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D328 Jet > Limitations/Oral Memory Items > Flashcards

Limitations/Oral Memory Items Flashcards

1
Q

Wingspan

A

68’10”

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2
Q

Length

A

69’10”

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3
Q

Height

A

23’9”

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4
Q

Turn Radius, outside wheel

A

47’6”

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5
Q

Vmo

A

.66/400 KTAS

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6
Q

Va

A

190

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7
Q

Maximum altitude for Flaps

A

FL180

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8
Q

Maximum Altitude for Gear

A

FL180

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9
Q

Max Speed, Flaps 12

A

205

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10
Q

Max Speed, Flaps 20

A

180

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11
Q

Max Speed, Flaps 32

A

160

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12
Q

Max Speed for Landing Gear

A

200

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13
Q

Maximum Tire Speed

A

180

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14
Q

Maximum Wiper Speed

A

166

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15
Q

MIN CRUISE SPEED below SAT -55°C?

A

M0.56 below SAT -55C

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16
Q

Maximum Field Elevation

A

9,200’

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17
Q

Maximum Runway Slopes

A

+2/-2

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18
Q

Maximum Tailwind

A

10

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19
Q

Demonstrated X-Wind

A

24

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20
Q

Maximum Precipitation Depth

A

0.6”, 15mm

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21
Q

Maximum demonstrated wind for taxi?

A

40 knots

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22
Q

If wind is greater than 52 knots, what is the taxi limitation?

A

Taxi only with gust lock engaged

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23
Q

MRW

A

34,789

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24
Q

MTOW

A

34,524

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25
Q

MLW

A

31,724

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26
Q

ZFW

A

28,814

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27
Q

Minimum Flight Weight

A

21, 164

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28
Q

Maximum Fuel Imbalance

A

310 lbs

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29
Q

Aux Fuel Tank Max Fuel

A

11,061 (10, 900 actual)

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30
Q

G Load Flaps up

A

+2.65, -1.00

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31
Q

G Load Flaps down

A

+2.0, -0.0

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32
Q

Maximum Starting ITT

A

950

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33
Q

Maximum ITT

A

920

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34
Q

Maximum Transient ITT

A

930 for 20 seconds

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35
Q

Starter Limitations (main engines)

A 
2 start attempts in 10 minutes
2 minutes total motor time
Then 20 minutes cooling
2-10-2-20
A RUN-VENT-RUN can exceed the 2 minutes
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36
Q

Maximum Altitude for APU Start

A

FL200

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37
Q

Maximum Altitude for APU running and to use for engine starting?

A

FL300

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38
Q

APU Bleed Air Limitations (for ECS)?

A

Except as necessary for TO, no APU Bleed Air for ECS on the ground with 1 or 2 engines running.

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39
Q

APU Starting Limitations

A

3 starts / attempts w 1.5 min max combined starter time, then 10 min off.

(3/90/10) But also MAX of TWO START ATTEMPTS

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40
Q

Autopilot Limitation for ILS approach

A

100’ AGL

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41
Q

Autopilot Limitation for Non-Precision or Backcourse Approach?

A

200’ AGL

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42
Q

Autopilot Limitation for Climb, Cruise, and Descent?

A

500’ AGL

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43
Q

Autopilot is NOT Allowed with the following cautions?

A
  1. RUDDER NOT LIMITED
  2. RUDDER LIMIT FAIL
  3. AIL MISTRIM (in icing conditions)
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44
Q

Engine Anti ice limited to a maximum temperature of?

A

+15C

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45
Q

Airfoil Deice Limited to a Minimum Temp of?

A

-40C

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46
Q

ECS OFF is prohibited for?

A

T/O and in Flight

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47
Q

Landing field elevation exceeds TO field elevation by +1500’, min flt time with CPCS in AUTO

A

+15 minutes

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48
Q

On ground OAT above 35°C both ECS packs must be on for _____after bleed source has been switched off.

A

At least TWO MINUTES.

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49
Q

If the ground temperature is below -30C what must be done prior to flight?

A

Hydraulic Leakage Test

AFM

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50
Q

If the airplane has been parked for more than 7 hours with temperatures below -30C takeoff is prohibited unless?

A

You preform the “Precautions after Prolonged Parking in Cold Weather”

FCOM

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51
Q

Flaps 12/20/32 max speeds?

A

Flaps 12 : 205 KIAS
Flaps 20: 180 KIAS
Flaps 32: 160 KIAS

52
Q

Crossfeeding fuel is prohibited for?

A

Takeoff, Approach, Landing

53
Q

Minimum SAT fuel system is certified for?

A

-63C

54
Q

Takeoff and inflight operation with ECS OFF is?

A

prohibited

55
Q

Maximum Differential Pressure?

A

6.90 psi/7.5?

56
Q

Maximum Differential Pressure for Landing?

A

0.40 psi

57
Q

Maximum Altitude for ECS single pack operations?

A

FL250

58
Q

With 24 or more pax the ECS mode must be set to?

A

HIGH

59
Q

If the attitude between the 2 PFD’s and Standby differ more than _____ degrees, takeoff is prohibited.

A

3 degrees (bank or pitch)

60
Q

During periods when either DR or DGRAD annunciators are illuminated navigations shall?

A

Not be predicated on the FMS for RNAV operation.

61
Q

Cargo Load Limits (2)

A

882-forward

771-aft

62
Q

If both non-essential busses lose electrical power (battery power only) what happens?

A

Emergency Light Come on

Hx fans for the packs are powered by the non-essential bus on the ground.

63
Q

The FUEL SOV can be closed? (2)

A
  1. Thrust Lever to Cutoff

2. Fire Button

64
Q

APU ECU gets power from?

A

DC Bus 2

65
Q

How many battery volts minimum to start APU?

A

22 volts

66
Q

‘FUEL BALANCE’ CAS comes on at?

A

260 lbs.

67
Q

‘FUEL ASYM’ CAS comes on at?

A

310 lbs.

68
Q

Battery Power Only duration?

A

30 minutes

69
Q

Battery Power Only with TRU

A

60 minutes

70
Q

Jet Pack Batteries only

A

30 minutes

71
Q

What do the A/C busses power?

alternator

A
  1. Windshield Heat
  2. Horn Heat
  3. Ice Detector Probe
  4. Hydraulic Pumps (A and B)
72
Q

DC power inverted to AC powers what?

A
  1. TCAS
  2. GPWS
  3. CVR
  4. FDR
  5. Trim Pointers
73
Q

With an IAC 1 Failure what do you lose?

A
  1. Screens 1, 2, and 3.
  2. Autopilot
  3. FMS
74
Q

With an engine driven SINGLE GENERATOR on the ground what is the amp limit?

A

320 amps

75
Q

How many hydraulic accumulators are on the plane?

A
  1. Accumulator A
  2. Accumulator B
  3. Emergency/Parking Brake
76
Q

What is the purpose of the DC standby Hydraulic Pump?

A

To charge the parking brake accumulator.

on essential bus

77
Q

What bus on are the SQUIBs on?

A

Hot Battery Bus

78
Q

What aural do you get for Fuel Fed Fires?

A

Fire Bell

79
Q

What aural do you get for a lavatory or cargo fire?

A

Triple Chime

80
Q

What does pushing the fire button do?

A 
Bleed Air
Ignition (continuous) {not for APU}
Generators (AC and DC)
Fuel SOV
Motive Flow {not for APU}
Squibs Armed
81
Q

Two ways to close the Fire Shutoff Valve?

A
  1. Thrust Lever to Cutoff

2. Fire Button

82
Q

The APU ECU gets powered from?

A

APU ECU > DC Bus 2

83
Q

Minimum battery voltage to start APU?

A

22V

84
Q

What does the A Hydraulic Pump Power?

A

Alternate Brakes
Outboard Spoilers
Landing Gear

85
Q

What does the B Hydraulic Pump power?

A 
Everything else:
Flaps
Roll Spoilers
Inboard Spoilers
NWS
Landing gear alternate extension
86
Q

The NWS can be deflected pedals? tiller?

A

10

60

87
Q

Rudder Spring Tab speed?

A

160 knots
below 160 there is an active servo tab
above 160 the tab locks into place w rudder

88
Q

How many aileron trim motors are there?

A

2

89
Q

How many elevator trim motors are there?

A

4
2 fast
2 slow
(200 knots)

90
Q

Elevator Trim fast/slow speed is?

A

200 knots

91
Q

How is the rudder dampened for gusts when parked?

A

Hydraulic Gust Dampener

92
Q

Is there a standby rudder trim?

A

no

93
Q

Ground Spoilers deploy in AUTO with what conditions?

A
  1. Armed
  2. Landing Gear Down
  3. WOW
    - —————————–
  4. Wheel speed 45 knots
  5. Thrust Levers-Idle
94
Q

Ground Spoilers deploy in MANUAL with what conditions?

A
  1. Armed
  2. Landing Gear Down
  3. WOW
    _____________________
  4. MANUAL DEPLOY
95
Q

How many DAUs for shaker vs pusher?

A

1 DAU Shaker

2 DAU pusher

96
Q

What type of cockpit alerts are inhibited for Takeoff and Landing?

A

AURAL ALERTS

97
Q

What can cause a T/O CONFIG? (5)

A
  1. Flaps 12
  2. P-Brake Set
  3. Trim
  4. Ground Spoilers (armed and stowed)
  5. NWS-High OFF
98
Q

How are the Pitot Probes and AOAs heated?

A

DC power

99
Q

How is the following heated?

  1. Windshield heat
  2. Horn Heat
  3. Ice Detector Probe
A

AC power from alternator

100
Q

What powers the Hydraulic Pumps?

A

AC power from the alternators

101
Q

How long does a boot de-ice cycle take?

A

46 seconds

102
Q

Difference between SLOW/FAST deice cycles?

A

Less the -20C, SLOW: cycle 3 minutes

Above -20C, FAST: cycle 1 minute

103
Q

Explain Ice Detector Cycle?

A
  1. Blue ‘Ice Detected’ CAS
  2. Heater runs for 1 minute. (AC power)
  3. CAS stays on from additional 4 minutes (5 total)
  4. Goes off if no more ice detected in the 4 minutes.
104
Q

When is a reduced thrust T/O prohibited? (7)

A
  1. Contaminated Runway
  2. Icing Conditions
  3. Runways less than 98’ wide
  4. Wind Shear Reported
  5. using APU for ECS
  6. If you haven’t verified a max thrust takeoff is good
  7. Obstacle height in T/O path exceeds 1,500’
105
Q

One sensor fail on a two sensor door will result in?

A

Switch Fail and Amber Door Synoptic

106
Q

Both Sensors fail on a two sensor door will result in?

A

A yellow X on the doors page.

107
Q

If you lose power to BOTH non-essential buses what comes on?

A

Emergency Lights

108
Q

A Vent Cycle runs for how long?

A

60 seconds

109
Q

A Run Cycle runs for how long?

A

45 seconds

110
Q

Red Warning Panel—‘OXYGEN’ comes on at?

A

below 20%

111
Q

Passengers get oxygen via the masks at what altitude?

What altitude does the solenoid close (no oxygen)?

A

13,800’ (+/- 700) mask deploy and are available above that altitude.

Below 10,000’ solenoid is closed and pax are not getting oxygen.

112
Q

What cabin altitude would both outflow valves automatically close?

A

14,500’

113
Q

Refuel quantity without auxiliary tanks, AUTO and MAN?

A

7,800 lbs AUTO

7,970 lbs MANUAL

114
Q

L FADEC Minor you can operate for ?

A

150 hours

115
Q

Minimum oil temperature for takeoff thrust is?

A

16C but 21C is recommended

116
Q

Where are the different places you can you see engine indications?

A
  1. EICAS primary page
  2. Engine system page on MFD
  3. RMU
117
Q

During engine start, when does the ignition cycle stop and the ignition light extinguish?

A

40% N2

118
Q

ECS Bleed Air is automatically shut off for what two conditions?

A

Overpressure and Overtemperature

119
Q

What is the minimum lateral wingtip clearance for a 180 degree turn?

A

97’

120
Q

Which action is required if a static inverter fails (DC>AC) ?

A

No action required, the operating inverter will pick up all consumers.

121
Q

Alternator amp max?

A

90 amps

122
Q

Vra rough air

A

200 knots or 0.50 mach

123
Q

Will thr APU auto shut down for fire?

A

No

124
Q

What bus is the fuel shut off valve on?

A

Hot battery bus

125
Q

When do you get warnings if the gear is not down and locked?

A

500’ - “too low, gear”

400’ - European siren and flashing idiot handle.

D328 Jet (13 decks)

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