Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

The airplane is certified in the transport category for day and night operations in the following conditions:

A
  • VFR and IFR
  • Landings with approach path angles no greater than 3.5°
  • Flight in icing conditions up to FL350
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Maximum operating altitude

A

*41,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Maximum airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?

A

*8,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Crosswind limit for normal takeoff for airport elevations 7,000 feet MSL or below?

A

*30 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Crosswind limit for normal takeoff for airport elevations above 7,000 feet MSL?

A

*22 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Maximum tailwind component approved for takeoff and landing?

A

10 knots, or as restricted by Delta Company Pages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Maximum crosswind component for engine start and ice shedding?

A

43 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Maximum tailwind component for engine start and ice shedding?

A

18 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Maneuver Limit Load Factors

Flaps retracted?

A

-1.0 to +2.5 G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Maneuver Limit Load Factors

Flaps extended?

A

0 to +2.0 G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maximum ambient temperature approved for takeoff and landing is?

A

52.5°C (126.5°F)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Minimum ambient temperature approved for takeoff and landing is?

A

-54°C (-65°F).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Maximum ramp weight:

A220-100?

A

A220-100= 135,000 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Maximum ramp weight

A220-300?

A

A220-300=150,000 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Maximum takeoff weight A220-100?

A

134,000 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Maximum takeoff weight A220-300?

A

149,000 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Maximum landing weight A220-100?

A

115,500 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Maximum landing weight A220-300?

A

127,500 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Maximum zero fuel weight A220-100?

A

111,000 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Maximum zero fuel weight A220-300?

A

121,500 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Minimum flight weight A220-100?

A

77,000 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Minimum flight weight A220-300?

A

80,000 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Turbulence Penetration Speed

At or below 10,000 feet?

A

maintain 250 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Turbulence Penetration Speed

Above 10,000 feet?

A

maintain 280 KIAS or 0.75 Mach, whichever is lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Windshield Wiper Speed

The maximum speed for operating windshield wipers is?

A

250 KIAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The tire limit speed is?

A

195 kts ground speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Air Conditioning, Bleed, and Pressurization

The maximum positive differential pressure is?

A

8.8 psid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Air Conditioning, Bleed, and Pressurization

The maximum negative differential pressure is?

A

-0.5 psid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Air Conditioning, Bleed, and Pressurization

During initial landing (at touchdown), the pressure differential must not exceed?

A

1.0 psid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Except for de-icing operations, all passenger and service doors should not be closed for more than ________ minutes when passengers are on board, the PACKs are OFF, and there is no ground conditioned air?

A

15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When OAT is above 40°C (104°F), operation without ECS or external cooling is limited to ________ minutes?

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A220-300 PACK OFF takeoff is _________?

A

prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The maximum allowable altimeter reading differences for RVSM operations are:
Captain or F/O and Field Elevation?

A

75 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The maximum allowable altimeter reading differences for RVSM operations are:
Captain and F/O In Flight?

A

200 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Autoflight

The minimum altitude for engagement of the autopilot is?

A

400 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Autoflight

The minimum altitude for use of the autopilot is __________ ,unless using autoland.

A

80 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Autoflight

During an approach and landing with autothrottle engaged, the approach speed must be increased by _______ ?

A

5 kts

38
Q

Automatic Landing

Maximum reported HEADWIND component to initiate approach and land using autoland?

A

25 knots headwind

39
Q

Automatic Landing

Maximum reported CROSSWIND component to initiate approach and land using autoland?

A

15 knots crosswind

40
Q

Automatic Landing

Maximum reported TAILWIND component to initiate approach and land using autoland?

A

10 knots tailwind

41
Q

The maximum runway slope is ______ % upslope?

A

0.8% upslope

42
Q

The maximum runway slope is _______% downslope.

A

1.0% downslope.

43
Q

The minimum runway width is?

A

148 feet

44
Q

The maximum glideslope angle is?

A

3.25°

45
Q

The minimum glideslope angle is?

A

2.5°

46
Q

Autoland is prohibited with the _____________ switchlight selected on?

A

AURAL WARN INHIB

47
Q

Electrical

Maximum AC generator load must not exceed __________ continuous

A

75 kVA

48
Q

Electrical

The maximum permissible continuous load on TRU 1 and TRU 2 is ________?

A

350 amp

49
Q

Electrical

The maximum permissible continuous load on TRU 3 is __________?

A

225 amp

50
Q

APU

The minimum oil temperature for an APU start is _________?

A

-40°C.

51
Q

APU

Maximum number of start attempts in 1 hour?

A

3 starts/start attempts with a 2 minute delay between start attempts.

52
Q

APU

The altitude limit for APU bleed air extraction is __________?

A

23,000 ft.

53
Q

If MCT is inadvertently selected above _________ , contact the MCC and make a logbook entry.

A

FL 290

54
Q

Engine Start

After 3 start attempts, or after 4 minutes continuous cranking, a __________ cooling period is required.

A

30 minute

55
Q

Engine Start

Do not engage the starter on ground if indicated N2 rpm exceeds ________%?

A

20%.

56
Q

Thrust Reversers

Go-around is _________ after deployment of the thrust reversers?

A

prohibited

57
Q

Derated and reduced engine thrust (FLEX) takeoffs are ___________ with the autothrottle system disengaged or inoperative.

A

not permitted

58
Q

The engine must be operated at, or near idle for at least ____________ (cumulative) before shutdown?

A

3 minutes

59
Q

Flight Controls

Maximum altitude with slats/flaps extended is ____________?

A

20,000 ft?

60
Q

Flight Controls

Do not use flight spoilers below ________ feet AFE.

A

1000 feet AFE

61
Q

Flight Controls

Minimum speed with flight spoilers manually extended is ____________?

A

VREF + 10 KIAS

62
Q

Flight Controls

Use of MAX spoilers is __________ except in an emergency

A

prohibited

63
Q

Fuel System

The maximum permissible fuel imbalance between the contents of the left and right main tank is _______ lbs.

A

800 lbs

64
Q

Fuel System

Fuel remaining in a tank when the appropriate fuel quantity indicator reads zero is ___________?

A

not usable

65
Q

Fuel System

The minimum fuel quantity for go-around is _______ lb per wing (with the aircraft level) and at a maximum aircraft climb attitude of ________° nose up.

A
  • 975 lbs

* 10°

66
Q

Fuel System

Maximum bulk fuel temperature for starting and operating is __________°C?

A

52.5°C

67
Q

Takeoff with bulk fuel temperature indications below_________°C is prohibited?

A

-37°C

68
Q

Manual transfer and gravity crossflow must be_________ for takeoff.

A

off

69
Q

Operation of the APU in an unattended mode is prohibited if either wing tank quantity is greater than _________ lbs.

A

6225 lbs

70
Q

Max Usable Fuel Load

Left main tank or Right main tank A220-100?

A

6,775 pounds

71
Q

Max Usable Fuel Load

Left main tank or Right main tank A220-300?

A

6,725 pounds

72
Q

Max Usable Fuel Load

Center tank A220-100?

A

25,300 pounds

73
Q

Max Usable Fuel Load

Center tank A220-300?

A

24,900 pounds

74
Q

Max total Usable Fuel Load A220-100?

A

38,850 pounds

75
Q

Max total Usable Fuel Load A220-300?

A

38,350 pounds

76
Q

Fuel system

When operating on ground, the left engine must be started first if either wing tank fuel quantity is greater than ________ lbs.

A

6225 lbs

77
Q

Fuel System

When operating on ground a manual fuel transfer must be done from the affected wing to the center tank to reduce affected wing quantity to less than 6225 lbs when:

  • Either wing tank fuel quantity is greater than _______ lbs, and
  • Center tank fuel quantity is less than _________ lbs
A
  • 6225 lbs

* 23,525 lbs

78
Q

Landing Gear and Brakes

The maximum speed with landing gear extended is ________ KIAS

A

250 KIAS

79
Q

Landing Gear and Brakes

BRAKE TEMP indications must be _______ prior to takeoff.

A

GREEN

80
Q

Terrain Awareness Warning System

To avoid giving unwanted alerts, the TAWS, TERR switch must be selected to INHIB for takeoff or landing within _________ NM of an airport not contained in the TAWS database.

A

15 NM

81
Q

Flight Management, Navigation

Use of the FPLN UPLINK function in flight. Any REQUEST PENDING must be __________ before takeoff.

A

cleared

82
Q

Flight Management, Navigation

Use of the FMS as a primary navigation source beyond the FAF for ILS, LOC, LOC-BC, LDA, SDF and IGS approaches is ____________?

A

Prohibited

83
Q

Flight Management, Navigation

Localizer approaches must be flown with ________ mode selected before the final approach fix (FAF).

A

NAV

84
Q

Flight Management, Navigation

MAN SPD must be set and used when flying ________ in the final landing configuration.

A

VAPP

85
Q

Engine Indications

Max takeoff Max EGT?
Max time limit?

A

1054°C

  • 5 min time limit ** Time limit may be extended to 10 minutes for one-engine-inoperative
86
Q

Engine Indications

Max continuous Max EGT?

A
  • 1006°C

* 1016°C (FADEC 2.11)

87
Q

Engine Indications

Reverse thrust Max EGT?

A

1054°C

88
Q

Engine Indications

Start Max EGT?

A

1054°C

89
Q

Engine Indications

Oil Press Min/Max?

A

50.3/175.3 psi

90
Q

Crosswind limit for the A220-100 for landing including gusts?

A

35 knots

91
Q

Crosswind limit for the A220-300 for landing including gusts?

A

29 knots