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Cessna CE-680 Sovereign Memory Items and Limitations > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Maximum Design Ramp Weight:

A

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Maximum Design Ramp Weight:

30,550 Pounds

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2
Q

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Maximum Design Takeoff Weight:

A

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Maximum Design Takeoff Weight:

30,300 Pounds

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3
Q

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Maximum Design Landing Weight:

A

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Maximum Design Landing Weight:

27,100 Pounds

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4
Q

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Maximum Design Zero Fuel Weight:

A

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Maximum Design Zero Fuel Weight:

20,800 Pounds

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5
Q

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Minimum Flight Weight:

A

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Minimum Flight Weight:

17,345 Pounds

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6
Q

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Maximum Tailcone Weight:

A

WEIGHT LIMITATIONS
Maximum Tailcone Weight:

1,000 Pounds

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7
Q

UNUSABLE FUEL LIMITATIONS
Fuel remaining in the fuel tanks when the fuel quantity indicator reads ____. This fuel is ___ _______in flight.

A

UNUSABLE FUEL LIMITATIONS
Fuel remaining in the fuel tanks when the fuel quantity indicator reads zero. This fuel is not usable in flight.

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8
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS
Maximum Altitude Limit

A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS
Maximum Altitude Limit

14,000 Feet

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9
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum Tailwind Component

A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum Tailwind Component

10 Knots

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10
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum Demonstrated Crosswind Component

(Not Limiting; with or without thrust reversers)

A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Maximum Demonstrated Crosswind Component

(Not Limiting; with or without thrust reversers)

25 Knots

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11
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

The autopilot and yaw damper must be _________ for takeoff and landing.

A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

The autopilot and yaw damper must be disengaged for takeoff and landing.

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12
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

A satisfactory precheck flight of each of the following systems must be accomplished in accordance with Section III, Normal Procedures, prior to take off:

  • Angle-of-Attack and ____ _______
  • Bleed Air System
  • Glareshield Cooling Fans
  • Rudder Bias
  • Standby Power
  • Stabilizer Trim
A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

A satisfactory precheck flight of each of the following systems must be accomplished in accordance with Section III, Normal Procedures, prior to take off:

  • Angle-of-Attack and Stall** **Warning
  • Bleed Air System
  • Glareshield Cooling Fans
  • Rudder Bias
  • Standby Power
  • Stabilizer Trim
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13
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

The lavatory doors must be latched and _______ for takeoff and landing.

Takeoff and landings are limited to _______ runway surfaces.

Antiskid must be operational for _______.

Except where otherwise specified by AFM procedures, speedbrakes must be stowed prior to ____ feet AGL for landing.

A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

The lavatory doors must be latched and open for takeoff and landing.

Takeoff and landings are limited to paved runway surfaces.

Antiskid must be operational for takeoff.

Except where otherwise specified by AFM procedures, speedbrakes must be stowed prior to 500 feet AGL for landing.

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14
Q

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Takeoff is prohibited with a ____ message displayed. Takeoff is prohibited with an amber message displayed unless relief is specifically authorized in a Minimum Equipment List (MEL).

Takeoff is limited to the flaps ____ configuration when Type II, III, or IV anti-ice fluid has been applied to the airplane.

A

TAKEOFF AND LANDING
OPERATIONAL LIMITS

Takeoff is prohibited with a red message displayed. Takeoff is prohibited with an amber message displayed unless relief is specifically authorized in a Minimum Equipment List (MEL).

Takeoff is limited to the flaps 7º configuration when Type II, III, or IV anti-ice fluid has been applied to the airplane.

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15
Q

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS
Maximum Operating Altitude

For operations above FL410, the following conditions must be met:

  • Both ENG BLD AIR selectors must be selected to _____ or HP and both engine bleed air sources must be available.
  • The PRESS SOURCE selector must be selected to ______.
A

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS
Maximum Operating Altitude

47,000 Feet

For operations above FL410, the following conditions must be met:

  • Both ENG BLD AIR selectors must be selected to NORM or HP and both engine bleed air sources must be available.
  • The PRESS SOURCE selector must be selected to NORM.
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16
Q

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS
Maximum Altitude with Flaps Extended

The Mach trim system must be operations for speeds above Mach ____ with the autopilot disengaged.

A

ENROUTE OPERATIONAL LIMITS
Maximum Altitude with Flaps Extended

18,000 feet

The Mach trim system must be operations for speeds above Mach 0.77 with the autopilot disengaged.

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17
Q

POWERPLANT LIMITS

Engine Type-

Pratt and Whitney Canada Inc. PW306C Turbofan (producing ____ lbs thrust at sea level up to 30º C)

Continuous static-ground operation of the engine at takeoff thrust is limited to a maximum of ___ minutes.

Attempting an engine start is prohibited with a tailwind component greater than ___ knots.
.

A

POWERPLANT LIMITS

Engine Type-

Pratt and Whitney Canada Inc. PW306C Turbofan (producing 5770 lbs thrust at sea level up to 30º C)

Continuous static-ground operation of the engine at takeoff thrust is limited to a maximum of 2 minutes.

Attempting an engine start is prohibited with a tailwind component greater than 10 knots.

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18
Q

APPROVED OILS

Maximum oil consumption is 1 quart per ___ flight hours. When oil consumption is greater that 1 quart per ___ flight hours, refer to the Airplane Maintenance Manual.

Oil types or brands may not be ______ unless specifically approved in the PW306C Maintenance Manuals.

A

APPROVED OILS

Maximum oil consumption is 1 quart per 8 flight hours. When oil consumption is greater that 1 quart per 8 flight hours, refer to the Airplane Maintenance Manual.

Oil types or brands may not be mixed unless specifically approved in the PW306C Maintenance Manuals.

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19
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

TAKEOFF (TO DETENT)

Two Engines: ________ Minutes

One Engine: ________ Minutes

A

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

TAKEOFF (TO DETENT)

Two Engines: 5 Minutes

One Engine: 10 Minutes

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20
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

MAXIMUM CONTINUOUS (MCT DETENT):

_______________

A

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

MAXIMUM CONTINUOUS (MCT DETENT):

CONTINUOUS

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21
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

MAXIMUM CRUISE (CRU DETENT):

_______________

A

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

MAXIMUM CRUISE (CRU DETENT):

CONTINUOUS

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22
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

REVERSE THRUST:

____ Minutes

A

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

REVERSE THRUST:

5 Minutes

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23
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

Max Observed ITT ºC

TAKEOFF (TO DETENT)

___ ºC

A

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

Max Observed ITT ºC

TAKEOFF (TO DETENT)

920 ºC

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24
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

Max Observed ITT ºC

MAXIMUM CONTINUOUS (MCT DETENT)

___ ºC

A

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

Max Observed ITT ºC

MAXIMUM CONTINUOUS (MCT DETENT)

920 ºC

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25
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

Max Observed ITT ºC

MAXIMUM CRUISE (CRU DETENT)

___ ºC

A

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

Max Observed ITT ºC

MAXIMUM CRUISE (CRU DETENT)

920 ºC

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26
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

Max Observed ITT ºC

REVERSE THRUST

___ ºC

A

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

Max Observed ITT ºC

REVERSE THRUST

920 ºC

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27
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

Max Observed ITT ºC

STARTING

___ ºC

A

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

Max Observed ITT ºC

STARTING

950 ºC

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28
Q

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

Max Observed ITT ºC

TRANSIENT

___ ºC

A

ENGINE OPERATING LIMITS

Max Observed ITT ºC

TRANSIENT

950 ºC

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29
Q

START CYCLE LIMITS

Engine Starter Limit…

The rest period between engine starts is ___ minutes after first start attempt, ___ minutes after the second, and ___ after the third.

A

START CYCLE LIMITS

Engine Starter Limit…

The rest period between engine starts is 2 minutes after first start attempt, 5 minutes after the second, and 30 after the third.

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30
Q

START CYCLE LIMITS

Engine Starter Motoring Limit (not engine start)

Batteries Only

___ seconds

A

START CYCLE LIMITS

Engine Starter Motoring Limit (not engine start)

Batteries Only

20 seconds

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31
Q

START CYCLE LIMITS

Engine Starter Motoring Limit (not engine start)

Batteries with generator assist

___ seconds

A

START CYCLE LIMITS

Engine Starter Motoring Limit (not engine start)

Batteries with generator assist

15 seconds

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32
Q

START CYCLE LIMITS

Engine Starter Motoring Limit (not engine start)

External Power (1000 amps)

___ seconds

A

START CYCLE LIMITS

Engine Starter Motoring Limit (not engine start)

External Power (1000 amps)

15 seconds

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33
Q

START CYCLE LIMITS

Engine Starter Motoring Limit (not engine start)

External Power (1500 amps)

___ seconds

A

START CYCLE LIMITS

Engine Starter Motoring Limit (not engine start)

External Power (1500 amps)

7 seconds

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34
Q

START CYCLE LIMITS

APU Starter Limit

Three APU start cycles per ____ minutes. Three cycles with a 90-second rest period between cycles is permitted.

A

START CYCLE LIMITS

APU Starter Limit

Three APU start cycles per 30 minutes. Three cycles with a 90-second rest period between cycles is permitted.

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35
Q

START CYCLE LIMITS

Battery Start Limit

____ engine starts per hour. Nine APU start cycles per hour.

A

START CYCLE LIMITS

Battery Start Limit

Three engine starts per hour. Nine APU start cycles per hour.

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36
Q

START CYCLE LIMITS

Three engine external power starts (available external power current greater than or equal to 1000 amps) are equivalent to ___ engine battery start.

A

START CYCLE LIMITS

Three engine external power starts (available external power current greater than or equal to 1000 amps) are equivalent to one engine battery start.

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37
Q

START CYCLE LIMITS

One engine external power starts (available external power current less than 1000 amps) is equivalent to ___ engine battery start.

A

START CYCLE LIMITS

One engine external power starts (available external power current less than 1000 amps) is equivalent to one engine battery start.

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38
Q

START CYCLE LIMITS

Three generator-assisted cross starts are equivalent to ___ engine battery start.

A

START CYCLE LIMITS

Three generator-assisted cross starts are equivalent to one engine battery start.

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39
Q

START CYCLE LIMITS

Three APU battery starts are equivalent to ___ engine battery start.

A

START CYCLE LIMITS

Three APU battery starts are equivalent to one engine battery start.

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40
Q

EXTERNAL POWER LIMITS FOR STARTING

Maximum Current ____ A

Maximum Voltage ____V

A

EXTERNAL POWER LIMITS FOR STARTING

Maximum Current 1500 A

Maximum Voltage 28V

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41
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds
MMO (Above 29,833 Feet)

____ Mach (Indicated)

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds
MMO (Above 29,833 Feet)

.80 Mach (Indicated)

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42
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

VMO (Between 8000 and 29,833 Feet)

___\_ KIAS

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

VMO (Between 8000 and 29,833 Feet)

305 KIAS

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43
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

VMO (Below 8000 Feet)

____ KIAS

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

VMO (Below 8000 Feet)

270 KIAS

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44
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

Maximum Flap Extended Speed - VFE

Partial Flaps Position - 7° Position

_____ KIAS

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

Maximum Flap Extended Speed - VFE

Partial Flaps Position - 7° Position

250 KIAS

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45
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

Maximum Flap Extended Speed - VFE

Partial Flaps Position - 15° Position

_____ KIAS

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

Maximum Flap Extended Speed - VFE

Partial Flaps Position - 15° Position

200 KIAS

46
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

Maximum Flap Extended Speed - VFE

Full Flaps Position - 35° Position

_____ KIAS

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Operating Limit Speeds

Maximum Flap Extended Speed - VFE

Full Flaps Position - 35° Position

175 KIAS

47
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Landing Gear
Extended/Operating Speed - VLE/VLO

_____ KIAS

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Landing Gear
Extended/Operating Speed - VLE/VLO

210 KIAS

48
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Turbulent Air Penetration Speed

_____ KIAS/Mach ____

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Turbulent Air Penetration Speed

225 KIAS/Mach 0.73

49
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Speed Brake Operation Speed - VSB

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Speed Brake Operation Speed - VSB

NO LIMIT

50
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Tire Ground Speed

____ Knots

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Maximum Tire Ground Speed

165 Knots

51
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Minimum Speed for Sustained Flight In Icing Conditions

(except takeoff, approach and landing)

____ KIAS

A

SPEED LIMITATIONS
Minimum Speed for Sustained Flight In Icing Conditions

(except takeoff, approach and landing)

180 KIAS

52
Q

ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS

Ground

Engine Generator Limit _____ Amps

APU Gen Limit _____ Amps

A

ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS

Ground

Engine Generator Limit 300 Amps

APU Gen Limit 275 Amps

53
Q

ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS

Air

Engine Generator Limit _____ Amps

APU Gen Limit _____ Amps

A

ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS

Air

Engine Generator Limit 300 Amps

APU Gen Limit 275 Amps

54
Q

ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS

> 35,000 feet

Engine Generator Limit _____ Amps

APU Gen Limit _____ Amps

A

ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS

> 35,000 feet

Engine Generator Limit 275 Amps

APU Gen Limit N/A

55
Q

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

The maximum altitude for APU starts is ______.

A

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

The maximum altitude for APU starts is FL200.

56
Q

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

The maximum airspeed for APU starts is ______ KIAS.

A

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

The maximum airspeed for APU starts is 250 KIAS.

57
Q

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

The maximum operating altitude for operating the APU is ______.

A

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

The maximum operating altitude for operating the APU isFL300.

58
Q

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

The maximum operating airspeed for the APU is

______ KIAS/Mach _____.

A

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

The maximum operating airspeed for the APU is

305 KIAS/Mach 0.80.

59
Q

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

____ APU start is permitted after a dual generator failure.

A

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

One APU start is permitted after a dual generator failure.

60
Q

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

Following shutdown for any reason, an APU restart must not be attempted until ____ after RPM indicator reads 0%.

A

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

Following shutdown for any reason, an APU restart must not be attempted until 30 seconds after RPM indicator reads 0%.

61
Q

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

Applying deice/anti-ice fluid of any type is _________ when the APU is operating.

A

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

Applying deice/anti-ice fluid of any type is prohibited when the APU is operating.

62
Q

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

_________ operation of the APU is prohibited.

A

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

Unattended operation of the APU is prohibited.

63
Q

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

The APU compartment must be _________ following an automatic shutdown of the APU.

A

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

The APU compartment must be inspected following an automatic shutdown of the APU.

64
Q

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

Operating the cockpit and cabin temperature controls in MANUAL is ________ while APU MAX COOL is selected ON. A _________ waiting period is required after selecting APU MAX COOL to OFF before operating cockpit and cabin temperature controls in MANUAL.

A

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU)

Operating the cockpit and cabin temperature controls in MANUAL is prohibited while APU MAX COOL is selected ON. A 30-second waiting period is required after selecting APU MAX COOL to OFF before operating cockpit and cabin temperature controls in MANUAL.

65
Q

FULL AUTHORITY DIGITAL ENGINE CONTROL (FADEC)

Dispatch with an engine FADEC channel inoperative is ________.

A

FULL AUTHORITY DIGITAL ENGINE CONTROL (FADEC)

Dispatch with an engine FADEC channel inoperative is prohibited.

66
Q

FULL AUTHORITY DIGITAL ENGINE CONTROL (FADEC)

Exceeding the time interval for a cyan ENGINE DISPATCH LIMIT L and/or R message is ________.

A

FULL AUTHORITY DIGITAL ENGINE CONTROL (FADEC)

Exceeding the time interval for a cyan ENGINE DISPATCH LIMIT L and/or R message is prohibited.

67
Q

FULL AUTHORITY DIGITAL ENGINE CONTROL (FADEC)

Both air data systems must be ________ for dispatch.

A

FULL AUTHORITY DIGITAL ENGINE CONTROL (FADEC)

Both air data systems must be operational for dispatch.

68
Q

HYDRAULIC POWER SYSTEM

The use of the auxiliary hydraulic pump is prohibited when the ground operating temperature is below ________ .

A

HYDRAULIC POWER SYSTEM

The use of the auxiliary hydraulic pump is prohibited when the ground operating temperature is below -40 ºC.

69
Q

HYDRAULIC POWER SYSTEM

The use of the auxiliary hydraulic pump in flight is __________.

A

HYDRAULIC POWER SYSTEM

The use of the auxiliary hydraulic pump in flight is prohibited.

70
Q

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

ANTI-ICE ENGINE/STAB buttons must be selected ___ between the temperatures of +10 ºC to -35 ºC when in visible moisture. Use SAT for ground operations and RAT for in flight.

A

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

ANTI-ICE ENGINE/STAB buttons must be selected on between the temperatures of +10 ºC to -35 ºC when in visible moisture. Use SAT for ground operations and RAT for in flight.

71
Q

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Except for the ground preflight check, maximum SAT for operation of bleed air anti-ice with the throttle above idle is _____.

A

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Except for the ground preflight check, maximum SAT for operation of bleed air anti-ice with the throttle above idle is +20 ºC.

72
Q

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Limit the ground operation of the pitot-static heat to __ minutes to preclude damage to the pitot tubes and angle-of-attack vanes.

A

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Limit the ground operation of the pitot-static heat to 2 minutes to preclude damage to the pitot tubes and angle-of-attack vanes.

73
Q

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Anti-ice systems must not be used to deice surfaces prior

to _______.

A

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Anti-ince systems must not be used to deice surfaces prior

to takeoff.

74
Q

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Anti-ice wing buttons must be selected ______ for operations above FL410.

A

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

Anti-ice wing buttons must be selected OFF for operations above FL410.

75
Q

BOUNDARY LAYER ENERGIZERS

____ boundary layer energizers (BLEs) must be present for dispatch (nine per wing).

A

BOUNDARY LAYER ENERGIZERS

All boundary layer energizers (BLEs) must be present for dispatch (nine per wing).

76
Q

CABIN PRESSURIZATION LIMITS

Normal Cabin Pressurization Limits:

A

CABIN PRESSURIZATION LIMITS

Normal Cabin Pressurization Limits:

0.0 to 9.3 (+/-0.1) PSID

77
Q

CABIN PRESSURIZATION LIMITS

Pressure Relief Valve:

A

CABIN PRESSURIZATION LIMITS

Pressure Relief Valve:

9.6 (+/-0.1) PSID

78
Q

CABIN PRESSURIZATION LIMITS

Pressure Gauge Redline:

A

CABIN PRESSURIZATION LIMITS

Pressure Gauge Redline:

9.7 PSID

79
Q

CABIN PRESSURIZATION LIMITS

When the PRESS SOURCE selector is selected L or R, and ENG BLD AIR selector is selected ____, or an engine bleed air source is unavailable, the BAGGAGE HEAT button must be selected ____.

A

CABIN PRESSURIZATION LIMITS

When the PRESS SOURCE selector is selected L or R, and ENG BLD AIR selector is selected OFF, or an engine bleed air source is unavailable, the BAGGAGE HEAT button must be selected OFF.

80
Q

PASSENGER COMPARTMENT

The maximum number of occupants in the passenger compartment is ____.

A

PASSENGER COMPARTMENT

The maximum number of occupants in the passenger compartment is 12.

81
Q

PASSENGER COMPARTMENT

The lavatory door must be latched ____ for taxi, takeoff and landing.

A

PASSENGER COMPARTMENT

The lavatory door must be latched open for taxi, takeoff and landing.

82
Q

PASSENGER COMPARTMENT

The use of the lavatory is ______ for taxi, takeoff, and landing and is lmited to ____ occupant in flight.

A

PASSENGER COMPARTMENT

The use of the lavatory is prohibited for taxi, takeoff, and landing and is lmited to one occupant in flight.

83
Q

BAGGAGE COMPARTMENT

The baggage compartment smoke detection and extinguishing systems must be _________ if baggage is to be carried in the compartment.

A

BAGGAGE COMPARTMENT

The baggage compartment smoke detection and extinguishing systems must be operational if baggage is to be carried in the compartment.

84
Q

BAGGAGE COMPARTMENT

The maximum total weight of baggage in the tailcone baggage compartment is _____ pounds. Total weight includes baggage in the forward and aft compartments plus any on the coat rod.

A

BAGGAGE COMPARTMENT

The maximum total weight of baggage in the tailcone baggage compartment is 1000 pounds. Total weight includes baggage in the forward and aft compartments plus any on the coat rod.

85
Q

BAGGAGE COMPARTMENT

The maximum floor loading distribution is ____ pounds per square foot.

A

BAGGAGE COMPARTMENT

The maximum floor loading distribution is 150 pounds per square foot.

86
Q

THRUST REVERSERS

Reverse thrust must be reduced to the idle reverse detent position at ___ KIAS on landing roll.

A

THRUST REVERSERS

Reverse thrust must be reduced to the idle reverse detent position at 65 KIAS on landing roll.

87
Q

THRUST REVERSERS

Deployment of the thrust reversers for more than ___ seconds with the APU operation is prohibited.

A

THRUST REVERSERS

Deployment of the thrust reversers for more than 30 seconds with the APU operation is prohibited.

88
Q

THRUST REVERSERS

Static-ground operation of the engines is limited to _____ if the thrust reversers are deployed.

A

THRUST REVERSERS

Static-ground operation of the engines is limited to IDLE if the thrust reversers are deployed.

89
Q

THRUST REVERSERS

The use of thrust reversers is ________ during touch-and-go landings.

A

THRUST REVERSERS

The use of thrust reversers is prohibited during touch-and-go landings.

90
Q

THRUST REVERSERS

The use of thrust reversers to ________ the airplane is prohibited.

A

THRUST REVERSERS

The use of thrust reversers to reverse the airplane is prohibited.

91
Q

THRUST REVERSERS

Takeoff performance data must not be predicated on the use of the thrust reversers when the ground operating tempeature is below ____ (____ for Airplanes 680-0001 thru -0035 not incorporating SL680-78-01, Replacement of Thrust Reverser Door Seals).

A

THRUST REVERSERS

Takeoff performance data must not be predicated on the use of the thrust reversers when the ground operating tempeature is below -40 ºC (-15 ºC for Airplanes 680-0001 thru -0035 not incorporating SL680-78-01, Replacement of Thrust Reverser Door Seals).

92
Q

STANDBY FLIGHT DISPLAY

The standby flight display (including attitude, altitide, and airspeed) and standby HSI ____ be functioning prior to takeoff.

A

STANDBY FLIGHT DISPLAY

The standby flight display (including attitude, altitide, and airspeed) and standby HSI must be functioning prior to takeoff.

93
Q

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Ground operation with EICAS and/or avionics selected on without conditioned air is limited to ____ minutes when the OAT is greater than 47 ºC.

A

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Ground operation with EICAS and/or avionics selected on without conditioned air is limited to 30 minutes when the OAT is greater than 47 ºC.

94
Q

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Dispatch is prohibited when any of the following amber messages are displayed: DU 1-2-3-4 O’TEMP or ____________.

A

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Dispatch is prohibited when any of the following amber messages are displayed: DU 1-2-3-4 O’TEMP or MAU 1-2-3-4 O’TEMP.

95
Q

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Dispatch is prohibited following a flight where either an amber ________ or MAU 1-2-3-4 O’TEMP message was displayed, until the condition is identified and corrected.

A

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Dispatch is prohibited following a flight where either an amber DU 1-2-3-4 O’TEMP or MAU 1-2-3-4 O’TEMP message was displayed, until the condition is identified and corrected.

96
Q

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Reversion of both PFDs to DU2 and DU3 is _________.

A

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Reversion of both PFDs to DU2 and DU3 is prohibited.

97
Q

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Taxiing the airplane is prohibited until the attitude/heading ground alignment is completed (approximately ___ seconds for AHRS/___ minutes with optional IRS).

A

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Taxiing the airplane is prohibited until the attitude/heading ground alignment is completed (approximately 90 seconds for AHRS/6 minutes with optional IRS).

98
Q

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

One piliot must remain seated, with the seatbelt fastened, during all _________ operations.

A

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

One piliot must remain seated, with the seatbelt fastened, during all autopilot operations.

99
Q

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Autopilot operation is prohibited if any of the following is true:

(1) Any comparison monitor annunciation is activated.
(2) Either _____ is in ATT or HDG reversion.
(3) Either attitude heading source is failed.

Use of barometric VNAV vertical guidance is ____________ when the barometric altitude is corrected to the landing field election (QFE operation).

A

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Autopilot operation is prohibited if any of the following is true:

(1) Any comparison monitor annunciation is activated.
(2) Either PFD is in ATT or HDG reversion.
(3) Either attitude heading source is failed.

Use of barometric VNAV vertical guidance is prohibited when the barometric altitude is corrected to the landing field election (QFE operation).

100
Q

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Autopilot Minimum Use Height:

Enroute and Descent: _____ feet AGL

A

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Autopilot Minimum Use Height:

Enroute and Descent: 1000 feet AGL

101
Q

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Autopilot Minimum Use Height:

Precision Approach (ILS/LPV): _____ feet AGL

A

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Autopilot Minimum Use Height:

Precision Approach (ILS/LPV): 80 feet AGL

102
Q

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Autopilot Minimum Use Height:

Non-recision Approach: _____ feet AGL

A

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Autopilot Minimum Use Height:

Non-recision Approach: 200 feet AGL

103
Q

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Autopilot Minimum Use Height:

Takeoff, Climb, and Missed Approach: _____ feet AGL

A

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Autopilot Minimum Use Height:

Takeoff, Climb, and Missed Approach: 400 feet AGL

104
Q

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

________ operation is prohibited during in-flight engine starts using starter assist.

A

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Autopilot operation is prohibited during in-flight engine starts using starter assist.

105
Q

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Configuring the airplane displays to ______ fuel and weight units is prohibited.

A

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

Configuring the airplane displays to metric fuel and weight units is prohibited.

106
Q

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

When the flight director or autopilot is coupled to VOR or ILS, ____ mode must be selected (HDG bug synced to current heading) prior to switching navigation frequencies. When the next VOR or ILS frequency is satisfactorily received, _____ mode may be re-engaged.

A

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

When the flight director or autopilot is coupled to VOR or ILS, HDG mode must be selected (HDG bug synced to current heading) prior to switching navigation frequencies. When the next VOR or ILS frequency is satisfactorily received, NAV mode may be re-engaged.

107
Q

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

HF radio transmission are _______ when navigation is predicated on the use of the automatic direction finder.

A

HONEYWELL PRIMUS EPIC SYSTEM

HF radio transmission are prohibited when navigation is predicated on the use of the automatic direction finder.

108
Q

AIRPLANES WITH ELECTRONIC CHARTS

When displayed, the geographic-referenced airplane symbol on the optional electronic charts must not be used for ________.

A

AIRPLANES WITH ELECTRONIC CHARTS

When displayed, the geographic-referenced airplane symbol on the optional electronic charts must not be used for navigation.

109
Q

AIRPLANES WITH ELECTRONIC CHARTS

Operators with the optional electronic charts must have ________ _______ available to the flight crew.

A

AIRPLANES WITH ELECTRONIC CHARTS

Operators with the optional electronic charts must have back-up charts available to the flight crew.

110
Q

AIRPLANES WITH ELECTRONIC CHARTS

The Data Start Date currency must be verified on the REVISION INFO window _____ to use.

A

AIRPLANES WITH ELECTRONIC CHARTS

The Data Start Date currency must be verified on the REVISION INFO window prior to use.

111
Q

AIRPLANES WITH ELECTRONIC CHARTS

The _____ _____ is responsible for verifying availability of charts for the planned flight.

A

AIRPLANES WITH ELECTRONIC CHARTS

The flight crew is responsible for verifying availability of charts for the planned flight.

Cessna CE-680 Sovereign Memory Items and Limitations (2 decks)

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