger to use a basket hitch.
d. It protects the sling from sharp ends at the choker point.

A

It protects the sling from sharp ends at the choker point.

255
Q

What part of the loop must the U-bolt part of a cable clip grab onto?

a. Thimble
b. Whipping
c. Live end of the rope
d. Dead end of the rope

A

Dead end of the rope

256
Q

What determines the number of cable clips required for a connection?

a. Type of clip used
b. Mass of the load
c. Strength of the rope
d. Diameter of the rope

A

Diameter of the rope

257
Q

Correctly installed cable clips will reduce the breaking strength of wire rope by how much?

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%

A

20%

258
Q

What style of hook is designed so the throat fits between the links of a chain?

a. Slip
b. Grab
c. Sorting
d. Master

A

Grab

259
Q

What is a rigging softener?

a. Web sling
b. Synthetic sling conditioning agent
c. Pad used to protect a sling from the sharp corners of a load
d. Pads layered on the ground to place the outriggers of the crane

A

Pad used to protect a sling from the sharp corners of a load

260
Q

When lifting a bundle of pipe horizontally with slings, which hitch is recommended?

a. Bridle hitch
b. Vertical hitch
c. Single choker hitch
d. Double-wrap basket hitch

A

Double-wrap basket hitch

261
Q

What is the recommended safe lifting sling angle (from the horizontal)?

a. 60 degrees
b. 50 degrees
c. 30 degrees
d. 10 degrees

A

60 degrees

262
Q

Choker hitches are a good choice when you need to increase the sling capacity.

A

False

263
Q

What is it called when continuous pounding of a wire rope causes the strands to become flattened, distorted, and brittle?

a. Abraded
b. Peening
c. Scrubbing
d. Bird caging

A

Peening

264
Q

What is the term to describe the displacement of wires and strands as a result of wire rope rubbing against itself or another object?

a. Abraded
b. Peening
c. Scrubbing
d. Bird caging

A

Scrubbing

265
Q

What can result from sudden stops or the wire rope being pulled through tight sheaves or winding on too small of a drum?

a. Abraded
b. Peening
c. Scrubbing
d. Bird caging

A

Bird caging

266
Q

What group of cranes are immobile and commonly used on high-rise construction sites?

a. Tower cranes
b. Conventional cranes
c. Hydraulic cranes
d. Rough terrain cranes

A

Tower cranes

267
Q

Identify the crane shown below.

a. Rough terrain crane
b. Carrier-mounted lattice boom crane
c. Crawler-mounted lattice boom crane
d. Carrier-mounted hydraulic boom crane

A

Carrier-mounted lattice boom crane

268
Q

Identify the crane shown below.

a. Rough terrain crane
b. Carrier-mounted lattice boom crane
c. Crawler-mounted lattice boom crane
d. Carrier-mounted hydraulic boom crane

A

Rough terrain crane

269
Q

Identify the crane shown below.

a. Rough terrain crane
b. Carrier-mounted lattice boom crane
c. Crawler-mounted lattice boom crane
d. Carrier-mounted hydraulic boom crane

A

Carrier-mounted hydraulic boom crane

270
Q

The travel signal shown below is used for what type of crane?

a. Tower crane
b. Carrier crane
c. Crawler crane
d. Rough terrain crane

A

Crawler crane

271
Q

The sound or light signal for “LOWER” is

a. One bell or flash
b. Two bells or flashes
c. Three bells or flashes
d. Four bells or flashes

A

Three bells or flashes

272
Q

The sound or light signal for “STOP” is

a. One bell or flash
b. Two bells or flashes
c. Three bells or flashes
d. Four bells or flashes

A

One bell or flash

273
Q

The sound or light signal for “ALL CLEAR” is

a. One bell or flash
b. Two bells or flashes
c. Three bells or flashes
d. Four bells or flashes

A

Four bells or flashes

274
Q

The sound or light signal for “RAISE” is

a. One bell or flash
b. Two bells or flashes
c. Three bells or flashes
d. Four bells or flashes

A

Two bells or flashes

275
Q

Tag lines should be used to control loads because they allow control from where?

a. Above the load
b. Within the crane
c. Directly under the load
d. Out from under the load

A

Out from under the load

276
Q

What type of manila rope has one or more coloured strands?

a. Bolt rope
b. Yacht rope
c. Number 1 grade
d. Hardware store rope

A

Number 1 grade

277
Q

Which of the ropes listed below is the strongest?

a. Sisal
b. Manila
c. Polyester
d. Polypropylene

A

Polyester

278
Q

Which type of dry rope has the best electrical insulating properties?

a. Nylon
b. Manila
c. Polyester
d. Polypropylene

A

Polypropylene

279
Q

Which type of rope is usually pure white, soft, pliable, and smooth to the touch?

a. Nylon
b. Manila
c. Polyester
d. Polypropylene

A

Nylon

280
Q

Up to how much will nylon rope stretch when loaded to the breaking point?

a. 10% of its original length
b. 20% of its original length
c. 30% of its original length
d. 40% of its original length

A

40% of its original length

281
Q

How should you remove new rope from its shipping coil?

a. Mount the coil on an axle
b. Roll the coil across the floor
c. Pull it from the inside of the coil
d. Cut portions from the side of the coil

A

Pull it from the inside of the coil

282
Q

In what conditions are ropes are best stored?

a. Moist
b. Well ventilated
c. Above 25°C (77°F)
d. Exposed to sunlight

A

Well ventilated

283
Q

What is the maximum load that should be imposed on a rope for rigging?

a. 1/10 its breaking strength
b. 1/5 its breaking strength
c. 1/2 its breaking strength
d. 3/4 of its breaking strength

A

1/5 its breaking strength

284
Q

How much can sharp bends and knots reduce the strength of a rope by?

a. 25%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 85%

A

50%

285
Q

When knot tying, what do you call the portion of the rope that forms the loop?

a. Circle
b. Bight
c. Middle
d. Standing part

A

Bight

286
Q

Which of the knots listed below forms a non-slip loop?

a. Bowline
b. Reef knot
c. Timber hitch
d. Square knot

A

Bowline

287
Q

Which knot, hitch, or bend is illustrated below?

a. Clove hitch
b. Timber hitch
c. Carrick bend
d. Trucker’s knot

A

Clove hitch

288
Q

Which knot acts like a pulley for tying down a load?

a. Bowline
b. Sheet bend
c. Timber hitch
d. Trucker’s knot

A

Trucker’s knot

289
Q

Which knot, hitch, or bend would you use to join a large-diameter rope to a small-diameter rope?

a. Half hitch
b. Sheet bend
c. Square knot
d. Carrick bend

A

Sheet bend

290
Q

Which, knot, hitch, or bend, would you use to join two ropes of the same diameter together?

a. Reef knot
b. Sheet bend
c. Timber hitch
d. Double half hitch

A

Reef knot

291
Q

What classification of ladders may be used for construction purposes?

a. Grade 1
b. Grade 2
c. Grade 3
d. Grades 1 and 2

A

Grade 1

292
Q

What is the correct incline of an extension ladder resting against a building?

a. 30 degrees
b. 5:1 ratio
c. 1 ft. vertical to 4 ft. horizontal
d. 1 ft. horizontal to 4 ft. vertical

A

1 ft. horizontal to 4 ft. vertical

293
Q

What is the name of the hinged arms between the two sections of a stepladder?

a. Rungs
b. Locks
c. Trusses
d. Spreaders

A

Spreaders

294
Q

On what steps of a step-ladder must the worker not stand to work?

a. Top two steps
b. Top three steps
c. Top step if the worker can reach the work
d. A worker can work off any step as long as he or she can keep balanced.

A

Top two steps

295
Q

What type of protective finish can be used on a wooden ladder?

a. Clear finish
b. Solid wood stain
c. Yellow latex paint
d. Yellow oil-based paint

A

Clear finish

296
Q

Which of the following ladders is free-standing?

a. Step
b. Single
c. Straight
d. Extension

A

Step

297
Q

What is the centre-to-centre spacing of the cleats on a single ladder?

a. 250 mm (10 in.)
b. 300 mm (12 in.)
c. 350 mm (14 in.)
d. 400 mm (16 in.)

A

300 mm (12 in.)

298
Q

What is the correct slope for single or extension ladders?

a. 1 up the slope of the ladder to 4 horizontal
b. 2 up the slope of the ladder to 4 horizontal
c. 3 up the slope of the ladder to 1 horizontal
d. 4 up the slope of the ladder to 1 horizontal

A

4 up the slope of the ladder to 1 horizontal

299
Q

What is the minimum size for the side rail of a 3 m (10 ft.) job-built single ladder?

a. 38 × 38 mm (2 × 2 in.)
b. 38 × 64 mm (2 × 3 in.)
c. 38 × 89 mm (2 × 4 in.)
d. 38 × 140 mm (2 × 6 in.)

A

38 × 89 mm (2 × 4 in.)

300
Q

What is the minimum distance that a single or extension ladder is required to project above the level to which it gives access?

a. 500 mm (20 in.)
b. 600 mm (2 ft.)
c. 900 mm (3 ft.)
d. 1200 mm (4 ft.)

A

1000 mm (3 ft.)

301
Q

The maximum depth allowed for notches in the side rails of a job-built ladder is 1 in.

A

False

302
Q

Longer extension ladders have a shorter overlap.

A

False

303
Q

What are the two basic structural components of welded steel frame scaffolding?

a. Plank and end frame
b. Screw jack and end frame
c. End frame and cross brace
d. Coupler pin and cross brace

A

End frame and cross brace

304
Q

Sections must be secured together when the scaffold is higher than one unit.

A

True

305
Q

What are used to connect the basic units for scaffold over one unit high?

a. Bolts
b. Screw jacks
c. Brace locks
d. Coupling pins

A

Coupling pins

306
Q

Casters for steel scaffolds must have what?

a. Brakes
b. Rubber tires
c. Ball bearings
d. Levelling screws

A

Brakes

307
Q

What is the maximum height of a rolling scaffold?

a. 2 times its minimum base dimension
b. 2 1/2 times its minimum base dimension
c. 3 times its minimum base dimension
d. 3 1/2 times its minimum base dimension

A

3 times its minimum base dimension

308
Q

When steel scaffolds are fitted with casters, what other component is required?

a. Mud sill
b. Screw jack
c. Base plate
d. Sway brace

A

Sway brace

309
Q

What must be used to level a scaffold on uneven terrain?

a. Mud sill
b. Screw jack
c. Base plate
d. Sway brace

A

Screw jack

310
Q

What is required when placing an end frame on a wooden mud sill?

a. Screw jack
b. Base plate
c. Brace lock
d. Sway brace

A

Base plate

311
Q

What is the maximum allowed height for a rolling scaffold that is being moved by workers who are on the scaffold?

a. 1 1/2 times its minimum base dimension
b. 2 times its minimum base dimension
c. 2 1/2 times its minimum base dimension
d. 3 times its minimum base dimension

A

1 1/2 times its minimum base dimension

312
Q

What is the maximum allowed slope of the floor when using a rolling scaffold?

a. Within 1 degree of level
b. Within 3 degrees of level
c. Within 5 degrees of level
d. Within 10 degrees of level

A

Within 3 degrees of level

313
Q

hat is the maximum allowed height for a rolling scaffold that is being moved by workers other than those on the scaffold?

a. 1 1/2 times its minimum base dimension
b. 2 times its minimum base dimension
c. 2 1/2 times its minimum base dimension
d. 3 times its minimum base dimension

A

2 times its minimum base dimension

314
Q

How are connections made on the Allround scaffolding system?

a. Clamp connection
b. Coupling and bolt
c. Rosette and wedge
d. Standard and bracket

A

Rosette and wedge

315
Q

Tube and clamp scaffolds are made of

a. Fixed units that stack up
b. Wooden members with clamps
c. Metal tubes and adjustable clamps
d. Tubular units with rosettes attached

A

Metal tubes and adjustable clamps

316
Q

What is the minimum nominal width of a wooden scaffold plank?

a. 140 mm (5 1/2 in.)
b. 184 mm (7 1/4 in.)
c. 235 mm (9 1/4 in.)
d. 286 mm (11 1/2 in.)

A

235 mm (9 1/4 in.)

317
Q

What is the minimum height of a guardrail?

a. 600 mm (24 in.)
b. 750 mm (30 in.)
c. 900 mm (36 in.)
d. 1020 mm (40 in.)

A

1020 mm (40 in.)

318
Q

At what height does a scaffold require a guardrail or some alternate form of fall protection?

a. 1200 mm (4 ft.)
b. 2100 mm (7 ft.)
c. 2400 mm (8 ft.)
d. 3000 mm (10 ft.)

A

3000 mm (10 ft.)

319
Q

What is the maximum amount that a scaffold plank may project beyond its support?

a. 100 mm (4 in.)
b. 150 mm (6 in.)
c. 200 mm (8 in.)
d. 300 mm (12 in.)

A

300 mm (12 in.)

320
Q

What is the maximum slope, vertical to horizontal, that is allowed for a work platform?

a. 1:3
b. 1:5
c. 1:6
d. 1:10

A

1:5

321
Q

What is the maximum gap allowed under a toe-board?

a. 3 mm (1/8 in.)
b. 6 mm (1/4 in.)
c. 13 mm (1/2 in.)
d. 19 mm (3/4 in.)

A

13 mm (1/2 in.)

322
Q

What is the minimum width allowed for a work platform?

a. 600 mm (24 in.)
b. 750 mm (30 in.)
c. 1 plank width
d. 2 plank widths

A

2 plank widths

323
Q

What is the minimum amount that a scaffold plank may project beyond its supports?

a. 100 mm (4 in.)
b. 150 mm (6 in.)
c. 200 mm (8 in.)
d. 300 mm (12 in.)

A

150 mm (6 in.)

324
Q

What is the maximum spacing allowed for the supports of scaffold planks if the scaffold is to be used by a bricklayer?

a. 1800 mm (6 ft.)
b. 2100 mm (7 ft.)
c. 2400 mm (8 ft.)
d. 3000 mm (10 ft.)

A

2100 mm (7 ft.)

325
Q

What best describes an elevating work platform?

a. A hoist-elevated platform
b. A platform that self-elevates
c. A platform elevated by a crane
d. A platform suspended and elevated from cables

A

A platform that self-elevates

326
Q

Which type of elevating work platform can only move vertically?

a. Spider lift
b. Boom lift
c. Scissor lift
d. Cherry picker

A

Scissor lift

327
Q

What design feature gives the boom lift a large range?

a. Extending legs
b. Extending bridge
c. Telescoping sections
d. Criss-cross pattern supports

A

Telescoping sections

328
Q

Even though the elevating work platform is fitted with guardrails around the platform, you are still required to wear a body harness.

A

True

329
Q

What is the minimum clearance from any energized overhead power lines?

a. 1 m (3 ft.)
b. 3 m (10 ft.)
c. 5 m (16 ft.)
d. 10 m (33 ft.)

A

3 m (10 ft.)

330
Q

When you have gotten the aerial lift into position to work from, you should connect your lanyard to the adjacent structure or equipment you are working on.

A

False

Electrical Foundations (Common Core) (7 decks)

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