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Hornet > Limits > Flashcards

Limits Flashcards

1
Q

Nozzles ground idle limit

A

77-83%

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2
Q

Nozzles mil limit

A

0-45%

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3
Q

Nozzles MAX limit

A

50-100%

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4
Q

Oil pressure start limit

A

With a minimum of 10% N2 and minimum oil pressure of 10 psi within 30 seconds

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5
Q

Oil pressure ground idle limit

A

35-90 psi

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6
Q

Oil pressure steady state (MIL/MAX) limit

A

80-150 psi

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7
Q

Engine vibration fan VIB limit

A

1.6 ips max

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8
Q

Engine vibration core VIB limit

A

2.2 ips max

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9
Q

CG limitation

A

16.8-31.8% MAC

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10
Q

Gross weight field takeoff/inflight limit

A

66,000

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11
Q

Gross weight field landing/FCLP/T&G limit

A

50,600

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12
Q

Gross weight catapult limit

A

66,000

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13
Q

Gross weight carrier landing/barricade limit

A

44,000

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14
Q

Refueling probe extension/retraction airspeed limit

A

300 KCAS

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15
Q

Refueling probe extended airspeed limit

A

400 KCAS

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16
Q

Landing gear normal extension/retraction airspeed limit

A

250 KCAS

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17
Q

Landing gear emergency extension airspeed limit

A

170 KCAS

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18
Q

Nose gear tire limit

A

195 KGS

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19
Q

Main gear tire limit

A

210 KGS

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20
Q

Flaps airspeed limit

A

250 KCAS

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21
Q

Canopy/wingfold limit

A

60 knots

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22
Q

Flaps HALF or FULL AOA limit

A

0-14 degrees AOA

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23
Q

Flaps HALF or FULL angle of bank limit

A

less than or equal to 90 degrees

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24
Q

Flaps HALF or FULL symmetrical acceleration limit

A

0.0-2.0g

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25
Q

Flaps HALF or FULL asymmetrical acceleration limit

A

0.5-1.5g

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26
Q

Max range AOA

A

3.4 degrees

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27
Q

Max endurance AOA

A

4.8 degrees

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28
Q

Prohibited maneuver: Flight in lightening or ____

A

Thunderstorm

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29
Q

Prohibited maneuver: Use of RALT hold below ____ AGL

A

500’

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30
Q

Prohibited maneuver: Selection of ____ with the ECS MODE switch

A

MAN

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31
Q

Prohibited maneuver: Landing with auto-pilot engage except:

a. ____
b. ____
c. ____

A

Mode 1 ACL
Field landings with FPAH/ROLL
PLM engaged

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32
Q

Prohibited maneuver: ____ departures/spins

A

Intentional

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33
Q

Prohibited maneuver: Takeoff with a FADEC ____

A

DEGD

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34
Q

Prohibited maneuver: ____ g except transient

A

0

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35
Q

Prohibited maneuver: ____ release of fuel tanks or ARS

36
Q

Prohibited maneuver: Aerobraking with greater than ____ knots crosswind, pitch greater than ____ degrees, airspeed less than ____ KCAS, GAIN ORIDE, FCS AIR DAT caution or FLAP SCHED caution

37
Q

N2 start limit

A

Greater than or equal to 10%

38
Q

N2 flight idle limit

A

Greater than or equal to 61%

39
Q

N2 maximum steady state limit

40
Q

N2 maximum transient limit

41
Q

N1 steady state limit

42
Q

N1 transient limit

43
Q

EGT steady state MIL limit

44
Q

EGT steady state MAX limit

45
Q

EGT transient start limit

46
Q

EGT transient MIL limit

47
Q

EGT transient MAX limit

48
Q

Flight in lightening or thunderstorms is ____. If thunderstorm penetration is unavoidable, fly at ____ cruise airspeed but not less than ____ KCAS if above ____ feet

A

Prohibited, optimum, 250, 35,000

49
Q

Flight through known icing conditions should be ____

50
Q

If possible icing conditions, inlet temperature should be maintained at a minimum of ____. An inlet temperature of ____ is desired. Maintain less than ____ AOA to prevent LEX ice accumulation

A

+5 C, +10 C, 6 degrees

51
Q

On the ground if the ambient temperature is less than ____ and visible moisture is present, engine anti-ice should be on

52
Q

For cold weather starts, avoid actuating any hydraulic system for ____ minute(s) after both engines are online

53
Q

During cold weather starts in temperatures less than ____, up to ____ FCS exerciser BITs may be required to get a successful FCS reset

54
Q

If the landing gear has accumulated snow or slush, leave the landing gear down for ____ minute(s) after takeoff to allow the snow or slush to clear

55
Q

During cold weather starts, oil pressure may appear invalid if the pressure is above ____ psi. The maximum oil pressure 2.5 minutes after start is ____ psi

56
Q

Can you take off with any channel of the FADEC degraded?

57
Q

F414-GE-400 thrust at MIL

A

13,900 lbs

58
Q

F414-GE-400 thrust at MAX

A

20,700 lbs

59
Q

Zero g flight (except transient-over ____ seconds between ____g and ____g) is ____

A

2, -0.2, +0.2, prohibited

60
Q

Negative g flight over ____ seconds is prohibited. A minimum of ____ seconds should elapse between negative g maneuvers

61
Q

A L/R AMAD PR caution indicates a loss of respective ____. It could indicate an AMAD ____ and result in possible engine or AMAD ____

A

AMAD oil pressure, AMAD oil leak, fire

62
Q

A L/R OIL hot could indicate either:

  • ____
  • ____
  • The our of limit parameter will be highlighted and surrounded by <> on the ENG page
A

High AMAD oil temperature, high engine oil temperature

63
Q

Do not catapult with an external tank that is not empty (____) or full (____)

A

<100 lbs, >2700 lbs

64
Q

Do not perform a carrier arrestment or touch and go with more than ____ lbs in an external tank

65
Q

Pulling any FCS ____ except when directed by NATOPS is prohibited

A

Circuit breaker

66
Q

Selection of ____ on the ECS mode switch is prohbited

67
Q

Selection of ____ with the ECS mode switch while the aft cooling fan shutoff valve is open may cause the fan to overspeed causing a catastrophic fan failure potentially leading to a loss of OBOGS

68
Q

The emergency oxygen located in the seat pan provides oxygen for approximately ____ minutes. Under less than optimal conditions (low altitude, heavy breathing, loose mask), it may provide as few as ____ minutes of oxygen

69
Q

Zero airspeed ____ and intentional ____ are prohibited

A

Tailslides, spins/departures

70
Q

Yaw rates above ____ are prohibited

A

40 degrees per second

71
Q

Holding roll inputs (lateral stick or rudder pedal) past ____ is prohibited

A

360 degrees

72
Q

Inflight selection of ____ on the SPIN switch is prohibited

73
Q

Pushing above -1g and above ____ KCAS and below ____ feet is prohibited

A

700, 10,000

74
Q

Holding lateral stick past ____ bank angle change when pushing between 0.0 and -1.0g’s

A

180 degrees

75
Q

Abrupt full stick (full aft stick within 0.5 seconds) with less than ___ lbs of fuel is prohibited

76
Q

Flight with GAIN ORIDE selected above ____ AOA, above ____ KCAS (Flaps AUTO), ____ KCAS (Flaps HALF), ____ KCAS (Flaps FULL) is prohibited

A

10, 350, 200, 190

77
Q

Nominal hydraulic pressure is ____ psi

78
Q

High pressure (____ psi) is commanded by the FCCs when airloads are high during high speed flight

79
Q

Hydraulic caution (1A/1B/2A/2B) comes on when pressure falls below ____ psi

80
Q

RLS:

  • System A off: ____%
  • System A on/System B off: ____%
  • System A on/System B on: ____%
A

50, 30, 15

81
Q

For field takeoff and in-flight, the maximum lateral weight asymmetry is ____ ft-lbs. For the asymmetry calculation use stations ____ through ____ stores, pylons and external fuel and include internal wing fuel split with a ____ caution

A

29000, 2, 10, FUEL XFER

82
Q

For field landing, FCLP and T&G landings, the maximum lateral weight asymmetry is ____ ft-lbs. For the asymmetry calculations, use stations ____ through ____ stores, pylons and external fuel and include ____ fuel splits

A

33000, 1, 11, internal wing

83
Q

For catapult launches, the maximum lateral weight asymmetry is ____ ft-lbs when using stations 2 though 10 stores, pylons and fuel and not to exceed ____ ft-lbs when using stations 1 though 11 and including internal wing fuel imbalance

A

29000, 30800

84
Q

For carrier landings, the maximum lateral weight asymmetry is ____ ft-lbs and uses stations 1 through 11 and internal wing fuel imbalance in the calculations

85
Q

For MC OFP H3E and up, the lateral symmetry is calculated and displayed on the CHKLST page. The ____ value is used for field takeoff, catapult maximum asymmetry and in-flight. The ____ value is used for landing events and catapult end speed and weight board calculations

Hornet (4 decks)

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