Limits Flashcards

1
Q

Oil servicing

A

Within 30min

Most accurate is 15-20min after shutdown

Normal oil level is between ADD and MAX HOT

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2
Q

Battery limits

A

Do not attempt battery powered start of battery voltage is below 23.5 volts

Do not connect external power is below 22.0 volts

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3
Q

Max airspeed

A

317 KIAS/ .67 MACH

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4
Q

AOA

A

Green band: 10-11
Red Band: 18
White Triangle (Max Range): 4.4
White Diamond (Max Endurance): 8.8

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5
Q

Torque

A

Takeoff/MAX: 100%

Idle (ground): 3-8% *allowable torque range with Np stable and PCL at IDLE

Start: N/A

Transient: 131% (20sec). Material limit above which da,age to the engine may occur. (102% or greater is indicative of system malfunction)

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6
Q

ITT (degrees C)

A

Takeoff/MAX: 820
Idle: 750
Start: 1000 (5 sec)
Transient: 870 (20sec)

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7
Q

N1 (%)*

N1 values presented for PMU ON. With PMU OFF, N1 may vary from these values.

A
Takeoff/MAX: 104 Max
Idle (ground): 60-61
Idle (flight): 67 minimum 
Start: N/A
Transient: N/A (104 Max)
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8
Q

Np (%)

*Avoid stabilized ground operation from ___ to ___% NP

A

62,80
Takeoff/Max: 100
*With PMU OFF, permissible maximum NP is 100±2%
Idle (ground): 46-50
Start: N/A
Transient: 102 (20sec), 110
*permissible at any power setting for completion of in flight emergency

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9
Q

Oil Pressure (psi)

A

Takeoff/Max: 90-120*
Normal oil pressure during steady state conditions is 90 to 120 psi. Operation at oil pressure less than 90 psi at flight idle or above is indicative of oil system malfunction
Idle: 90min
Start: 200 Max
Transient: 40-130*
Operation in this range permitted only during aerobatics or spins, and 15 to 40 psi for 5 seconds with PCL at IDLE

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10
Q

Oil Temp (degrees C)

A
Takeoff/Max: 10-105
Idle (ground): -40-105, 
106-110* Acceptable for ground operation at and below 20% torque.
Idle (flight): 10-105
Transient: 106-110 (10min)
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11
Q

Starter Limits

Starter duty cycle (start attempts and/or engine motoring) is limited to ____, ___-second cycles as follows:

A

Four, 20 sec

20sec, 30sec
20sec, 2min
20sec, 5min
20sec, 30min

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12
Q

Generator Limits

A

In-flight: 50 to -2AMPS
Ground In-Flight voltage: 28.0-28.5 volts

NOTE
If generator amperage or voltage is continuously outside this range with the PCL at 80% N1 or greater while on the ground or in-flight, notify maintenance after the mission. If generator voltage is continuously below 25.0 volts, available battery power is degraded and aircrews should land as soon as practical.

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13
Q

Temperature

Max IOAT for start is _____ degrees C

A

80

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14
Q

Prop Limits:

Sustained propeller operation on the ground between ____ and _____NP is prohibited to prevent damage from ground resonance.

A

62-80%

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15
Q

Prop overspeed limit

A

110% Np

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16
Q

Max airspeed V(MO)

A

317KIAS up to 19,020ft MSL

*Above 19,020MSL V(mo) is airspeed corresponding with .67 MACH

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17
Q

Gear/Flaps max airspeed

A

150KIAS

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18
Q

Turbulent Air Penetration Speed Limits

A

Max: 207KIAS
Recommended: 180KIAS

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19
Q

Maneuvering Speed Limits (Vo)

Speed above which will full deflection will cause structural damage to the aircraft

A

227 KIAS

150 KIAS Limits for rudder control system exceeded

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20
Q

Inverted Flight time limit

A

15sec

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21
Q

Intentional Zero G flight

A

5sec

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22
Q

Prohibited Manuevers

A

Inverted stalls
Inverted spins
Aggravated spins past two turns
Spins with PCL above idle
Spins with landing gear, flaps, or speed brake extended
Spins with PMU off
Spins below 10,000 feet pressure altitude
Spins above 22,000 feet pressure altitude
Abrupt cross-controlled (snap) maneuvers
Aerobatic maneuvers, spins, or stalls with a fuel imbalance greater than 50 pounds between wings
Tail slides

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23
Q

Symmetric G Limits

A

Clean: 7.0 - -3.5

Gear or Flaps Extended: 2.5 - 0.0

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24
Q

Asymmetric (Rolling) G Limits

For uncoordinated rolling maneuvers initiated at -1 G, the maximum bank angle change is _____ degrees.

A

180

Clean: 4.7 to -1.0
Gear or Flaps extended: 2.0 - 0.0

Exceeding the acceleration limits locks the max (or min) G reading on the PFD at the exceeded value in red text and cannot be reset without maintenance action on the ground.

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25
Q

The center of gravity (CG) limitations are shown in Figure 5- 5. When a solo pilot weight (including gear) exceeds ____ pounds, when rear pilot weight (including gear) exceeds ____ pounds, when combined crew weight exceeds _____ pounds (with gear), when overwing refueling is accomplished over _______ pounds, or when baggage weight exceeds ___ pounds, the weight and balance of the aircraft shall be checked to determine that gross weight and CG limitations are not exceeded.

A

260, 260, 480, 1100, 10

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26
Q

Max Ramp Weight (lbs)

A

6950

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27
Q

Max takeoff weight (lbs)

A

6,900

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28
Q

Max landing weight (lbs)

A

6,900

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29
Q

Max Zero fuel weight (lbs)

A

5,850

30
Q

Max weight in baggage compartment (lbs)

A

80

31
Q

NWS Limits: do not use for

A

takeoff or landing

32
Q

Canopy Defog Limits

A

Must be off for takeoff and landing

33
Q

Landing Limits: descent rate (and associated tire pressure)

A

600fpm (3.7 G’s) when tires are serviced to normal landing conditions pressure (185 plus or minus 5psi)

780fpm (5.1 G’s) when tires are serviced to maximum landing conditions pressure (225 plus or minus 5psi)

34
Q

Crosswind for dry runway

A

25Kts

35
Q

Max crosswind for wet runway

A

10kts

36
Q

Max crosswind for icy runway

A

5kts

37
Q

max tailwind component for takeoff

A

10kts

38
Q

Barrier Limitations

A

The aircraft has limited capability for taxiing over raised arresting cables (such as BAK 9, BAK 12, and/or BAK 13). Taxi over arresting cables at as slow a speed as possible. Steer to avoid nose and main gear contact with cable support donuts.

39
Q

Nose or main gear contact with arresting cable support donuts at any speed may result in _________ _________to the gear and/or pro- peller. If nose or main gear contact a support donut, suspect structural damage and have the aircraft inspected by qualified __________ personnel prior to next flight.

A

Structural damage, maintenance

40
Q

Do not taxi over arresting cables with ______ ______ _______ _______.

A

Main gear doors open

41
Q

Takeoff and land _________ arresting cables.

A

Beyond

42
Q

Taxiing over lowered net barriers (BAK 15) should be avoided _______________. If contact with a lowered barrier is unavoidable, reduce power to idle and discontinue braking before contacting the lowered barrier. Recommence braking after clearing the lowered barrier. In the unlikely event that the webbing catches on the aircraft, aircrews may experience directional control problems.

A

If at all possible

43
Q

Under no circumstances should a raised ____________be engaged. Aircrews will steer around the barrier or eject prior to engagement.

A

Web barrier (BAK 15)

44
Q

ICING:
When operating in areas of visible moisture, the probes anti-ice switch _____________.

A

Shall be ON

45
Q

Sustained operation in icing conditions is _________. The aircraft has been approved only for transit through a ________ band of ________.

A

Prohibited, 5000ft, light time ice

46
Q

At first indication of icing, the crew shall ensure that ______________ switch is ON to prevent freezing of the pitot tubes and ________. Freezing of pitot tubes will cause _____________ of systems that depend upon air data. AOA vane freezing will cause loss of ___________.

A

PROBES ANTI-ICE, AOA vane, unreliable operation, artificial stall warning

47
Q

At first indication of icing, the crew shall ______ or _______ from the icing layer to _______ or ________ the ice accumulation from the aircraft.

A

Ascend, descend, sublimate, melt

48
Q

Aerobatics after an icing encounter are ____________ until ice accumulations on the aircraft are melted or sublimated. Maneuvers with ice accumulation are restricted to ____ degrees bank angle and ___ to ___ G’s normal acceleration, up to stall warning system activation.

A

Prohibited, 30, 0, 2,

49
Q

For the landing configuration and during the landing phase, with ice accumulation, approach speed must be increased by ____ KIAS. To ensure safe landing, make sure that sufficient forward cockpit visibility exists from either the front or rear cockpit.

A

10

50
Q

Light rime ice accumulation from transit through a 5000-foot band of light rime ice will __________________ aircraft flying qualities or performance; however, pilots should transition through the icing band as quickly as is safely possible.

A

Not significantly degrade

51
Q

The following fuels have been approved for use in the (NAVY) PT6A- 68 engine:

A

JP-4, JP-5, JP-8

Commercial Jet A or Jet A-1 or Jet B may be used provided I contains anti-ice/fungicide (PFAMB, MIL-DTL-85470 or equivalent).

52
Q

Fuel must contain a ________________. Fuels not containing an inhibitor must have MIL-DTL-85470 fuel system icing inhibitor added.
Add ____ of icing inhibitor for every _____ of fuel during refueling.

A

Fuel system icing inhibitor 1/2 pint, 50gallons

53
Q

Aerobatics operation is prohibited with indicated fuel quantities below _____ pounds per side (yellow band on gage).

A

150

54
Q

Maximum lateral fuel imbalance is ___ pounds.

A

50

55
Q

Engine operation using only the engine-driven high pressure fuel pump without both the electric boost pump and the engine-driven low pressure fuel pump is limited to ________. All time in this category ______________

A

10 hrs, must be recorded

56
Q

Ground operation is limited to ambient temperatures of -23 °C to +43 °C

Note: Ground operation during ambient temperatures exceeding _______ is permitted for up to ____ for the purpose of _________________.

A

-23 °C to +43 °C

43 Celsius, 15min, taxiing the aircraft to park

57
Q

Due to equipment cooling requirements, the limitations presented below apply when the aircraft is parked in direct sunlight in ambient temperatures of 35 °C and above:

15min, canopy closed, no sun shield:

A

Open canopy fully for one hour prior to engine start

58
Q

Cooling limit, canopy closed, sun shield installed:

A

Open canopy fully for 15min prior to engine start

59
Q

No storage time limit
On prop strut / sun shield not installed

A

Open canopy fully for 15 minutes prior to engine start

60
Q

Cooling time
On prop strut / sun shield Installed

A

No limit

61
Q

Cooling time, canopy fully open,

A

No limit

62
Q

Cockpit pressurization schedule limit is:

A

3.6±0.2 psi

63
Q

CKPT PX warning illuminates at

A

3.9 to 4.0 psi

64
Q

Cockpit ΔP display changes to red and overpressurization safety valve opens at:

A

4.0 psi

65
Q

The aircraft is cleared to operate on ___________ only

A

hard surfaced runways (concrete, tarmac, or similar)

66
Q

The canopy shall not be opened on the ground when the surface winds exceed ___ knots.

A

40

67
Q

Ejection seat pilot weight limits are a minimum weight with equipment and flight gear of ______ pounds, and a maximum pilot weight with equipment and flight gear of ______ pounds

A

131.8 , 265.4

68
Q

Ejection seats must never be operated with the canopy ______

A

Open

69
Q

The MKUS16LB ejection seat design range is _____ to _____ pounds nude body weight (131.8 to 265.4 pounds including flight gear). Operations with pilots outside of this range may place the aircraft beyond CG limits and requires new CG computations. Furthermore, the risk of injury increases for pilot weights outside the specified range.

A

103, 231

70
Q

Lightweight Hazards (Body weight less than 103 pounds) - For lightweight aircrew there is an increased potential for ___________ from catapult operation. The seat is less stable, rotation increases, and drogue chute correction is more severe with lightweight aircrew. Ejection above 320 knots will increase injury risk due to drogue chute opening shock. These risks increase as body weight decreases below 103 pounds.

A

Spinal injury

71
Q

Heavyweight Hazards (Body weight greater than 231 pounds) - For heavyweight aircrew there is an increased injury risk during parachute landing. Zero altitude zero airspeed performance is ___________ or __________. These risks increase as body weight increases above 231 pounds.

A

Degraded, lost

72
Q

When ejecting over mountainous terrain exceeding _______ feet MSL, the _______should be used to manually separate from the seat and deploy the parachute.

A

8000, manual override (MOR) handle