Limitations - All Flashcards

1
Q

Runway slope

A

+/- 2%

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2
Q

Maximum Takeoff and Landing Tailwind Component

A

15 knots

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3
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude

A

43,100 ft pressure altitude

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4
Q

Maximum Takeoff and Landing Altitude

A

14,000 ft pressure altitude

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5
Q

Turbulent Air Penetration Speed

A

Turbulent air penetration speed (in severe turbulence) is defined as:

290 KIAS below 25,000 feet

310 KIAS/.84 Mach (whichever is lower) at and above 25,000 feet.

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6
Q

The maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff is

A

35 knots

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7
Q

The maximum demonstrated crosswind for landing is

A

33 knots.

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8
Q

Do not operate HF radios when

A

refueling

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9
Q

Operational Limitations

Non-AFM Operational Information

A

Do not operate the weather radar in a hangar or when personnel are within the area normally enclosed by the aircraft nose radome. Do not operate the weather radar within 50 feet of fueling operations or fuel spills.

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10
Q

RVSM Operations

A

Do not fly in RVSM airspace on ISFD alone. The standby altimeter does not meet RVSM altimeter accuracy requirements.

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11
Q

Maximum Taxi Weight

787-8

787-9

A

503,500 Pounds

547,000 Pounds

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12
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight

787-8

787-9

A

502,500 Pounds

545,000 Pounds

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13
Q

Maximum Landing Weight

787-8

787-9

A

380,000 Pounds

425,000 Pounds

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14
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

787-8

787-9

A

355,000 Pounds

400,000 Pounds

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15
Q

Autopilot/Flight Director System

The autopilot must not be engaged below a minimum engage altitude of

A

200 feet AGL after takeoff.

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16
Q

Autopilot/Flight Director System

Autoland capability may only be used for operations into runways at or below _____.

A

8400 feet airport field elevation.

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17
Q

Autopilot/Flight Director System

Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengaged below

A

100 feet AGL.

18
Q

Autopilot/Flight Director System

With LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated and glidepath angles greater than ____ degrees, the autopilot must be disengaged ____________AGL.

A

3.25

below 100 feet

19
Q

Autopilot/Flight Director System

If the glidepath angle for approach is greater than ________, the autopilot must be disengaged no later than _____________DH/MDA.

A

3.77 degrees

50 feet below

20
Q

Low Visibility (HUD) Takeoff

Low weather minima takeoff may only be performed using ILS guidance on

A

U.S. CAT II or CAT III ILS facilities.

21
Q

Low Visibility (HUD) Takeoff

Maximum wind component speeds when takeoff weather minima are predicated on HUD takeoff operations:

Headwind

A

25 knots

22
Q

Low Visibility (HUD) Takeoff

Maximum wind component speeds when takeoff weather minima are predicated on HUD takeoff operations:

Tailwind

A

15 knots

23
Q

Low Visibility (HUD) Takeoff

Maximum wind component speeds when takeoff weather minima are predicated on HUD takeoff operations:

Crosswind

A

15 knots

24
Q

Automatic Landing

Maximum wind component speeds when performing autoland operations (may be limited by visibility or runway condition):

Headwind

A

25 knots

25
Q

Automatic Landing

Maximum wind component speeds when performing autoland operations (may be limited by visibility or runway condition):

Tailwind

A

15 knots

26
Q

Automatic Landing

Maximum wind component speeds when performing autoland operations (may be limited by visibility or runway condition):

Crosswind

A

25 knots

27
Q

Automatic Landing

The maximum glide slope angle is________. The minimum glide slope angle is 2.5 degrees

A

3.25 degrees

28
Q

Automatic Landing

The minimum glide slope angle is __________.

A

2.5 degrees

29
Q

Automatic Landing

Autoland capability may be used with flaps ____, ____, _____, with both engines ________ or with one engine________.

A

20, 25, or 30

operative

inoperative

30
Q

Automatic Landing

The autopilot flight director system (AFDS) autoland status annunciation must have _______ or _________ displayed.

A

LAND 2 or LAND 3

31
Q

Communications

Flight Deck Communications Systems (Datalink)

Datalink messages sent from the COMPANY format or received with a .COMM or .PRINTER on EICAS are limited to messages which will not create an unsafe condition if:

  • the message or parts of the message are delayed or not received, or
  • the message is delivered to the wrong recipient, or
  • the message content may be frequently corrupted However, datalink messages can be transmitted and received via the COMPANY format if they are verified per approved operational procedures.
A

Datalink messages sent from the COMPANY format or received with a .COMM or .PRINTER on EICAS are limited to messages which will not create an unsafe condition if:

  • the message or parts of the message are delayed or not received, or
  • the message is delivered to the wrong recipient, or
  • the message content may be frequently corrupted However, datalink messages can be transmitted and received via the COMPANY format if they are verified per approved operational procedures.
32
Q

Communications

Audio Control Panel (ACP)

Use of the Captains or First Officers ACP to establish a SATCOM/cabin conference is prohibited. Use the center ____.

A

ACP

33
Q

Communications

Boom Mics Non-AFM:

Boom Mics must be used when below

A

18,000 feet

34
Q

Engines

Engine Oil System

Oil temperature must be greater than ______ for engine start.

A

-40° C

35
Q

Engines

Reverse Thrust

Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is _________.

Backing the airplane with use of reverse thrust is _________.

A

prohibited

prohibited

36
Q

Engines

Tailwind and Crosswind

Ground wind operating envelope:

  • for crosswinds greater than _____knots, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi (____ N1).
  • with a tailwind component greater than ___ knots and winds greater than ___ knots, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi (____% N1).
  • for winds greater than ___ knots, limit engine thrust to ______.
A

Crosswind: 35 kts / 45% N1

Tailwind: 5 kts / 45% N1

greater than 55 kts / idle

37
Q

Flight Controls

Avoid rapid and large ________ _________ inputs, especially in combination with large changes in ______, ______ or ______ (e.g. large side slip angles) as they may result in structural failure at any speed, including below VA.

A

alternating control

pitch, roll, or yaw

38
Q

Flight Controls

Do not extend flaps above ________ feet.

A

20,000 feet

39
Q

Fuel

Fuel Temperature Maximum tank fuel temperature at takeoff is 49° C (120° F) for Jet A, Jet A-1, JP-5, JP-8 or TS-1.

Inflight fuel temperature is limited to 65° C (150° F) for Jet A, Jet A-1, JP-5 or JP-8.

Inflight fuel temperature for TS-1 is limited to 57° C (135° F) at or above 35,000 feet and 65° C (150° F) below 35,000 feet.

Tank fuel temperature prior to takeoff must not be less than -29° C (-20° F).

In-flight tank fuel temperature must be maintained at least 3° C above the freezing pointofthefuelbeingused. TheuseofFuelSystemIcingInhibitoradditivesdoes not change the minimum fuel tank temperature limit. (Refer to Performance Initialization Page in Chapter 11, Section 40, for additional information.)

A
40
Q

Fuel

Fuel Loading

Main tanks must be scheduled to be ____ if center tank fuel is loaded.

Note: Thecenter tank may contain up to 22000 pounds of fuel with less than full main tanks provided center tank fuel weight plus actual zero fuel weight does not exceed the maximum zero fuel weight, and center of gravity limits are observed.

A

full

41
Q

Warning Systems

GPWS - Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting

Do not use the terrain display for navigation.

The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions are prohibited within 15 NM of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain database.

A
42
Q

Warning Systems

TCAS

Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with a TCAS resolution advisory. Evasive maneuvers must not be based solely on information from the traffic display or traffic advisory (TA) without visually sighting the traffic.

A