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1. UAL EPs & LIMITS > Limitations_All [Master: Do Not Shuffle] > Flashcards

Limitations_All [Master: Do Not Shuffle] Flashcards

1
Q

GENERAL LIMITATIONS.

For wingspan-limited taxi operations, the Aircraft Design Group identifiers are:

A 
Group III (FAA)
Code C (ICAO)
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2
Q

GENERAL LIMITATIONS.

The 737 is certified for extended operations up to how many minutes (ETOPS)?

A

180 minutes ETOPS.

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3
Q

GENERAL LIMITATIONS.

What approach Category is the 737?

A
  • *Straight In:**
  • 700 / *800 (507+) / *900 (401-412): Cat C (* means only if using flaps 40 ref speed)
  • all others are CAT D

Circling:
All are CAT D

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4
Q

GENERAL LIMITATIONS.

Flight maneuvering load acceleration limits:
FLAPS UP

A

+ 2.5g to -1.0g

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5
Q

GENERAL LIMITATIONS.

Flight maneuvering load acceleration limits:
Flaps Down

A

+2.0g to 0.0g

(MAX) with flaps 30 and 40, positive limits vary linearly from +2gs at max landing weight to +1.5g at maximum takeoff weight.

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6
Q

Memory Limitation.

OPERATING LIMITATIONS.

* Maximum Operating Pressure Altitude?

A

* 41,000 feet.

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7
Q

OPERATING LIMITATIONS.

Maximum Takeoff/Landing Pressure Altitude.

A

10,000 feet.

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8
Q

OPERATING LIMITATIONS.

Maximum Runway Slope.

A

+/- 2%

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9
Q

OPERATING LIMITATIONS

Normal runway width.

A

148 feet wide or greater (a narrow runway is less than 148’ in usable width, but not less than min runway width.

In winter with partially cleared runways, the full width of the runway is considered usable when the contamination depth outside the cleared portion is 6 inches or less.

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10
Q

OPERATING LIMITATIONS.

Minimum runway width.

A

100 feet.

any operations on runways narrower than the mins must be approved by the managing director of Flt ops (see FOM)

In winter with partially cleared runways, the full width of the runway is considered usable when the contamination depth outside the cleared portion is 6 inches or less.

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11
Q

OPERATING LIMITATIONS.

Requirements to TAKEOFF from narrow runways.

A
  • Nose wheel steering and all brakes must be operative.
  • crosswind capability is diminished with thrust reverser or flight control deferrals
  • Ensure Takeoff V1 is greater than or equal to narrow runway calculated VMCG
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12
Q

OPERATING LIMITATIONS.

Requirements for LANDING on narrow runways.

A
  • Autoland is NOT authorized
  • Consider diversion to normal width runway for nose wheel steering, thrust reverser, braking or flight control degradation (crosswind capability is diminished).
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13
Q

OPERATING LIMITATIONS.

** Maximum takeoff / landing tailwind component.

A

** 15 knots.

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14
Q

VMO / MMO

A

VMO: upper barber pole on speed tape
MMO: .82M

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15
Q

Maximum gear RETRACTION speed.

A

235 kts

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16
Q

Maximum gear EXTENSION speed.

A

270 / .82M

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17
Q

Maximum gear OPERATING/EXTENDED speed.

A

320 / .82M

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18
Q
  • *MEMORY ITEM**
  • *** Recommended severe turbulence penetration speed in CRUISE.**
A

** TURB N1 SETTING FROM CRUISE PAGE

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19
Q

MEMORY ITEM

** Recommended severe turbulence penetration speed for CLIMB & DESCENT.

A

** 280 kts / .76M

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20
Q

If severe turbulence is encountered at altitudes BELOW 15,000’ and if the airplanes gross weight is LESS THAN the MAX LDG WT (what speed can you go)?

A

Aircraft can be slowed to 250 kts in the CLEAN configuration.

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21
Q

What is the minimum ground time after landing if the landing weight exceeds the value in the Max Quick Turn Around Weight Limits table? [Steel Brakes / Carbon Brakes]

A

Steel: 67 Minutes

Carbon: 48 Minutes.

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22
Q

MEMORY ITEM

** Takeoff crosswind component (knots) Blended Winglet/Split Scimitar Winglet with a runway condition code of 6 (Surface condition - Dry (smooth, grooved or PFC)?

A

** 34 /33 (assumes an engine failure RTO)

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23
Q

MEMORY ITEM

** LANDING crosswind component (knots) Blended Winglet/Split Scimitar Winglet with a runway condition code of 6 (Surface condition - Dry (smooth, grooved or PFC)?

A

** 40 / 37 kts.

  • reduce by 5 kts on wet or contaminated runways whenever asymmetric reverse thrust is used.
  • Winds are measured at 33’ tower height and apply for runways 100’ or greater in width
  • landing on untreated ice or snow should only be attempted when no melting is present.
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24
Q

MEMORY ITEM

** TAKEOFF crosswind component (knots) Blended Winglet/Split Scimitar Winglet with a runway condition code of 5 (Braking action Good - SFC condition for smooth, grooved or PFC is Wet / Damp (visible moisture), Frost or 1/8” or less of: Water, Slush, Dry or Wet Snow.)

A

25 /25 (assumes an engine failure RTO)

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25
Q

MEMORY ITEM

**LANDING crosswind component (knots) Blended Winglet/Split Scimitar Winglet with a runway condition code of 5 (Braking action Good - SFC condition for smooth, grooved or PFC is Wet / Damp (visible moisture), Frost or 1/8” or less of: Water, Slush, Dry or Wet Snow.)

A

** 40 / 37 kts.

  • reduce by 5 kts on wet or contaminated runways whenever asymmetric reverse thrust is used.
  • Winds are measured at 33’ tower height and apply for runways 100’ or greater in width
  • landing on untreated ice or snow should only be attempted when no melting is present.
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26
Q

Rolling takeoffs are strongly advised when crosswinds exceed _______.

A

20 kts (1.20.9) - due to engine surge possibility with a strong crosswind component.

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27
Q

Sideslip only (0 crab) landings for airplanes equipped with split scimitar winglets are not recommended with crosswinds in excess of ___________ kts.

A

15 kts (1.20.9)

this ensures adequate ground clearance and control.

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28
Q

Takeoff is NOT APPROVED with________ (Warning) or __________ annunciated.

A

Predictive Windshear warning or caution alert annunciated (1.20.9)

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29
Q

How often should an operation check of the Boeing flight deck door access system by accomplished?

A

at least once each flight day (1st flight of day is ok)

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30
Q

On revenue flights, the escape slide retention bar (girt bar) must be installed when?

A

for Taxi, Takeoff and Landing.

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31
Q

What is the range for acceptable cockpit O2 pressure. (includes all temps, from 2-4 pilots).

A

Least is 430 psi (-10C for 2 pilots)

Highest is 945 psi (50C for 4 pilots)

avg for 2 pilots at 450-500 psi

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32
Q

What is the MINIMUM number of cabin portable oxygen bottles aboard?

A

At least 1 for each assigned flight attendant (1 FA / 50 seats)

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33
Q

When engine bleeds are ON (either one or both) do not operate the PACKS _______ for ________ , __________, or __________.

A

High

Takeoff, approach and landing

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34
Q

A duct pressure difference of more than ___________ psi may indicate a mechanical malfunction. If a duct pressure split is observed AFTER bleeds are configured for flight, and the lowest indication is approx ________ psi or less - contact paint.

A

8 psi (difference)

18 PSI or less

1.30.3

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35
Q

Minimum Duct Pressure for 2 PACK operation from ONE bleed source.

A

20 - 25 psi (Min)

(all a/c EXCEPT the MAX - DO NOT OPERATE MORE THAN 1 PACK from 1 ENGINE)

(MAX - on the ground do not operate more than one pack from one engine)

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36
Q

How many packs can you operate on ONE engine? (all except MAX)

A

1

Do not operate more than ONE pack from ONE engine (all except MAX)

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37
Q

MEMORY ITEM

** ICING CONDITIONS EXIST ON THE GROUND AND FOR TAKEOFF WHEN:

A

OUTSIDE AIR TEMPERATURE IS 10 degrees C OR BELOW.

(and Visible moisture in any form is present (IE clouds, fog with visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals), OR while operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where snow, standing water or slush may be ingested by the engines or freeze on the engines, nacelles or engine sensor probes.)

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38
Q

MEMORY ITEM

** ICING CONDITIONS EXIST IN FLIGHT WHEN:

A

TOTAL AIR TEMPERATURE (TAT) IS 10 degrees C OR BELOW.

(and Visible moisture in any form is present (IE clouds, fog with visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals)

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39
Q

Engine AI MUST be ON during ________, including ______, when icing conditions exist or are anticipated.

A

ALL GROUND OPERATIONS

Including AFTER LANDING

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40
Q

Engine AI must be on during all flight operations for:

  1. Climb & Cruise and 2. Descent when…
A

Must be on during all flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated EXCEPT during climb and cruise when the temp is below -40 C (SAT).

ALSO

Must be ON PRIOR TO and DURING descent in ALL icing conditions INCLUDING temperatures BELOW (- 40 SAT)

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41
Q

During Engine AI operations.. what should be turned on and when?

A

Engine ignition must be selected to CONT prior to and during.

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42
Q

The use of WING AI is acceptable during all ground operations between engine start and takeoff when icing conditions exist or are anticipated unless ______________.

A

unless the airplane is or will be protected by TYPE 2 or 4 fluid.

43
Q

When should you NOT operate WING AI on the ground?

A

When the OAT is above 10’ C.

44
Q

When should wing anti-ice NOT be used?

A

As a SUBSTITUTE for ground deice/anti-icing.

45
Q

Window heat MUST be on by when?

A

10 minutes before takeoff.

46
Q

When MUST PROBE HEAT be on?

A

Prior to takeoff

47
Q

When should you NOT use WING AI on takeoff?

A

Do not use until after the FIRST THRUST REDUCTION.

48
Q

What might happen if you use WING AI above FL 350?

A

It may cause BLEED TRIP OFF and possible loss of cabin pressure.

49
Q

MEMORY ITEM

Autopilot Minimum Engagement Height.

** On takeoff or missed approach, do not engage autopilot below?

A

* 400 feet AGL

50
Q

Maximum Wind Speed Limits for Autoland.

A

25 kts (Headwind)

15 kts (Crosswind)

10 kts (Tailwind) [Flaps 30 and 40]

* additional minor criteria for the -900 (0401-0412) at flaps 30 depending on field elevation (See 1.30.5)

51
Q

Use of AILERON TRIM is prohibited when?

A

When the autopilot is engaged.

52
Q

Autopilot use is prohibited BELOW 100 feet RA when?

A

at airport pressure altitudes ABOVE 8400 feet

53
Q

MEMORY ITEM

** MINIMUM ALTITUDE FOR USE OF AUTOPILOT ON APPROACH

A. ILS/GLS COUPLED APPROACHES (NO AUTOLAND)

B. NON-PRECISION APPROACHES

C. AUTOLANDINGS (not required memory item)

A

A. 50 FEET AGL

B. 50 FEET BELOW MDA/DA

C. TOUCHDOWN (not required memory item)

54
Q

Autopilot MUST be disconnected before descending __________, without a _________?

A

below 500 feet AGL

published MDA or DA

55
Q

The ILS auto land capability may only be used with _________ and ________ also with _____________.

A

flaps 30 and 40

both engines operative

56
Q

Max and Min glideslope angles for auto land are?

A
  1. 25 degrees
  2. 5 degrees
57
Q

Radio Altimeter Restrictions due to 5G.

What approaches are prohibited in presence of 5G NOTAM?

A

ILS SA CAT2, CAT2, CAT 3

RNP(AR), RNP AR IAP

AUTOLAND

58
Q

What is the lowest RCC code we can be dispatched or related to, OR takeoff and land from?

A

RCC 1 and 0 is prohibited therefore RCC 2 is the lowest.

59
Q

Under what conditions can you NOT use autoland?

A

Overweight landings

Do not use the autopilot or auto throttle for approach if the associated RADALT is inop

Autolands with the FO as PF are NOT AUTHORIZED.

60
Q

MEMORY ITEM

** WHEN SHOULD YOU NOT USE LVL CHG?

A

** Do NOT use LVL CHG on FINAL APPROACH below 1000 feet AFE.

61
Q

When should you NOT use VHF 3?

A

Do not use VHF 3 for ATC Communications with ACARS operational.

62
Q

Do NOT operate the KA GND TX ENABLE switch in the OVERRIDE position or the WIFI COMM ENABLE/BROADBAND SYSTEM switch in the ON position….when?

A

During deice, when maintenance is being performed near the WIFI RADOME or in a hangar due to presence of RF energies that can cause personal injury.

63
Q

Minimum Battery Voltage for APU Start?

A

23 volts (1.30.10)

64
Q

When MUST the ignition be on?

A

Takeoff, Landing, Engine AI and Heavy Rain.

65
Q

Engine Starter Duty Cycle.

Each start attempt is limited to _______ minutes (NG/MAX) of starter usage.

A minimum of ___________ (time) is needed between start attempts.

A

Multiple consecutive start attempts are permitted.

2 minutes (all but MAX)

3 minutes (for the MAX)

10 seconds

66
Q

Extended Engine Motoring Limits (NG/MAX)

A

NG: starter usage is limited to 15 minutes for the first 2 EEM. (a minimum of 2 min between each) - for the third and subsequent EEMs starter usage is limited to 5 min (a min of 10 min is needed between each attempt)

MAX: limited to 5 min for ALL EEMs. ( a min of 5 min is needed between the first 2 EEMs). For the third and subsequent EEMs, a min of 10 min is needed between.

67
Q

When is operation with assumed temperature reduced TO thrust NOT PERMITTED?

A

with ANTISKID INOP or

when the Runway is contaminated with standing water, ice, slush or snow.

when EECs are in ALTN mode.

68
Q

Do not attempt go-around after _____________ on landing.

A

thrust reverser deployment

69
Q

Both EECs must be either _______or ________for _________.

A

ON or ALTN for takeoff.

70
Q

When the EEC is in ALTN mode what is NOT permitted?

A

Operation with assumed temp reduced for TO thrust.

71
Q

APU MAX ALTITUDES.

Bleed and Electrical

Bleed only

Electrical Only

A

10,000’ (bleed and electrical)

17,000’ (bleed only)

41,000’ (electrical only)

72
Q

MIN Engine Oil QTY prior to Engine start.

A

70%

73
Q

Do not engage the starter above ________.

A

20% N2

74
Q

APU STARTER DUTY CYCLE

For both GROUND and In-Flight Starts, ____________ cooling is required after the _________ start attempt.

A

15-minute cooling

third start attempt

75
Q

APU Warm Up Time Limits (NG/MAX)

A

operate APU 1 minute before using APU bleed air (NG)

2 minutes (MAX)

76
Q

APU SHUTDOWN.

How long should you wait prior to turning off the BATT after shutting down the APU?

A

Wait a minimum of 120 seconds for the APU shutdown cycle to complete. Then turn the BATT off.

77
Q

When MUST the APU Bleed Air Valve be closed?

A

when Ground Pneumatic air is connected and isolation valve open

Eng 1 Bleed air valve is open (Eng 1 running)

Isolation valve is OPEN and Eng #2 Bleed Valve is OPEN (Eng 2 running)

* avoid engine power above IDLE with the APU Bleed Valve Open

78
Q

What should the engine fire extinguisher bottle pressure be?

A

800 psi @70 degrees C

79
Q

MEMORY ITEM

** MAXIMUM FLAP EXTENSION ALTITUDE

A

** 20,000 FEET

80
Q

When holding in icing conditions, what is prohibited?

A

Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is prohibited.

81
Q

SPEED BRAKE LIMITATIONS.

A. In flight, do not extend the speed brake lever beyond?

B. In FLIGHT, do not extend the speed brake lever beyond the ARMED detent when?

C. Do not deploy the speed brakes in flight at RA less than?

A

A. Flight detent

B. With FLAPS 40 selected

C. Less than 1000 feet.

82
Q

When extending or retracting flaps with the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, how long should you wait after releasing the switch before moving it again, and why?

A

15 seconds

to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor clutch

83
Q

After a complete extend/retract cycle of the flaps (0 to 15 and back to 0), how much time should you allow for cooling before attempting another extension?

A

5 minutes.

84
Q

Maximum Airspeed to EXTEND flaps with ALTERNATE system?

A

230 kts.

85
Q

Mach Trim Fail (Both Channels)

Maximum Speed

A

280 kts / .82

86
Q

Maximum In-Flight difference between CAPT and FO altitude displays for RVSM

A

200 feet.

87
Q

Max allowable ON GROUND display differences for RVSM.

SL to 5,000’ (Capt vs FO) / (Capt or FO / Field Elevation)

5,001 - 10,000’ (Capt vs FO) / (Capt or FO / Field Elevation)

A

50’ / 75’

60’ / 75’

88
Q

Do not operate the WEATHER RADAR, when?

A

fueling, w/in 50’ of a fuel spill or w/in 15’ of people except in test mode.

89
Q

During RNAV (RNP) procedures, what altimeter settings are NOT authorized?

A

Remote altimeter settings.

90
Q

What type of approaches are NOT authorized?

A

LOC-BC

91
Q

Is RTE 2 authorized? Why? (NG)

A

Due to the possibility of FMC restarts, do not COPY or ENTER any info into RTE 2. Be sure there is nothing in RTE 2 during preflight.

92
Q

WHAT IS THE APPROX TANK CAPACITIES?

A

TANK 1 AND 3: 8630#

TANK 2: 28,803

93
Q

When must the main wing tanks be scheduled to be FULL?

A

if the center wing tank has more than 1,000 lbs of fuel.

94
Q

When can the CROSSFEED valve be open?

A

During MIN FUEL operations

95
Q

Maximum fuel imbalance between the main wing tanks for taxi, takeoff, flight or landing?

A

1,000 lbs.

96
Q

Intentional Dry Running of a center tank fuel pump (LOW PRESSURE light illuminated) is?

A

Prohibited

97
Q

Center tank fuel pumps must NOT be ON, when?

A

unless personnel are available on the flight deck o monitor LOW PRESSURE lights.

98
Q

For Ground Operations, center tank fuel pump switches must NOT be positioned ON UNLESS….

A

the center tank fuel qty exceeds 1,000 lbs EXCEPT when defueling or transferring fuel

99
Q

For ground and flight operations, both center tank fuel pump switches must be positioned OFF when…

A

the first center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE light illuminates if the center tank is empty.

100
Q

DEFUELING THE MAIN TANKS WITH PASSENGERS ON BOARD IS PROHIBITED IF?

A

THE MAIN TANK FUEL PUMPS ARE POWERED.

101
Q

Defueling the center tank with passengers on board is prohibited if?

A

The center tank fuel pumps are powered and the auto-shutoff system is inhibited.

102
Q

WHEN MAY FUEL BE TRANSFERRED (Tank to Tank) or DEFUELED with passengers on board?

A

if the fuel quantity in the tank from which fuel is being taken is maintained at or above 2000 lbs.

103
Q

MINIMUM FUEL FOR STATIONARY GROUND OPERATION OF ELECTRIC MOTOR-DRIVEN HYDRAULIC PUMPS IS?

A

1675# IN THE RELATED MAIN TANK.

104
Q

Maximum/Min hydraulic quantity for dispatch.

A

105% / RF

1. UAL EPs & LIMITS (4 decks)

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