Limitations (M) Flashcards

To learn the 107 memory items to fly a SF34..

1
Q

MTM

A

13,290kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MTOW

A

13,155kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MLW

A

12,930kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MZFW

A

12,020kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

340BWT Wingspan

A

21.44m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ATMOSPHERIC ICING CONDITIONS

A

Encountering atmospheric conditions that include Supercooled Large Droplets (SLDs) (freezing rain & freezing drizzle) or severe icing are outside the certification envelope of the aircraft & an immediate exit out of these conditions is a necessity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

VFE 7 or 15

A

175 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

VFE 20

A

165 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

VFE 35

A

140 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When can flaps be operated?

A

Flaps may only be extended on ground, as required for take-off, low altitude holding, approach & landing, up to a maximum altitude of 14,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maximum Gear Retraction Speed (VLOR)

A

150 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maximum Gear Extension Speed (VLOE)

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Maximum Emergency Gear Extension Speed (VLOEE)

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Maximum Gear Extended Speed (VLE)

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

VMCL (BWT) Flaps 20 & 35

A

103 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Maximum Operating Speed (VMO)

A

250 KIAS up to approx. 16,000 ft. Above this altitude VMO decreases as identified by the VMO pointer to approx. 210 KIAS at 25,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Maximum Manoeuvring Speed (VA)

A

180 KIAS

Avoid rapid & large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll or yaw (e.g. large sideslip angles) as they may result in structural failures at any speed, including below VA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Maximum Rough Air Penetration Speed (VRA)

A

190 KIAS up to 21,000 ft ISA. Above this altitude, reduce the speed as indicated by the VMO pointer minus 30 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Maximum T/O & LDG Tailwind component

A

10 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude

A

25,000 ft pressure altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Maximum Crosswind component >23m RWY width

A

35 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Maximum Crosswind component =23m RWY width

A

25 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Maximum Crosswind component <23m RWY width

A

17 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS) x 2 memory items

A
  1. Deviations from the ATC assigned altitude are authorised only to the extent necessary to comply with an ACAS Resolution Advisory (RA)
  2. Manoeuvres must not be based solely on information presented on the Traffic Advisory (TA) display
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

FLIGHT DIRECTOR USE DURING T/O or G/A

A

Use if the flight director information in go-around mode during take-off is not authorised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

AUTOPILOT Minimum Use Heights

- during the cruise

A

500 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

AUTOPILOT Minimum Use Heights

- during T/O or G/A

A

200 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

AUTOPILOT Minimum Use Heights

- for non-coupled approach

A

100 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

AUTOPILOT Minimum Use Heights

- for coupled approach

A

50 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Autopilot in icing conditions

A

In icing conditions, FLIGHT DIRECTOR / AUTOPILOT IAS MODE IS THE ONLY VERTICAL MODE TO BE USED DURING CLIMB WHEN ICE ACCUMULATION IS OBSERVED OR IF IT IS NOT CERTAIN THERE IS NO ICE ACCUMULATION ON THE AIRCRAFT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Yaw Damper is not authorised for..

A
  • Take-off
  • Go-around
  • Landing
32
Q

What RA must flap be set by during a normal landing?

A

300 ft RA

Note: company requires that the final flap setting is called for at no less than 500 ft RA

33
Q

When holding in icing conditions, what flap must be used?

A

Zero

34
Q

PLACARD & INSTRUMENT MARKINGS - Operating limits?

A

RED

35
Q

PLACARD & INSTRUMENT MARKINGS - Caution, Temporary or Idle range

A

Yellow

36
Q

PLACARD & INSTRUMENT MARKINGS - Normal operating range

A

Green

37
Q

CARGO FIRE PROTECTION

A

60 min for aircraft with two bottles fitted, 35 min for other aircraft that do not have MOD 1149 fitted

38
Q

ATTITUDE/HEADING REFERENCE SYSTEM, during initialisation the aircraft must not be..

A

moved

39
Q

ATTITUDE/HEADING REFERENCE SYSTEM, take off is not permitted until…

A

Two minutes after initialisation is completed & the attitude difference between the attitude displayed on both EADIs & the standby attitude indicator is 3 degrees or less (bank & pitch) and the heading on the compass card is not slewing away from the aircraft heading.

40
Q

Max cabin differential pressure in flight

A

7.5

41
Q

Max cabin differential pressure on landing

A

0.3

42
Q

Normal CABIN PRESS warning

A

7.5

43
Q

Cabin altitude CABIN PRESS warning comes on at what height?

A

10,000 ft

44
Q

DC GENERATORS - Voltage - MIN/NORM/MAX?

A

27.5 / 28 / 29 V DC

45
Q

DC GENERATORS - Nominal load per generator

A

400 A

46
Q

DC GENERATORS - Maximum load for 5 minutes

A

600 A

47
Q

NORM Main batteries voltage

A

24 V DC

48
Q

External power voltage for the GPU - MIN/MAX

A

26 & 29 V DC

49
Q

External power voltage - Battery Cart - MIN/MAX

A

Min: Higher than the aircraft batteries for engine start

Max: 29 V DC

50
Q

External power - MAX Amperage requirement for normal operation

A

600 A

51
Q

External power - MIN/MAX Amperage requirement for engine start

A

1400 & 1600 A

52
Q

Minimum fuel take-off, each tank

A

300lbs or 135kg

53
Q

Maximum unbalance between tanks

A

400lb or 180kg

54
Q

FUEL LOW LEVEL light comes on normally at

A

300lb or 135kg

55
Q

XFEED and CONN VALVE switches shall be in the OFF and CLOSED position during

A

Take off & landing in normal operation

56
Q

Windshield heating - Time in NORM before switching to HIGH

A

Min 7 minutes

57
Q

Pitot tubes - time from switching STBY PITOT ON until full ice protection is obtained

A

Minimum 5 minutes

58
Q

Windshield wipers airspeed limitation in LOW position

A

130 knots

59
Q

Windshield wipers airspeed limitation in HIGH position

A

160 knots

60
Q

Altimeter operational tolerances

A

When two altimeters are required for the type of operation, one of the altimeters must read the nominated elevation to within 60 ft. When the remaining altimeter has an error between 60 ft & 75 ft, flight under the IFR to the first point of landing, where the accuracy of the altimeter can be rechecked, is approved. In the event that the altimeter shows an error in excess of 60 ft on the second check the altimeter must be considered unserviceable

61
Q

Maximum difference between two ASI is

A

8 KIAS

62
Q

Maximum Gear Extension speed

A

200 knots

63
Q

Maximum Gear Retraction speed

A

150 knots

64
Q

Number of brake applications on fully charged brake accumulators

A

11

65
Q

Max speed for use of brakes with the anti-skid system off or inoperative

A

40 knots

66
Q

Take off power + APR or go-around power (Max 5 min) - TRQ / ITT / PROP

A

TRQ - 107%
ITT - 940°
PROP - 1396 rpm

67
Q

Take off power + APR or go-around power (Max 2 min) - TRQ / ITT

A

TRQ - 107%

ITT - 950°

68
Q

Take-off Power (Max 5 min) - TRQ / ITT / PROP

A

TRQ - 100%
ITT - 917°
PROP - 1396 rpm

69
Q

Take-off Power (Max 2 min) - TRQ / ITT

A

TRQ - 100%

ITT - 927°

70
Q

Max. Continuous (OEI) - TRQ / ITT / PROP

A

TRQ - 100%
ITT - 944°
PROP - 1396 rpm

71
Q

Transient except take-off (Max 12 sec) - TRQ / ITT / PROP

A

TRQ - 112%
ITT - 965°
PROP - 1572 rpm

72
Q

Max engine start ITT

A

965°

73
Q

It is prohibited to move the power lever(s) below FLIGHT IDLE when airborne. If the power lever is moved below flight idle when airborne, the propellor will go into low pitch angle, the propellor speed will increase uncontrolled with extremely high drag, possible uncontrolled flight, engine shut down & loss of engine power

A

.

74
Q

Starter duty cycle

A

Two start attempts with three minutes cooling between, then 25 minutes cooling before subsequent starts

75
Q

Motoring

A

Three 30-second ventilations with 3 minutes cooling between each, then a one hour cooling period before subsequent starts or motoring

76
Q

Starter - time to light off (initial NG rotation to ITT rise)

A

20 seconds maximum (direct start only)

77
Q

Maximum time with starter engaged

A

70 seconds of which, max 30 seconds plain motoring