Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Maximum Design Ramp Weight:

A

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Maximum Design Ramp Weight:

14,070 Pounds

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2
Q

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Maximum Design Landing Weight:

A

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Maximum Design Landing Weight:

12,750 Pounds

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3
Q

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Maximum Design Zero Fuel Weight:

A

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Maximum Design Zero Fuel Weight:

10,510 Pounds

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4
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS
Takeoff thrust settings that are nominally limited to __
minutes duration may be used for up to ___ minutes for One Engine Inoperative operations.
The engine should not be operated above 80% N2 until oil
temperature is above ________.
.

A

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS
Takeoff thrust settings that are nominally limited to 5
minutes duration may be used for up to 10 minutes for One Engine Inoperative operations.
The engine should not be operated above 80% N2 until oil
temperature is above 10°C (+50°F).

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5
Q

ENGINE START LIMITATIONS (GROUND)
Aircraft Configuration AH

ENG CTRL SYS FAULT L/R Annunciators: ___________
Maximum Tailwind Component: _____ Knots
Maximum Crosswind Component: _____ Knots
Maximum Time to Light-off: ____ Seconds
Minimum Engine Oil Temperature (indicated on EIS): _____

A

ENGINE START LIMITATIONS (GROUND)
Aircraft Configuration AH

ENG CTRL SYS FAULT L/R Annunciators: Extinguished
Maximum Tailwind Component: 10 Knots
Maximum Crosswind Component: 10 Knots
Maximum Time to Light-off: 10 Seconds
Minimum Engine Oil Temperature (indicated on EIS): -40°C

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6
Q

ENGINE START LIMITATIONS (GROUND)
Aircraft Configuration AH

Maximum Airport Elevation For Ground Battery Start: _________

Maximum Airport Elevation For External Power Start: _________

Minimum Battery Voltage For Battery Start: _________

Minimum/Maximum External Power Current Capacity For Start: _________

A

ENGINE START LIMITATIONS (GROUND)
Aircraft Configuration AH

Maximum Airport Elevation For Battery Start: 14,000 Feet

Maximum Airport Elevation For External Power Start: 14,000 Feet

Minimum Battery Voltage For Battery Start: 24 VDC

Minimum/Maximum External Power Current Capacity For Start: 800/1100 AMPS

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7
Q

ENGINE START LIMITATIONS (GROUND)
If engine oil temperature is below ______, the engine must be preheated prior to conducting a start. If the battery has been cold soaked for 2 hours or longer at ambient surface temperature of _____ or lower, it must be preheated to above -18°C (0°F) prior to start. The Engine Indicating System (EIS) may take ____ minutes to become usable after power is applied when cold soaked below -10°C (+14°F).

A

ENGINE START LIMITATIONS (GROUND)
If engine oil temperature is below -40°C (-40°F), the engine must be preheated prior to conducting a start. If the battery has been cold soaked for 2 hours or longer at ambient surface temperature of -18°C (0°F) or lower, it must be preheated to above -18°C (0°F) prior to start. The Engine Indicating System (EIS) may take 1 to 6 minutes to become usable after power is applied when cold soaked below -10°C (+14°F).

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8
Q

STARTER CYCLE LIMITATIONS

Three engine starts per ___ minutes. Three cycles of
operation with a ___-second rest period between cycles is
permitted.

A

STARTER CYCLE LIMITATIONS

Three engine starts per 30 minutes. Three cycles of
operation with a 60-second rest period between cycles is
permitted.

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9
Q

BATTERY LIMITATIONS

The battery temperature warning system must be
operational for all ______ and ______ operations.
Battery Cycle Limitations: _____ engine starts per hour.
Three generator assisted cross starts are equal to ___
battery start. If an external power unit is used for start, __ battery cycle is counted.

A

BATTERY LIMITATIONS

The battery temperature warning system must be
operational for all ground and flight operations.
Battery Cycle Limitations: Three engine starts per hour.
Three generator assisted cross starts are equal to one
battery start. If an external power unit is used for start, no battery cycle is counted.

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10
Q

GROUND OPERATION LIMITATIONS

Maximum Generator Current (per generator): ______
Limit ground operation of pitot/static heat to ____ minutes to preclude damage to the pitot tubes and angle of attack vane. Ground operation at greater than 75% N2 engine RPM with engine, wing, and/or windshield anti-ice on is limited to ____ minutes. Do not operate with the wing anti-ice on more than ____ minute after the WING ANTI-ICE L/R annunciators have extinguished.

A

GROUND OPERATION LIMITATIONS
Maximum Generator Current (per generator): 200 Amperes
Limit ground operation of pitot/static heat to two minutes to two preclude damage to the pitot tubes and angle of attack vane. Ground operation at greater than 75% N2 engine RPM with engine, wing, and/or windshield anti-ice on is limited to two minutes. Do not operate with the wing anti-ice on more than one minute after the WING ANTI-ICE L/R annunciators have extinguished.

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11
Q

GROUND OPERATION LIMITATIONS
Ambient surface temperature must be obtained from the ____ display at the bottom of each ____, with either or both engines operating, or from an appropriate ground station. The SAT display is unreliable on the ground.

A

GROUND OPERATION LIMITATIONS
Ambient surface temperature must be obtained from the RAT display at the bottom of each PFD, with either or both engines operating, or from an appropriate ground station. The SAT display is unreliable on the ground.

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12
Q

FUEL LIMITATIONS
Fuel Boost Pumps - ON; when FUEL LOW LEVEL L and/or R caution lights illuminate or at ____ pounds or less indicated fuel. Maximum approved fuel imbalance is ___ lbs. A fuel imbalance of 600 lbs. has been demonstrated for emergency return. EGME/DIEGME additive is _________ for use, but not required, at a concentration not to exceed 0.15 percent volume.

A

FUEL LIMITATIONS
Fuel Boost Pumps - ON; when FUEL LOW LEVEL L and/or R caution lights illuminate or at 210 pounds or less indicated fuel. Maximum approved fuel imbalance is 200 lbs. A fuel imbalance of 600 lbs. has been demonstrated for emergency return. EGME/DIEGME additive is approved for use, but not required, at a concentration not to exceed 0.15 percent volume.

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13
Q

UNUSABLE FUEL LIMITATIONS
Fuel remaining in the fuel tanks when the fuel quantity indicator reads zero is ___ _______in flight.

A

UNUSABLE FUEL LIMITATIONS
Fuel remaining in the fuel tanks when the fuel quantity indicator reads zero is not usable in flight.

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14
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds
MMO (Above 29,300 Feet)

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds
MMO (Above 29,300 Feet)

.737 Mach (Indicated)

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15
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

VMO (Between 8000 and 29,300 Feet)

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

VMO (Between 8000 and 29,300 Feet)

278 KIAS

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16
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

VMO (Below 8000 Feet)

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

VMO (Below 8000 Feet)

260 KIAS

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17
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

Maximum Flap Extended Speed - VFE

TAKEOFF AND APPROACH Position (15°)

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

Maximum Flap Extended Speed - VFE

TAKEOFF AND APPROACH Position (15°)

200 KIAS

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18
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

Maximum Flap Extended Speed - VFE

LAND Position (35°)

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

Maximum Flap Extended Speed - VFE

LAND Position (35°)

161 KIAS

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19
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

Maximum Flap Extended Speed - VFE

Maximum Speed With Flaps Failed to Ground Flaps (55°)

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

Maximum Flap Extended Speed - VFE

Maximum Speed With Flaps Failed to Ground Flaps (55°)

140 KIAS

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20
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Landing Gear
Extended Speed - VLE

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Landing Gear
Extended Speed - VLE

200 KIAS

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21
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Landing Gear
Operating Speed - VLO (Retracting)

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Landing Gear
Operating Speed - VLO (Retracting)

200 KIAS

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22
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Landing Gear
Operating Speed - VLO (Retracting)

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Landing Gear
Operating Speed - VLO (Retracting)

200 KIAS

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23
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Speed Brake Operation Speed - VSB

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Speed Brake Operation Speed - VSB

NO LIMIT

24
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS

Maximum Autopilot Operation Speed

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS

Maximum Autopilot Operation Speed

278 KIAS or 0.737 Mach

25
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS

Minimum Speed for Sustained Flight in Icing Conditions
(except takeoff approach and landing)

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS

Minimum Speed for Sustained Flight in Icing Conditions
(except takeoff approach and landing)

180 KIAS

26
Q

GROUND FLAPS LIMITATIONS
Intentional selection of Ground Flaps in flight is _________.
The ground flaps position is not locked out in flight.
Selection of ground flaps will significantly increase ____ and ____ rate.

A

GROUND FLAPS LIMITATIONS
Intentional selection of Ground Flaps in flight is prohibited.
The ground flaps position is not locked out in flight.
Selection of ground flaps will significantly increase drag and sink rate.

27
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Aircraft Configuration AH
Maximum Altitude Limit

A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Aircraft Configuration AH
Maximum Altitude Limit

14,000 Feet

28
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum Tailwind Component

A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum Tailwind Component

10 KIAS

29
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Minimum Ambient Temperature

A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Minimum Ambient Temperature

-54°C (-65°F)

30
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Cabin temperature must be held at or above 0°C (+32°F) for a minimum of ___ minutes prior to takeoff after a prolonged ground cold soak period (two hours or longer) at ambient temperatures of -10°C (+14°F) or colder (refer to Normal Procedures, COLD WEATHER OPERATIONS).

A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Cabin temperature must be held at or above 0°C (+32°F) for a minimum of 20 minutes prior to takeoff after a prolonged ground cold soak period (two hours or longer) at ambient temperatures of -10°C (+14°F) or colder (refer to Normal Procedures, COLD WEATHER OPERATIONS).

31
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Speed brakes must be retracted prior to ___ feet AGL before landing. Extending Ground Flaps during touch and go landings is _________. The GROUND IDLE switch must be in the _____ position when conducting touch and go landings. For normal takeoff operations, the GROUND IDLE switch must be in the ________ position.

A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Speed brakes must be retracted prior to 50 feet AGL before landing. Extending Ground Flaps during touch and go landings is prohibited. The GROUND IDLE switch must be in the HIGH position when conducting touch and go landings. For normal takeoff operations, the GROUND IDLE switch must be in the NORMAL position.

32
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum Tire Ground Speed:

Takeoff is limited to the _____ ____ configuration when Type II, III, or IV anti-ice fluid has been applied to the airplane.

A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum Tire Ground Speed:

165 Knots

Takeoff is limited to the flaps up configuration when Type II, III, or IV anti-ice fluid has been applied to the airplane.

33
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Takeoff may not be initiated with a warning annunciator displayed. Takeoff may not be initiated with a caution annunciator displayed unless the associated system or component has been _________ per an approved Minimum Equipment List (MEL). When dispatching in this manner, if the procedure associated with the caution annunciator includes “Land as soon as practical” as a step, the step may be _______.

A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Takeoff may not be initiated with a warning annunciator displayed. Takeoff may not be initiated with a caution annunciator displayed unless the associated system or component has been deferred per an approved Minimum Equipment List (MEL). When dispatching in this manner, if the procedure associated with the caution annunciator includes “Land as soon as practical” as a step, the step may be ignored.

34
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

  1. With ice, snow, or slush adhering to the following critical areas:
    a. ____ ______ ____ and Upper Wing Surface, b. Flight Control Surfaces including all hinge gaps, c. Horizontal Stabilizer, d. Vertical Stabilizer, e. Engine Inlets, f. Top of Engine Pylons, g. Top of Fuselage, h. Windshield, i. All Pitot Probes and Static Ports, j. Angle of Attack Vanes
A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

  1. With ice, snow, or slush adhering to the following critical areas:
    a. Wing Leading Edge and Upper Wing Surface, b. Flight Control Surfaces including all hinge gaps, c. Horizontal Stabilizer, d. Vertical Stabilizer, e. Engine Inlets, f. Top of Engine Pylons, g. Top of Fuselage, h. Windshield, i. All Pitot Probes and Static Ports, j. Angle of Attack Vanes
35
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

  1. A visual and ______ (____ __ ______) check of the wing leading edge and wing upper surface must be performed to ensure the wing is free from frost, ice, snow, or slush when the outside air temperature is less than __________ or if it cannot be determined that the wing fuel temperature is above 0°C (32°F) and any of the following conditions exist:
A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

  1. A visual and tactile (hand on surface) check of the wing leading edge and wing upper surface must be performed to ensure the wing is free from frost, ice, snow, or slush when the outside air temperature is less than 10°C (50°F) or if it cannot be determined that the wing fuel temperature is above 0°C (32°F) and any of the following conditions exist:
36
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

a. There is visible moisture present (rain, drizzle, sleet, snow, fog, etc.); or
b. Water is present on the upper wing surface; or
c. The difference between the dew point and the outside air temperature is ________ or less; or
d. The atmospheric conditions have been conducive to frost formation.

A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

a. There is visible moisture present (rain, drizzle, sleet, snow, fog, etc.); or
b. Water is present on the upper wing surface; or
c. The difference between the dew point and the outside air temperature is 3°C (5°F) or less; or
d. The atmospheric conditions have been conducive to frost formation.

37
Q

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS
Maximum Operating Altitude

A

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS
Maximum Operating Altitude

45,000 Feet

38
Q

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS
Maximum Generator Current (per generator)

Up to 41,000 Feet: ___ Amperes

Above 41,000 Feet: ___ Amperes

A

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS
Maximum Generator Current (per generator)

Up to 41,000 Feet: 300 Amperes

Above 41,000 Feet: 250 Amperes

39
Q

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS
Maximum altitude for extension of flaps and/or
landing gear:

A

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS
Maximum altitude for extension of flaps and/or
landing gear:

18,000 feet

40
Q

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS
Maximum operating altitude with inoperative
Yaw Damper:

A

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS
Maximum operating altitude with inoperative
Yaw Damper:

30,000 feet

41
Q

CABIN PRESSURIZATION LIMITATIONS
Normal Cabin Pressurization
Limitations:

A

CABIN PRESSURIZATION LIMITATIONS
Normal Cabin Pressurization
Limitations:

0.0 to 8.9 PSI ± 0.1 PSI Differential

42
Q

ICING LIMITATIONS
Icing conditions may exist when the indicated RAT in flight is ___________ or below, and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals). Icing conditions on the ground exist when the OAT or indicated RAT is _________ or below and, where surface snow, slush, ice or standing water may be ingested by the engines or freeze on engine nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

A

ICING LIMITATIONS
Icing conditions may exist when the indicated RAT in flight is +10°C (+50°F) or below, and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals). Icing conditions on the ground exist when the OAT or indicated RAT is +10°C (+50°F) or below and, where surface snow, slush, ice or standing water may be ingested by the engines or freeze on engine nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

43
Q

ICING LIMITATIONS

In icing conditions, operating the airplane at other than
flaps __ for an extended period of time (except approach and
landing) is prohibited.

A

ICING LIMITATIONS

In icing conditions, operating the airplane at other than
flaps 0 for an extended period of time (except approach and
landing) is prohibited.

44
Q

ICING LIMITATIONS

Minimum engine N2 speed for effective wing anti-icing:

A

ICING LIMITATIONS

Minimum engine N2 speed for effective wing anti-icing:

75% N2

45
Q

ICING LIMITATIONS

Minimum temperature for operation of tail deicing
boots (Indicated RAT):

A

ICING LIMITATIONS

Minimum temperature for operation of tail deicing
boots (Indicated RAT):

-35°C (-31°F)

46
Q

ICING LIMITATIONS

The WING/ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches must be ___ __
or _______ for operations with indicated RAT of +10°C
(+50°F) or below when flight free of visible moisture cannot
be assured. Failure to observe this limitation may result
in ENG CTRL SYS FAULT L/R annunciations due to ice
accumulation on the engine _______ probe.

A

ICING LIMITATIONS

The WING/ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches must be ENG ON
or WING/ENG for operations with indicated RAT of +10°C
(+50°F) or below when flight free of visible moisture cannot
be assured. Failure to observe this limitation may result
in ENG CTRL SYS FAULT L/R annunciations due to ice
accumulation on the engine PT2/TT2 probe.

47
Q

ICING LIMITATIONS

Engine anti-ice must be ON during ground operations in icing conditions, except selection of anti-ice on is prohibited for 1 minute after ground engine start (to ensure accurate RAT for takeoff). If engine anti-ice was inadvertently turned ON prior to 1 minute of engine operation, the anti-ice must be turned off for __ minutes before turning it back on. If minor engine vibrations are felt or heard during ground operations, the crew must momentarily increase engine speed (typically _______% N1) to assist with shedding the accumulated ice from the spinner, fan, and stators.

A

ICING LIMITATIONS

Engine anti-ice must be ON during ground operations in icing conditions, except selection of anti-ice on is prohibited for 1 minute after ground engine start (to ensure accurate RAT for takeoff). If engine anti-ice was inadvertently turned ON prior to 1 minute of engine operation, the anti-ice must be turned off for 2 minutes before turning it back on. If minor engine vibrations are felt or heard during ground operations, the crew must momentarily increase engine speed (typically 20-30% N1) to assist with shedding the accumulated ice from the spinner, fan, and stators.

48
Q

OPERATIONS IN SEVERE ICING CONDITIONS

All wing icing inspection lights must be operative prior to flight into known or forecast icing conditions at night. Severe icing conditions that exceed those for which the airplane is certificated shall be determined by the following visual cues:

  1. Unusually extensive ice accumulation on the airframe and _______ in areas not normally observed to collect ice.
  2. Accumulation of ice on the upper surface of the wing that extends more than __ __ __ inches aft of the heated leading edge.
A

OPERATIONS IN SEVERE ICING CONDITIONS

All wing icing inspection lights must be operative prior to flight into known or forecast icing conditions at night. Severe icing conditions that exceed those for which the airplane is certificated shall be determined by the following visual cues:

  1. Unusually extensive ice accumulation on the airframe and windshield in areas not normally observed to collect ice.
  2. Accumulation of ice on the upper surface of the wing that extends more than 12 to 18 inches aft of the heated leading edge.
49
Q

OPERATIONS IN SEVERE ICING CONDITIONS

If one or more of these visual cues exist (from previous card):

  1. Use of the autopilot is __________.
  2. Immediately request _______ handling from Air Traffic Control to facilitate a route or altitude change to exit the icing conditions.
  3. Leave flaps in current position, do not extend or retract.
  4. Avoid abrupt and excessive maneuvering that may exacerbate control difficulties.
  5. If unusual or uncommanded roll control movement is observed, reduce _______________.
A

OPERATIONS IN SEVERE ICING CONDITIONS

If one or more of these visual cues exist (from previous card):

  1. Use of the autopilot is prohibited.
  2. Immediately request priority handling from Air Traffic Control to facilitate a route or altitude change to exit the icing conditions.
  3. Leave flaps in current position, do not extend or retract.
  4. Avoid abrupt and excessive maneuvering that may exacerbate control difficulties.
  5. If unusual or uncommanded roll control movement is observed, reduce angle-of-attack.
50
Q

OPERATIONS IN SEVERE ICING CONDITIONS

Since the autopilot, when installed and operating, may mask tactile cues that indicate adverse changes in handling characteristics, use of the autopilot is prohibited when:

  1. Unusual _________ trim is required while the airplane is in icing conditions.
  2. Autopilot ____ ________ are encountered while the airplane is in icing conditions.
A

OPERATIONS IN SEVERE ICING CONDITIONS

Since the autopilot, when installed and operating, may mask tactile cues that indicate adverse changes in handling characteristics, use of the autopilot is prohibited when:

  1. Unusual lateral trim is required while the airplane is in icing conditions.
  2. Autopilot trim warnings are encountered while the airplane is in icing conditions.
51
Q

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000

  1. One pilot must remain seated with seat belt fastened during all ________ operations.
  2. Operating in the ________ mode is limited to training and display failure conditions.
  3. The pilot’s PFD, copilot’s PFD and MFD must be installed and operational in the normal mode for ______.
A

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000

  1. One pilot must remain seated with seat belt fastened during all autopilot operations.
  2. Operating in the composite mode is limited to training and display failure conditions.
  3. The pilot’s PFD, copilot’s PFD and MFD must be installed and operational in the normal mode for takeoff.
52
Q

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000

  1. The FCS-3000 system must be verified to be operational by a satisfactory ________ _______ _____ (no messages on power up) prior to each flight in which the autopilot is to be used.
  2. The autopilot minimum engage height, during climb following takeoff or go-around, is _____ feet AGL.
A

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000

  1. The FCS-3000 system must be verified to be operational by a satisfactory automatic preflight test (no messages on power up) prior to each flight in which the autopilot is to be used.
  2. The autopilot minimum engage height, during climb following takeoff or go-around, is 350 feet AGL.
53
Q

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000

The autopilot minimum use height is:

a. ILS Approach (CAT I) ____ Feet AGL
b. Non-precision Approaches ____ Feet AGL
c. Cruise 1000 Feet AGL
7. Category ___ approaches are not approved.

A

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000

The autopilot minimum use height is:

a. ILS Approach (CAT I) 180 Feet AGL
b. Non-precision Approaches 350 Feet AGL
c. Cruise 1000 Feet AGL
7. Category II approaches are not approved.

54
Q

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000

  1. VOR approaches must not be conducted in the NAV mode of the flight director. Use the _____ mode, or manually track the approachcourse using the HDG mode. This limitation applies to both flight director only and autopilot coupled operation.
  2. Autopilot coupled operation is prohibited during any portion of a VOR approach in which the VOR is located behind the airplane by more than ___ miles, unless the HDG mode of the flight director is being used to manually track the approach course.
A

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000

  1. VOR approaches must not be conducted in the NAV mode of the flight director. Use the APPR mode, or manually track the approachcourse using the HDG mode. This limitation applies to both flight director only and autopilot coupled operation.
  2. Autopilot coupled operation is prohibited during any portion of a VOR approach in which the VOR is located behind the airplane by more than 15 miles, unless the HDG mode of the flight director is being used to manually track the approach course.
55
Q

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000

  1. It is _________ to display the non-coupled side Flight Director unless the coupled side Flight Director is being displayed. Failure to adhere to this limitation will result in incorrect Flight Director guidance. Use of the coupled side Flight Director by itself will operate correctly.
A

ROCKWELL COLLINS FCS-3000

  1. It is prohibited to display the non-coupled side Flight Director unless the coupled side Flight Director is being displayed. Failure to adhere to this limitation will result in incorrect Flight Director guidance. Use of the coupled side Flight Director by itself will operate correctly.