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PC24 > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

What is the PC24 certified for?

A

Day, Night, VFR, IFR,

inc. Auto CAT I Approach, Single Pilot, Flight into known icing conditions

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2
Q

Cargo door X-wind limit?

A

60kts

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3
Q

Forward Airstair limit?

A

1 Person

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4
Q

Aerobatic Manoeuvres?

A

None.

Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs especially large side slip angles due potential structural failure.

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5
Q

When is TCAS II alerts inhibited?

A

<1100ft on Climb
<900ft on Descent

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6
Q

What is the safe distance from Wx Radar in operation?

A

2m inside 60degree angle

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7
Q

What is the safe distance on ground from HF in operation?

A

3m

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8
Q

What is the safe distance from VHF radios in operation?

A

1m

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9
Q

Minimum Autopilot engagement altitude?

A

400ft

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10
Q

Can an autopilot coupled go-around be conducted?

A

Yes, if initiated at or above DA or MDA

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11
Q

Is over-riding the AP approved?

A

No, except in emergency

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12
Q

Above what altitude must YD be engaged?

A

30000ft

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13
Q

When is Rudder Bias on?

A

Thrust Lever at T/O detent
YD off
<2500ft agl

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14
Q

What are the rudder deflection angle limits at flap 0, 8, 15, 33, OEI and On ground?

A 
0 - +/-20 degrees
8 - +/-26 degrees
15 and 33 - +/-28 degrees
OEI - +/-28 degrees
On Ground - +/-28 degrees
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15
Q

What is a Dry, Wet and Contaminated runway?

A

Dry runway - Dry or Damp without reflective appearance

Wet - Water more than 3mm in depth or sufficient level to give a reflective appearance without any significant area of standing water

Contaminated - More than 3mm depth of water, snow or slush

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16
Q

What is the minimum pressure Altitude of operation?

A

-1000ft AMSL

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17
Q

What is the maximum pressure altitude Landing Field Elevation?

A

10000ft AMSL

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18
Q

Maximum runway slope?

A

+/- 2 degrees

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19
Q

Maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing?

A

10kts

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20
Q

What AP mode is recommend during turbulence?

A

Pitch Attitude Hold

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21
Q

Can Autopilot be engaged while tactile feedback system is active?

A

No

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22
Q

Can the Auto Throttle be intentionally overridden?

A

Yes at any time by repositioning and holding thrust lever for a minimum of 3 seconds. This will result in aural warning and AT disconnect.

(AFM 4.2.1)

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23
Q

Can AP and YD be used during T/O?

A

AP - Not below 400ft
YD - After gear retraction and not below 50ft

(AFM 4.2.2)

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24
Q

What altitude must AP/YD/AT be disengaged during approach with vertical guidance in VGP mode?

A

Below 200ft

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25
Q

What alt must autopilot be disengaged during coupled ILS approach?

A

Below 200ft (only when glide slope is <4.5 degrees)

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26
Q

What alt must autopilot be disengaged during NPA, Circling Approach, and Visual Approach?

A

Below 400ft (airspeed must be <150kts and VS is <1500ft/m when engaged below <1000ft)

(AFM 4.2.3)

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27
Q

What requirement must be met for the FMS be used for IFR operations?

A

When FMS Database has current update cycle

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28
Q

What requirements must be met when conducting an instrument approach using the FMS?

A
  • Must be approved IAP
  • Approach must be loaded from FMS database
  • ‘APP’ mode is annunciated at the FAF
  • It is not a prohibited approach i.e. ILS, LOC-BC, LDA, SDF or MLS
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29
Q

When can you use the VNAV path deviation indicator during an approach?

A
  • When the LNAV/VNAV minimums published are controlling

- Operations below the LNAV/VNAV minimums are by visual reference

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30
Q

When are RA and TA aural messages inhibited?

A

Radio altitude of:

  • 1100ft during climb
  • 900ft on descent
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31
Q

What TCAS mode must be selected when OEI?

A

TA only

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32
Q

Taxi by ………. reference only.

A

Visual

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33
Q

The …………. …………… ………….. must be used to navigate while airborne.

A

Primary Navigation Instruments

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34
Q

Can the ACE electronic charts be classified as approved electronic system for aeronautical charts?

A

No

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35
Q

Do not operate the weather radar if:

A
  • The aircraft is in a hangar
  • The aircraft is being fuelled/defuelled
  • Personnel are within 2m and +/-60 degrees of aircraft nose
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36
Q

INAV map can not be used as primary source of …………. or ……………. reference

A
  • Navigational

- Airspace

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37
Q

Smart View can not be use as primary source of …………… reference or …………….. clearance.

A
  • Navigational

- Obstacle

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38
Q

The VSD (vertical situation display on INAV screen) can not be used as …………….. …………… of navigation.

A
  • Primary source
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39
Q

Vmo Mmo?

A
  • 290kts

- 0.74M

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40
Q

Vo at max takeoff weight and max landing weight?

A
  • 8300 (18300) = 170
  • 7711 (17000) = 160
  • 6350 (14000) = 145
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41
Q

Vo Rudder above and below FL200?

A

Above - 125kts

Below - 130kts

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42
Q

Rudder Vo not exceeding 1/3 and 1/10 travel?

A

1/3rd - 185kts

1/10th - 290kts

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43
Q

Vfe at 8, 15 and 33 degrees?

A

8 - 200kts
15 - 200kts
33 - 175kts

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44
Q

Vle speed and Vlo (extending, retracting and emergency extension)?

A

Vle - 250kts or 0.74M
Vlo (extending) - 250kts or 0.74M
Vlo (retracting) - 200kts
Vlo (emergency) - 180kts (QRH calls for <160kts)

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45
Q

Vmcg

A

87kts (flaps 8 or 15)

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46
Q

Vmc Flaps 8 and 15?

A

Flaps 8
6200 (13699) - 82
5000 (11023) - 90

Flaps 15
6000 (13228) - 77kts
5000 (11023) - 84kts

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47
Q

Vmcl flaps 15 and 33?

A

Flaps 15
5900 (13007) - 78
5000 (11023) - 84

Flaps 33
6000 (13288) - 73
5000 (11023) - 80

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48
Q

What is the Cargo door wind speed operation limit?

A

60kts

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49
Q

What 2 events require the aircraft to remain on the ground for 120mins to cool the brakes?

A
  • Rejected takeoff at a speed >Vr -20kts and heavy brake usage
  • 0 flaps landing and heavy brake usage
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50
Q

What’s the maximum tyre ground speed?

A

165kts

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51
Q

Maximum normal, positive, negative and takeoff cabin pressure differential?

A
  • normal ops 8.82
  • max positive 9.27
  • max negative -0.3
  • max takeoff 0.7
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52
Q

When can a circuit breaker be reset in flight?

A
  • When complying with QRH or AFM

- When pilot deems it necessary for the safe completion of the flight

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53
Q

How many people can be on air star at any given time?

A

1

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54
Q

Max generator current for operations in QPM and ground idle or above?

A
  • QPM - 250A

- Ground idle or above - 400A

55
Q

What is the overload range for the generator current output at idle and QPM?

A

Idle
400-600A - after 75 seconds (CAS Caution)
400-600 - 2 mins maximum
> 600A - 5 seconds

QPM
>250A - after 75 seconds (CAS Caution)
>250A - 2 mins maximum

AFM Limitations
FCOM 4-1-65

56
Q

Minimum and maximum battery temp for flight?

A

0 degrees minimum

70 degrees maximum (CAS Warning)

57
Q

Minimum Battery voltage for start?

A

Battery 1 - 22.0V

Battery 2 - 23.5V

58
Q

Maximum battery charge rate before takeoff?

A

Battery 1 and 2 must be < 50A and decreasing

59
Q

Minimum NiCd and Li-Ion battery temp for start?

A
  • NiCd - -20 degrees

- Li-Ion - -5 degrees

60
Q

GPU Voltage range?

A

25.0V - 29.5V

61
Q

GPU current limitations?

A

Initial start surge - 1200A

Continuous - 450A

62
Q

Minimum volts for start?

A
  • 24V
63
Q

Minimum Volts to charge batteries?

A
  • 28V
64
Q

Maximum voltage to charge batteries?

A
  • 29.5V
65
Q

Minimum OAT for GPU start?

A
  • -54 degrees
66
Q

Can you connect GPU if voltage is below battery voltage?

A
  • No
67
Q

Can the electric fuel booster pumps or fuel crossed valve be inoperative?

A
  • No
68
Q

Fuel temperature operating range?

A
  • between -40 degrees to +80 degrees
69
Q

What fuel types are permitted for use?

A
  • Jet A
  • Jet A1
  • JP-8
  • TS-1 (not permitted for operation in QPM)
70
Q

Total quantity of fuel?

A
  • 5999.8lbs (2721kgs)
71
Q

Total useable quantity of fuel?

A
  • 5964lbs (2705kg)
72
Q

Max fuel imbalance?

A
  • 330lbs (150kg)
73
Q

Unusable fuel quantity?

A
  • 35lbs (16kg)
74
Q

Maximum pressure for refuelling and defuelling?

A
  • 60psi during refuelling

- 10psi during defuelling

75
Q

HSDI operation temperature limits?

A
  • > -40 degrees
76
Q

Above what temperature is the WAI restricted and inhibited?

A

WAI restricted:
- >10 TAT do not operate WAI unless in icing conditions

WAI inhibited :

  • > 15 TAT
  • Aircraft on the ground
77
Q

Do not operate windshield emergency heating…

A
  • on the ground
    or
  • > 10 TAT
78
Q

PFID (primary flight ice detection) is not operative on the ground because…

A
  • ice detector signals are not available on ground

becomes active as soon as aircraft is airborne and airflow can vibrate ice detectors

79
Q

Wing inspection light must be operational when flight into…..

A
  • known or forecast icing conditions at night
80
Q

Can you take off if there are signs of icing on the aircrafts lifting surfaces?

A
  • No
81
Q

Can you operate at airport reporting freezing rain or freezing drizzle?

A
  • No
82
Q

What must you do when encountering freezing rain or drizzle?

A
  • Leave conditions by changing altitude or course
83
Q

Is holding or extended holding approved in icing conditions approved on a single bleed source?

A
  • Holding in icing conditions approved

- Extended holding in icing conditions not approved

84
Q

What is the flap extension and retraction limits in icing conditions?

A
  • 15 degrees max extension

- do not retract beyond 8 degrees when in icing conditions

85
Q

What is minimum airspeed in icing conditions with flaps retracted?

A
  • 150kts
86
Q

Can the autopilot be used in severe icing conditions?

A
  • Do not engage autopilot while in severe icing conditions

i. e. extensive ice on cockpit side windows or beyond wing protected leading edge

87
Q

When can’t you operate SWPS ICE OVRD?

A
  • When there is signs of ice on the wings
88
Q

What Category is the PC24 certified in and what types of operation is it equipped for?

A
  • Commuter category
  • Single pilot
  • VFR day and night
  • IFR day and night including automatic approaches to CAT 1 wx minimums
  • FIKI
89
Q

Landing gear minimum temperature operation?

A
  • -65 degrees
90
Q

What is the maximum weight of a towbarless tug?

A
  • 2440kgs
91
Q

MRW?

A
  • 18400lbs (8345kg)
92
Q

MTOW?

A
  • 18300lbs (8300kg)
93
Q

MLW?

A
  • 16900lbs (7665kg)
94
Q

MZFW?

A
  • 14220lbs (6450kg)
95
Q

Max floor loading over panels and seat rails?

A
  • 500kg/sqm over panels

- 1000kg/sqm over rails

96
Q

What acrobatic manoeuvres can be conducted?

A
  • none including spins

avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs especially large side slip angles

97
Q

Load Factor limits, flaps up and flaps down?

A

Flaps Up - +3.0 and -1.2

Flaps Down - +2.0 and -0.0

98
Q

Oil level must not be below the ……… indicator mark on the oil tank sight glass prior to flight.

A
  • ‘Add’
99
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude?

A
  • 45000ft
100
Q

What is the Min and Max OAT at sea level?

A
  • -54 degrees

- +50 degrees

101
Q

What is the minimum O2 quantity required for dispatch?

A
  • 680L
102
Q

Do not operate O2 saver function below….?

A
  • 25000ft
103
Q

Passenger oxygen masks are limited to a max cabin altitude of ……?

A
  • 40000ft
104
Q

Beyond what altitude does 10 minutes of O2 needed to be available for each person on board?

A
  • 25000ft
105
Q

What engine restrictions apply to a tailwind on the ground of greater than 10kts?

A
  • Do not exceed 60% N1 until aircraft ground speed is greater than the tailwind component
106
Q

How long is the aircraft limited to at zero/negative G?

A
  • 10 seconds
107
Q

What are the engine limitations during normal takeoff?

A
  • 3420lbs Thrust
  • 104.7% N1
  • 100.8% N2
  • 855 degrees ITT
  • 10-135 degrees oil temp
  • 40-120psi oil pressure (min 30psi when below 80% N2)
  • T/O limited 5 mins
108
Q

What are the engine limitations during ATR?

A
  • 3600lbs Thrust
  • 104.7% N1
  • 100.8% N2
  • 855 degrees ITT
  • 10-135 degrees oil temp
  • 40-120psi oil pressure (min 30psi when below 80% N2)
  • ATR limited to 10 mins OEI, otherwise max 5 mins
109
Q

What are the engine limitations during maximum continuous/climb operations?

A
  • 104.7% N1
  • 100.8% N2
  • 835 degrees ITT
  • 10-135 degrees oil temp
  • 40-120psi oil pressure (min 30psi when below 80% N2)
110
Q

What are the engine limitations when at ground or flight idle?

A
  • -40-135 degrees oil temp

- 30-120psi oil pressure

111
Q

What are the engine limitations during QPM?

A
  • 45.4% N2
  • 10-135 degrees oil temp
  • 30-120psi oil pressure
112
Q

What are the engine limitations during engine start?

A
  • -40-135 degrees oil temp (do not enter QPM and maintain <80% N2 until oil temp is >10 degrees)

ITT limit

  • <900 degrees no time limit
  • between 900-1000 degrees up to 15 seconds
113
Q

What are the engine limitations transient operations?

A
  • 105.7% N1 (2 mins)
  • 101.5% N2 (2 mins)
  • 855 degrees ITT (0 seconds)
  • 149 degrees oil temp (below 80% N2, up to 5 mins)
  • up to 130psi oil pressure (up to 5 mins)
  • down to 23psi oil pressure (below 80% N2, up to 5 mins)
114
Q

Maximum tail/crosswind for engine start?

A
  • 20kts
  • 25kts crosswind (see temp revision)

(estimated steady wind conditions)

115
Q

Maximum time to light-off for engine start?

light-off is time from igniter indication to increase in ITT observed

A
  • 12 seconds
116
Q

Minimum oil temp for battery start?

A
  • -40 degrees
117
Q

Which engine can be started with cargo door and air stair door open?

A
  • Right hand engine
118
Q

At what %N2 do you abort the start if N1 fails to increase?

A
  • 25% N2
119
Q

How many start attempts can be made and how long do you have to wait in-between starts?

A
  • Start attempt 1 - 50 seconds
  • Off - 1 minute
  • Motor run - 50 seconds
  • Off - 1 minute
  • Start attempt 2 - 50 seconds
  • Off - 30 minutes

(starter generator limitation, an attempt on the other engine would not need to wait the required 1 minute off as it is a different generator)

120
Q

How long must engines be at idle thrust before they can be shut down?

A
  • 2 minutes
121
Q

What position is recommend for the bleed valves during the cooldown period pre engine shutdown?

A
  • Bleed valve closed
122
Q

What conditions must be met to enter QPM mode?

A
  • N2 stabilised at idle for >2 minutes
  • Stationary with park brake on
  • No ground icing conditions (no moisture and TAT >10 degrees)
  • Crew is seated at controls with lap belt fastened
  • Cross/Tailwind maximum less than an average 20kts
  • Only right engine to operate in QPM
123
Q

What operation conditions apply during and post QPM mode?

A
  • Thrust levers remain at idle
  • Max electrical load of 250A
  • Must exit QPM and set to ground idle before left engine start
  • Run at ground idle for 2 minutes prior to engine acceleration or shutdown
124
Q

Can NAI be operated during QPM or >10 degrees TAT?

A
  • No
125
Q

NAI must be switched on for all ground ops, takeoff and landing when what conditions are present?

A
  • Visible moisture (including water/snow on ground) and SAT or reported OAT <10 degrees
  • Ice or frozen precipitation is adhering to engine inlet
126
Q

NAI must be switched on for climb cruise and descent in what conditions?

A
  • Visible moisture with <10 degree TAT
  • Flying through ice crystals
  • Any time ice accumulates on airframe
127
Q

When required, do you select NAI before or after setting take-off power?

A
  • Before setting take-off power
128
Q

At what temperature is engine operation prohibited when in freezing fog?

A
  • -15 degrees
129
Q

What equipment is required to operate within RVSM airspace?

A
  • 2 primary air data systems (ADS) (ESIS doesn’t count)
  • 1 flight controller with altitude pre-selector
  • 1 automatic flight control system (AFCS)
  • 1 Altitude reporting transponder

(RVSM approval from local governing authority)

130
Q

At what point must the airbrake be stowed for landing during a stable approach?

A
  • 50ft
131
Q

Do not operate the flaps above what altitude?

A
  • 20000ft
132
Q

What flap settings are prohibited for landing?

A
  • flaps 0 or 8 degrees (unless flaps have failed)
133
Q

When can secondary stab trim be used?

A
  • Only if primary stab trim system has failed
134
Q

When do personal electronic devices need to be set to flight mode?

A
  • They don’t. No restriction on using WIFI, bluetooth, cellular 3G or 4G throughout all phases of flight

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