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UC-35 > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum Design Ramp Weight

A

17,030

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2
Q

Maximum Design Takeoff Weight

A

16,830 lbs

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3
Q

Maximum Design Landing Weight

A

15,200 lbs

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4
Q

Maximum Design Zero Fuel Weight

A

12,600 lbs

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5
Q

Takeoff Weight is limited by the most restrictive of what requirements?

A
  1. Max Certified Takeoff Weight - 16,830 lbs.
  2. Max takeoff Weight permitted by climb requirements.
  3. Landing distance.
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6
Q

Landing Weight is limited by the most restrictive of what requirements?

A
  1. Max certified landing Weight - 15,200 lbs.
  2. Max landing Weight permitted by climb requirements or brake energy.
  3. Landing distance.
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7
Q

Maximum Nose Baggage Compartment Weight?

A

310 lbs.

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8
Q

Maximum tail baggage compartment Weight?

A

Forward: 300
Aft: 200

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9
Q

What is normal oil pressure at N2 speeds above 60%?

A

45 to 140 psi

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10
Q

Oil pressure below what psi is undesirable, and should be tolerated only for the completion of the flight, preferably at a reduced power setting?

A

45 psi.

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11
Q

Oil pressure may be in what range for up to 400 seconds?

A

> 140 PSI, but <= 270 PSI

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12
Q

When may takeoff ratings, which are nominally limited to 5 minutes be used for up to 10 minutes without adverse effects on engine airworthiness?

A

One engine inoperative operations

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13
Q

Max Observed ITT - Takeoff

A

700 C

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14
Q

Max Observed ITT - Max Continuous

A

700 C

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15
Q

Max Observed ITT - Starting / Transient

A

740 C

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16
Q

Max N2% - Takeoff

A

100

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17
Q

Max N2% - Maximum Continuous

A

100

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18
Q

Max N2% - Ground Idle

A

49.1

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19
Q

Max N2% - Flight Idle

A

52.9

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20
Q

Max N2% - Transient

A

102

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21
Q

Max N1% - Takeoff

A

100

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22
Q

Max N1% - Maximum Continuous

A

100

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23
Q

Max N1% - Transient

A

102

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24
Q

Starter Limitations

A
  • 3 engine starts per 30 minutes

- 3 cycles of operation with a 90 second rest period between cycles is permitted

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25
Q

Battery Limitations

A

3 engine starts per hour

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26
Q

What conditions may damage the starter when using external power?

A
  • Voltage in excess of 28 VDC or

- Current in excess of 1000 amps

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27
Q

Minimum amps for start

A

800 amps

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28
Q

Pitot Static Ground Operation Limits

A

2 minutes ON with 2 minutes OFF between cycles to preclude system damage

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29
Q

Electrical Load Limit - Ground Operations

A
  • 125 amps per generator @ ground idle

- 225 amps per generator @ high idle

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30
Q

Electrical Load Limit - Transient

A

Up to 300 amps are permissible for 4 minutes

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31
Q

Single Point Refueling Pressure Range Limit

A

10 psi to 50 psi

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32
Q

Single Point Defueling Pressure Range Limit

A

-10 psi max

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33
Q

Maximum Asymmetrical Fuel Differential for Normal Operations

A

200 pounds

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34
Q

Flight characteristics requirements were not demonstrated with unbalance fuel above how many pounds?

A

200 pounds

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35
Q

How many pounds was a lateral fuel imbalance demonstrated for emergency return?

A

600 pounds

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36
Q

MMO (Above 28,907 feet)

A

.755 mach (indicated)

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37
Q

VMO (Between 8,000 and 28,907 feet)

A

292 KIAS

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38
Q

VMO (Below 8,000 feet)

A

262 KIAS

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39
Q

Maximum Flaps Extended Speed (VFE):

Full Flaps - LAND Position (35 degrees)

A

173

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40
Q

Maximum Flaps Extended Speed (VFE):
Partial Flaps - T.O. (7 degrees) and
T.O. & APPR Position (15 degrees)

A

200

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41
Q

Maximum Landing Gear Extended Speed (VLE)

A

250

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42
Q

Maximum Landing Gear Operating Speed (VLO)

Extending

A

250

43
Q

Maximum Landing Gear Operating Speed (VLO)

Retracting

A

200

44
Q

Maximum Speed Brake Operation Speed (VSB)

A

No Limit

45
Q

Maximum Airspeed for Autopilot Operation

A

292 KIAS or .755 MACH

46
Q

Minimum Speed Sustained Flight in Icing Conditions (Except Takeoff, Approach and Landing)

A

160 KIAS

47
Q

Takeoff and Landing Limitations:

Maximum Altitude

A

14,000 feet

48
Q

Takeoff and Landing Limitations:

Maximum Tailwind Component

A

10 knots

49
Q

Takeoff and Landing Limitations:

Minimum Ambient Temperature

A

-54 C

50
Q

Takeoff and Landing Limitations:

Maximum Water/Slush on Runway

A

0.5 inches

51
Q

Takeoff and Landing Limitations:

Maximum Tire Ground Speed

A

165 KIAS

52
Q

Takeoff and Landing Limitations:

At what setting must the autopilot and yaw damper be for takeoff and landing?

A

OFF

53
Q

Takeoff and Landing Limitations:

At what setting must the ENGINE SYNC knob be for takeoff and landing?

A

OFF

54
Q

Takeoff and Landing Limitations:

When must the Vertical Navigation System be turned off during takeoff and landing?

A

Below 500 ft. AGL

55
Q

Takeoff and Landing Limitations:

Takeoff with antiskid inoperative is….

A

Prohibited

56
Q

Takeoff and Landing Limitations:

What must be in contact with the ground prior to extending/deploying the thrust reversers?

A

The nose wheel

57
Q

Which critical areas (with frost adhered to) prohibit takeoff?

A
  • Wing leading edge
  • Upper wing surface
  • Windshield
58
Q

Which critical areas (with ice, snow, or slush adhered to) prohibit takeoff?

A
  • Wing leading edge and upper wing surface
  • Flight control surfaces including all hinge gaps
  • Horizontal stabilizer
  • Vertical stabilizer
  • Engine inlets
  • Top of engine pylons
  • Top of fuselage
  • Windshield
  • All static ports
  • Angle of Attack Vanes
  • Upper surface of nose forward of windshield
59
Q

A ____ and ____ check of the wing leading edge and wing upper surface must be performed to make sure the wing is free from ___________ when outside air temperature is less than _______ or if it cannot be determined that the wing fuel temperature is above ______ and any of the following exist: (4 items)

A

A visual and tactile check…
…free from frost, ice, snow, or slush…
…temperature is less than 10 C / 50 F…
…temperature is above 0 C / 32 F…
…the following exist:
a. There is visible moisture present (rain, drizzle, sleet, snow, fog, etc.,
b. Water is present on the upper wing surface,
c. The difference between the dew point and OAT is 3C (5F) or less, or
d. The atmospheric conditions have been conducive to frost formation.

60
Q

What should the anti-ice switches be selected to when operating in visible moisture, and the indicated RAT is +10C (50F) or below?

A

Wing / Engine - ON

61
Q

When should Tail de-ice be turned on?

A

When in visible moisture, and the indicated RAT is between +10C and -35C(-31F) / -40C(-40F) as applicable.

62
Q

How long is the ground operation of pitot-static heat limited to preclude damage to the pitot tubes and angle of attack vanes?

A

2 minutes

63
Q

Can anti-ice systems be used to deice surfaces prior to takeoff?

A

No. They must not be used for that purpose.

64
Q

Minimum airspeed for sustained flight in icing (except takeoff, approach, and landing)

A

160 KIAS

65
Q

In icing conditions, operating the airplane at other than flaps at 0 for an extended period of time (except takeoff, approach, and landing) is what?

A

Prohibited.

66
Q

Severe icing may result from environmental conditions outside of those for which the airplane is what?

A

For which the airplane is certified.

67
Q

Flight in _________ or _________ (super cooled liquid water and ice crystals) may result in ice build-up on ________ surfaces exceeding the capability of the _________ or may result in forming _____ of protected surfaces.

A

Flight in freezing rain, freezing drizzle, or mixed icing conditions…
…build-up on protected surfaces…
…capability of the ice protection system…
…forming aft of the protected surfaces.

68
Q

Runback ice extending approximately ______ aft of the heated __________ on the _______of the wing is _______ in some icing conditions, has been evaluated to ensure ________ performance and controllability, and is not an indication of _______.

A 
...approximately 12 to 18 inches aft...
...heated leading edge on the upper surface...
...is normal in some icing...
...to ensure satisfactory performance...
...not an indication of severe icing.
69
Q

During flight, severe icing conditions that exceed those for which the airplane is certified shall be determined by the following conditions:

  1. Unusually extensive ice accumulation on the _____ and _____ in areas not normally observed.
  2. Accumulation of ice on the upper surface of the wing aft of the _____ area extending more than ____ aft of the heated leading edge.
A
  1. …accumulation on the airframe and windshield…

2. …aft of the protected area…more than 12-18 inches aft…

70
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude

A

45,000 Feet.

71
Q

Maximum Generator Load (Above idle)

A

300 Amps in Flight

72
Q

Maximum Generator Load (Idle)

A

225 Amps in Flight

73
Q

Load Limits (In Flight) - Flaps UP Position (0)

A

-1.44 to +3.6G @ 16,630 lbs.

74
Q

Load Limits (In Flight) - Flaps T.O., T.O. & APPR, and Land Position (7 to 35 degrees).

A

0.00 to +2.0 @ 16,630 lbs.

75
Q

Load Limits (Landing) - Flaps LAND Position (35 degrees)

A

+3.46G @ 15,200 lbs.

76
Q

Load Factor. This acceleration limits the airplane to a maximum landing sink rate of ______.

A

600 FPM

77
Q

Normal Cabin Pressurization Limitations

A

0.0 to 9.0 PSID.

78
Q

Airplane must be ___________ before takeoff and landing.

A

depressurized

79
Q

The angle-of-attack system may be used as a reference system, but ______ replace the airspeed display in the PFD as a ___________.

A

…, but does not replace…

…the PFD as a primary instrument.

80
Q

The angle-of-attack system can be used as a reference for ______ (1.3 VS1) at all airplane weights and center-of-gravity locations at _________ flap positions. 1.3VS1 is indicated by approximately ____ on the AOA gage and by the ___________ on the pilots and copilot’s airspeed indicators.

A

…reference for approach speed (1.3 VS1)…
…locations at zero, T.O. Approach and landing flap…
…approximately 0.6 on the AOA gage…
…and by the top of the white tape on the pilots…

81
Q

The angle-of-attack and stall warning system must be _____________ must be performed.

A

…must be operable and a satisfactory preflight test must be performed.

82
Q

________ must remain in his seat with the seat belt fastened during all autopilot operations.

A

One pilot must…

83
Q

Autopilot operation is ___________ if any comparison monitor annunciator illuminates in flight.

A

…operation is prohibited if…

84
Q

Minimum Autopilot Use Height (En route)

A

1000 AGL

85
Q

Minimum Autopilot Use Height (Non-precision Approaches)

A

300 FT

86
Q

Minimum Autopilot Use Height (ILS Approach (CAT I))

A

180 FT

87
Q

Honeywell Primus-1000 Flight Guidance System:

EFIS ground operation with the pilot’s NOSE AVN FAN annunciator illuminated is limited to how long?

A

3 minutes.

88
Q

Honeywell Primus-1000 Flight Guidance System:

What mode must the pilot’s and copilot’s PFD’s be installed and operational in for takeoff?

A

Normal (Non-Reversionary)

89
Q

Honeywell Primus-1000 Flight Guidance System:
The P-1000 system must be verified to be _________ by a satisfactory preflight test as contained in the NORMAL procedures.

A

…operational…

90
Q

Honeywell Primus-1000 Flight Guidance System:

Dual PFD SG _____ to the MFD is ______.

A

…SG reversion to the MFD is prohibited.

91
Q

Crew and passenger oxygen masks are not approved for use above _______ feet cabin altitude.

A

40,000

92
Q

Prolonged operation of passenger masks above ______ feet cabin altitudes is not recommended.

A

25,000

93
Q

Passenger masks are ______ for use in an ________descent to an altitude not requiring _______.

A

…masks are intended for use…
…in an emergency descent…
…not requiring supplemental oxygen….

94
Q

The pressure demand crew oxygen mask must be ___________ in their containers to qualify as a quick-donning oxygen mask.

A

…must be properly stowed…

95
Q

Cabin temperatures must be held at or above ______ for a minimum of ______ minutes prior to flight above ________ after a prolonged ground cold soak period of _________ at ambient temperatures of _______ or colder. This temperature ensures ___________ and operation of the _________ oxygen masks.

A 
...at or above 0 degrees...
...for a minimum of 15 minutes...
...above FL250...
...period of 2 hours or longer...
...ambient temperatures of -10 C (+14F)...
...ensures proper deployment...
...of the passenger oxygen masks.
96
Q

Reverse thrust power must be reduced to the __________ detent position at ______ on landing roll.

A

…to the idle reverse detent…

…at 60 KIAS on landing roll…

97
Q

Maximum allowable thrust reverser deployed time is ____ minutes in any ____ minute period.

A

…time is 3 minutes in any 10 minute period.

98
Q

Use of thrust reversers is _______ during touch and go landings.

A

prohibited

99
Q

The thrust reversers must be checked ________ and the first flight after any _________ has been performed on the aircraft.

A

…checked on the 1st flight of the day…

…after any maintenance action has been…

100
Q

The use of thrust reversers to _________ is prohibited.

A

…to back the plane…

101
Q

Trim: The _______ system preflight must be accomplished in accordance with Section III, Normal Procedures prior _________.

A

The elevator trim system…

…prior to takeoff.

102
Q

The GND IDLE switch must be in _____ position when conducting ________.

A

…in High position…

…when conducting touch & go landings.

103
Q

Standby Flight Instruments:

A satisfactory ______ must be accomplished on the standby gyro system.

A

preflight

104
Q

Standby Flight Instruments:

The standby flight display and standby HSI ________ prior to takeoff.

A

…HSI must be functioning prior to…

UC-35 (2 decks)

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