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Family Health > limbiks_Pregnancy III Student 2023.pptx - limbiks_Pregnancy III Student 2023.pptx > Flashcards

limbiks_Pregnancy III Student 2023.pptx - limbiks_Pregnancy III Student 2023.pptx Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of antepartum fetal assessment?

A

Identifies individuals at risk for abnormality. first screening, then diagnostic testing if indicated.

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2
Q

What are false positives and false negatives in screening?

A

Incorrectly identifying individuals as at risk or not at risk

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3
Q

What is the difference between screening and diagnostic testing?

A

Screening identifies risk while diagnostic testing gives a precise diagnosis. screening is done first before diagnostic testing.

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4
Q

What is chorionic villus sampling used for?

A

Precise test for a given condition, it is a diagnostic test

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5
Q

What is amniocentesis used for?

A

Diagnostic testing during pregnancy

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6
Q

What is the purpose of screenings?

A

To look for abnormalities

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7
Q

What are some examples of abnormalities that screenings can detect?

A

Trisomy 21

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8
Q

What is the drawback of screenings?

A

False positives and false negatives

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9
Q

What is the recommended course of action if someone comes back with a positive result from a screening?

A

Encouraged to do diagnostic testing, which is much more accurate

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10
Q

What is the main difference between screenings and diagnostic testing?

A

Screening is done by everyone, diagnostic testing is not

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11
Q

What can ultrasound obtain real-time images of?

A

Maternal structures, placenta, amniotic fluid, and fetus

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12
Q

What can ultrasound do when paused?

A

Take fetal measurements or obtain closer images of specific structures

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13
Q

What are the different types of ultrasound?

A

2D, 3D, or 4D

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14
Q

What are the two types of ultrasound for examining the structures like the heart?

A

Transabdominal and transvaginal

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15
Q

When is transvaginal ultrasound usually used?

A

At 8-10 weeks of gestation and is used to confirm pregnancy (bc its harder to get it from the abdomen).

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16
Q

What is the purpose of transvaginal ultrasound during pregnancy?

A

To confirm pregnancy

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17
Q

Which trimester is the 1st ultrasound performed in?

A

First trimester. around week 8-10.

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18
Q

Which trimester is the 2nd ultrasound performed in?

A

Second trimester

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19
Q

What is the purpose of first trimester ultrasonography?

A

Confirm pregnancy, verify location, identify multiple gestations, determine gestational age, identify markers, determine locations of uterus, cervix, and placenta

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20
Q

What is the procedure for first trimester ultrasonography?

A

Transvaginal

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21
Q

What is the biggest thing ultrasound is used for?

A

Confirm pregnancy

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22
Q

At what gestational age can the embryo be seen on ultrasound at the earliest?

A

5-6 weeks

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23
Q

What does the heart rate on ultrasound indicate? At what gestational age is the fetal heart rate visible on ultrasound?

A

Health

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24
Q

What is the most accurate measure of gestational age?

A

the first trimester ultrasound

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25
Q

What is used to determine gestational age and compare it with Niegels rule?

A

Crown to rump length which is taken at the first trimester ultrasound.

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26
Q

What is the purpose of second and third trimester ultrasonography?

A

Confirm fetal viability, evaluate fetal anatomy, determine gestational age, assess serial fetal growth, compare growth of fetuses in multifetal gestations, locate the placenta, determine fetal presentation.

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27
Q

What does second and third trimester ultrasonography evaluate in multifetal gestations?

A

Compare growth of fetuses

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28
Q

What is the procedure for second and third trimester ultrasonography?

A

Transabdominal

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29
Q

When is second and third trimester ultrasonography performed?

A

18-20 weeks

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30
Q

What are some things that are examined during second and third trimester ultrasonography?

A

Umbilical cord, blood flow, amniotic fluid volume, position of the placenta

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31
Q

What conditions can be evaluated at the second and third trimester ultrasound?

A

Down syndrome, gastrochisis

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32
Q

Which mothers may require further ultrasounds?

A

High risk mothers

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33
Q

What does chorionic villus sampling (CVS) test for?

A

Genetic abnormalities and chromosomal abnormalities.

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34
Q

What can amniocentesis identify?

A

Fetal abnormalities, fetal lung maturity status, infection

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35
Q

What is the risk of fetal demise with amniocentesis?

A

<1%

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36
Q

What is a common side effect of amniocentesis?

A

Spotting

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37
Q

How long does the puncture site of amniocentesis take to seal?

A

Within a day

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38
Q

What may occur as a result of amniocentesis?

A

AF leaking

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39
Q

What is the purpose of amniocentesis?

A

To identify chromosomal genetic or metabolic abnormalities

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40
Q

What is a common side effect of amniocentesis or villus sampling?

A

Uterine cramping and discomfort

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41
Q

How long is normal to experience uterine cramping and discomfort after the procedure (CVS & amniocentesis)?

A

24-48 hours

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42
Q

Can patients go home after an amniocentesis?

A

Yes

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43
Q

How is fetal well-being assessed?

A

Through methods like fetal movement counting, FHR, contraction stress test, and nonstress test

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44
Q

What is a kick count? what is a good kick count?

A

Note how many times baby is moving, want 10 movements in 1-2 hours

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45
Q

What is done if there are not enough accelerations in an NST?

A

Vibroacoustic stimulation can be done

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46
Q

What is a non-reactive NST?

A

Less than 2 accelerations in 40 minutes

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47
Q

How can you wake up a sleepy baby during an NST?

A

Give orange juice and something to eat

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48
Q

When can NSTs be started?

A

As early as 32 weeks

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49
Q

What is the Contraction Stress Test (CST)?

A

A test to see if the baby is well enough to handle normal labor

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50
Q

What releases oxytocin? and how is this done for a CST?

A

Labor, breastfeeding, and sex. nipple stimulation and possibly IV pitocin

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51
Q

How is the CST performed?

A

Through nipple stimulation or IV pitocin

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52
Q

When is the CST typically done?

A

Only if we are concerned about the baby and closer to term

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53
Q

When is the CST contraindicated?

A

History of preterm labor, pregnancies that cannot be delivered vaginally

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54
Q

What does BPP tell us?

A

if baby is well oxygenated or not

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55
Q

What is a good BPP score?

A

8-10. –indicates good fetal oxygenation

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56
Q

What does a BPP score of 6 mean?

A

Something is going on

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57
Q

What should be done if BPP score is 6?

A

Retest within 24 hours if amniotic fluid volume is appropriate if it is not good, consider delivery.

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58
Q

What BPP score indicates the need for delivery? what are some things you would need to prepare for?

A

0-4. associated with acidemia and still birth -prepare for rescue interventions

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59
Q

How does early loss of pregnancy affect mothers?

A

Feel alone and isolated because not a lot of people may know that they are pregnant.

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60
Q

What can complicate the grieving process for mothers of twins?

A

Losing one twin but not the other

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61
Q

What can be helpful for mothers experiencing perinatal loss?

A

validate feelings, Encouraging them to name the baby, respect their wishes.

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62
Q

How can previous loss impact a mother’s anxiety during pregnancy?

A

They can feel anxious

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63
Q

What is the significance of the Cuddle Cot?

A

The Cuddle Cot provides families with more time to spend with their baby.

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64
Q

What does a cuddle cot do?

A

Keeps the baby cool.

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65
Q

What is an open adoption?

A

Biological mother is involved in the child’s life

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66
Q

What is a closed adoption?

A

Maternal mom may not know the adoptive parents and they don’t see the child again

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67
Q

Are adoptive parents always present for the birth?

A

It depends, they may or may not be present

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68
Q

Who do we need to care for in adoption?

A

Both the mom and the adoptive parents

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69
Q

What are the therapeutic management options for hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Diphenhydramine, Histamine-receptor antagonists (pepcid/zantac), Gastric acid inhibitors (nexium/prilosec), Metoclopramide (reglan), Pyridoxine/doxylamine

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70
Q

What is Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A

Severe pregnancy-related nausea and vomiting

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71
Q

How does Hyperemesis Gravidarum compare to morning sickness?

A

Approximately 10 times worse

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72
Q

How long does Hyperemesis Gravidarum typically last?

A

Throughout the entire pregnancy

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73
Q

What are the common symptoms of Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A

Dehydration and electrolyte imbalances

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74
Q

What is the cause of Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A

Unknown, but thought to be related to pregnancy hormones

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75
Q

How is Hyperemesis Gravidarum diagnosed?

A

By ruling out other causes of severe nausea and vomiting

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76
Q

What is the first line of treatment for Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A

Medications that control nausea and vomiting

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77
Q

When might a pregnant woman with Hyperemesis Gravidarum be hospitalized?

A

If they are severely ill and require IV fluids and TPN

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78
Q

What medication is typically avoided during the first trimester in Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A

Zofran, it can cause cleft palate and heart defects.

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79
Q

What should be monitored in Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A

Intake and output

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80
Q

What conditions must exist for Rh incompatibility?

A

Mother is Rh-negative, and fetus is Rh-positive.

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81
Q

What are the potential negative effects of Rh incompatibility?

A

Negatively affects future pregnancies if not treated.

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82
Q

What is the treatment for Rh incompatibility?

A

Rhogam

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83
Q

At what time during pregnancy is Rhogam typically administered?

A

28 weeks

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84
Q

When is Rhogam typically administered after delivery?

A

72 hours if the mother is negative and baby is positive.

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85
Q

What can happen if there is Rh factor incompatibility between the mother and the baby?

A

Birth defects or abortion

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86
Q

What happens if the baby’s blood type is negative?

A

No 72-hour follow-up is needed with rhogam

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87
Q

What happens if the baby’s blood type is positive?

A

Rhogam is given within 72 hours

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88
Q

What is hypovolemia?

A

Decreased blood volume

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89
Q

How does hypovolemia affect the mother?

A

Can lead to decreased blood flow and oxygen delivery to organs

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90
Q

What does a complete abortion mean?

A

Abortion does everything and there is no retained tissue.

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91
Q

What does an incomplete abortion mean? What might be needed?

A

Something was left behind and a D&C may be needed.

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92
Q

What does a missed abortion mean?

A

Retains all the tissue and requires a D&C.

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93
Q

What does recurrent abortion mean?

A

Three or more occurrences of abortion, not necessarily successive.

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94
Q

What is the most important lab for abortion conditions?

A

CBC and H&H, but CBC is the most important.

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95
Q

How is an abortion (miscarriage) defined in terms of gestational age?

A

Less than 20 weeks

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96
Q

What is cerclage?

A

Procedure to stitch the cervix closed

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97
Q

When is cerclage recommended?

A

For women at risk of premature birth

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98
Q

How is cerclage performed?

A

Using stitches to secure the cervix or with the use of a band.

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99
Q

Is a cerclage considered a high risk pregnancy?

A

Yes

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100
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Implantation of a fertilized ovum outside of uterine cavity

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101
Q

Where do 97% of ectopic pregnancies occur?

A

Fallopian tube

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102
Q

What are the consequences of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?

A

Severe pain, internal bleeding, and significant cause of maternal death

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103
Q

How is ectopic pregnancy diagnosed?

A

Via ultrasound

104
Q

What are the treatment options for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Methotrexate, salpingectomy

105
Q

What should be done if an ectopic pregnancy ruptures?

A

Prevent hypovolemic shock

106
Q

When is an ectopic pregnancy usually found or caught?

A

usually caught on the first ultrasound. keep in mind that some people dont even know theyre pregnant though.

107
Q

What treatment can be given for an ectopic pregnancy if caught early enough?

A

Methotrexate

108
Q

What is the success rate of methotrexate in treating ectopic pregnancy?

A

90%

109
Q

What is the latest stage an ectopic pregnancy needs to be caught before methotrexate cannot be given anymore?

A

Around 8-10 weeks

110
Q

What is gestational trophoblastic disease?

A

tbh the thing that looks like a bunch of bubbles or cysts.

111
Q

What is the difference between complete and partial hydatidiform mole?

A

Complete: no fetal tissue, Partial: fetal tissue present

112
Q

What are the treatment options for hydatidiform mole?

A

D&C, oxytocin

113
Q

What are the two types of hydatidiform mole?

A

Complete and partial

114
Q

What is the biggest complication of a hydatidiform mole?

A

Bleeding leading to hypovolemia. prepare for hypovolemia.

115
Q

What should moms avoid after a hydatidiform mole so that we can monitor for carcinoma?

A

Pregnancy for 6-12 months minimum

116
Q

What can extremely high HcG levels indicate?

A

Presence of hydatidiform mole trophoblasts

117
Q

What should be watched for in hydatidiform moles?

A

Malignant changes or cancer

118
Q

What is placenta previa?

A

Implantation of the placenta in the lower uterus

119
Q

What is the difference between placenta previa and low lying placenta?

A

Placenta previa involves implantation of the placenta in the lower uterus, while low lying placenta refers to a placenta that is near the cervix but not covering it. placenta previa is completely covering the cervix.

120
Q

What is a common symptom of placenta previa?

A

PainLESS bright red bleeding

121
Q

What are the delivery restrictions for placenta previa?

A

No vaginal delivery, no SVE (sterile vaginal examination), pelvic rest

122
Q

How is placenta previa diagnosed?

A

Second ultrasound

123
Q

What is the implantation location in placenta previa?

A

Lower part of the uterus

124
Q

What is a low lying placenta?

A

Within 2 cm of the cervical opening

125
Q

What is the hallmark sign of placenta previa?

A

Painless bright red bleeding

126
Q

What should be avoided with placenta previa?

A

Vaginal delivery, sterile vaginal exam, sex, tampons, swimming, oxytocin

127
Q

What should be done if bright red bleeding occurs?

A

Get an ultrasound to rule out placenta previa

128
Q

What treatment is given for placenta previa before 34 weeks?

A

Corticosteroids to help mature the lungs

129
Q

What can cause improper implantation in placenta previa?

A

Previous scar (fibroid removal, previous C-section)

130
Q

What is abruptio placentae?

A

Separation of a normally implanted placenta before the fetus is born

131
Q

What are the causes of abruptio placentae?

A

cocaine, meth, trauma, hypertension, alcohol

132
Q

What are the symptoms of abruptio placentae?

A

Bleeding, board-like abdomen, abdominal tenderness, tachycardia, late decels

133
Q

What is the management approach for abruptio placentae?

A

Depends on severity: conservative (bedrest, medications) or aggressive (delivery, possible cesarean section, blood transfusion)

134
Q

What is the hallmark sign of a board-like abdomen associated with?

A

abruptio placentae or placental abruption

135
Q

What can happen with partial abruptio of the placenta?

A

Concealed bleeding that can seal back up

136
Q

What needs to happen if there is a complete abruption of the placenta?

A

The patient needs to go into labor

137
Q

For marginal or partial abruption, what intervention may be considered first instead of a c-section?

A

Tocolytics to stop the process of labor

138
Q

What are some potential interventions or procedures for a placental abruption?

A

Blood transfusion, fluids, possible hysterectomy (if bleeding cannot be controlled).

139
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of fluid volume deficit (FVD) that could be a result of placental abruption?

A

Pale, cool skin; low BP; tachycardia

140
Q

What are some possible signs of placental abruption on a toco monitor?

A

High toco monitor readings

141
Q

what is the leading cause of maternal morbidity and mortality?

A

hypertensive disorders of pregnancy

142
Q

What is the prevalence of hypertensive disorders of pregnancy?

A

5-8% of all pregnancies

143
Q

What are the preventive measures for preeclampsia?

A

Early and regular prenatal care, aspirin

144
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of preeclampsia?

A

Hypertension, proteinuria, edema (sudden, pitting), headaches, visual disturbance

145
Q

What are the components of therapeutic management for preeclampsia?

A

Activity restrictions, blood pressure monitoring, weight monitoring, fetal assessment

146
Q

What are some of the diagnostic tests used for preeclampsia?

A

NST, BPP, CBC, CCUA, CMP, LDH, Uric Acid, 24-hr urine protein

147
Q

What is one way to prevent the progression of preeclampsia?

A

Early and regular appointments

148
Q

What medication can be used for prevention of preeclampsia?

A

Aspirin

149
Q

How can proteinuria be detected?

A

Dip stick test showing 2+ or more protein

150
Q

How much protein in the urine is considered abnormal in a 24-hour urine collection?

A

300 mg

151
Q

What is the only cure for preeclampsia?

A

Delivery of the baby

152
Q

When does preeclampsia resolve?

A

After delivery of the baby

153
Q

Who should take low-dose aspirin after their first trimester?

A

Pregnant women at risk for preeclampsia

154
Q

What is the purpose of taking low-dose aspirin during pregnancy?

A

To prevent preeclampsia

155
Q

What are some factors that put pregnant women at high risk for preeclampsia?

A

Chronic high blood pressure, diabetes, kidney disease

156
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia with severe features?

A

Systolic > 160, Diastolic > 110, Platelets < 100,000

157
Q

What signs and symptoms may indicate preeclampsia with severe features?

A

Pulmonary edema, headache unrelieved by meds, RUQ pain, epigastric pain, blurred vision, small amount of dark urine

158
Q

What laboratory test results may be abnormal in preeclampsia with severe features?

A

Elevated AST, ALT

159
Q

What medications are used to treat preeclampsia, what are their primary puspose?

A

Magnesium and labetalol, to prevent seizures.

160
Q

What precautions should be taken for a patient with preeclampsia?

A

Left side lying, seizure precautions, decrease stimuli

161
Q

What is the recommended management for hypertensive disorders of pregnancy?

A

PREVENT SEIZURES. Bed rest, fetal monitoring, antihypertensive medication, anticonvulsant medications, magnesium sulfate, you want to increase placental blood flow.

162
Q

What medications are used for antihypertensive treatment?

A

Labetalol, Hydralazine, Nifedipine

163
Q

What medication is used for preventing seizures?

A

Magnesium sulfate

164
Q

What are the signs of recovery in a patient with hypertensive disorders of pregnancy?

A

Diuresis, decreased proteinuria, normal blood pressure and labs

165
Q

What is the loading dose of magnesium sulfate?

A

4-6 g over 15-30 min

166
Q

What is the maintenance dose of magnesium sulfate?

A

1-2 g per hour

167
Q

What are the signs of magnesium toxicity?

A

Lethargy, absent reflexes, CNS depression, resp depression

168
Q

What should be monitored in a patient on magnesium sulfate?

A

Strict I&O (at least 30mL/hr)

169
Q

What is the antidote for magnesium toxicity?

A

Calcium gluconate

170
Q

When do half of eclamptic seizures occur?

A

During birth or 48 hours post delivery

171
Q

what cures preeclampsia?

A

birth

172
Q

Can a patient with thrombocytopenia have an epidural?

A

No

173
Q

Why is a woman at increasing risk for poor placental perfusion with eclampsia?

A

blood volume severely reduced

174
Q

What should be monitored in a woman with eclampsia?

A

Ruptured membranes, signs of labor, or abruptio placentae

175
Q

How would you describe the seizures in eclampsia?

A

Tonic clonic, lasting for approximately 1 minute. breathing typically stops

176
Q

What happens during the post stage of the seizures in eclampsia?

A

Transient muscle movements

177
Q

What complications can occur in eclampsia?

A

Help syndrome and DIC

178
Q

What fetal heart rate monitor findings are associated with eclampsia?

A

Bradycardia, decelerations, and possibly tachycardia

179
Q

What diagnostic tests may be conducted for eclampsia?

A

Ultrasound and x-ray

180
Q

What is the common management approach for eclampsia?

A

Delivery of the baby

181
Q

What is HELLP Syndrome?

A

Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets

182
Q

What does HELLP Syndrome involve?

A

Liver

183
Q

What percentage of pregnancies does HELLP Syndrome complicate?

A

10%

184
Q

What are the symptoms of HELLP Syndrome?

A

RUQ abdominal pain, n/v, severe edema, elevated AST & ALT, jaundice, thrombocytopenia

185
Q

What are the therapeutic management options for HELLP Syndrome?

A

BP control, seizure prevention, corticosteroids, induction, IV therapy, blood replacement

186
Q

What percentage of HELLP patients had preeclampsia?

A

50%

187
Q

What should you avoid doing if a patient has HELLP syndrome?

A

Do not palpate the abdomen

188
Q

What is a potential risk if you palpate the abdomen of a patient with HELLP syndrome?

A

Liver rupture

189
Q

What will happen to the baby if the mother has HELLP syndrome?

A

Delivery will be necessary

190
Q

What happens to insulin release in early pregnancy with diabetes mellitus? What may occur?

A

Insulin release accelerates, hypoglycemia.

191
Q

What happens to fetal growth in late pregnancy?

A

Fetal growth accelerates, placental hormones increase and create resistance to insulin.

192
Q

What are the potential glucose abnormalities that can occur during pregnancy both early and late with diabetes mellitus?

A

Early: Hypoglycemia, Late: Hyperglycemia

193
Q

What symptoms might indicate hypoglycemia in pregnant women?

A

Nausea/Vomiting

194
Q

Why is maintaining normal maternal glucose levels essential during birth with diabetes mellitus?

A

To reduce neonatal hypoglycemia

195
Q

What happens to the need for additional insulin postpartum for diabetics?

A

It falls

196
Q

What is encouraged postpartum for women with diabetes?

A

Breastfeeding

197
Q

How does breastfeeding help women with types 1 and 2 diabetes mellitus?

A

It helps lower the amount of insulin needed

198
Q

What happens to the need for insulin in women with gestational diabetes mellitus after birth?

A

They usually need no insulin

199
Q

when does gestational diabetes typically go away?

A

after birth

200
Q

what are women with gestational diabetes at risk for later in life?

A

type II diabetes

201
Q

What is Type 1 diabetes?

A

Insulin deficient

202
Q

What is Type 2 diabetes?

A

Insulin resistant

203
Q

What is gestational diabetes (GDM)?

A

Glucose/insulin intolerance during pregnancy

204
Q

When does gestational diabetes start and end?

A

During pregnancy and ends after delivery

205
Q

Who is at an increased risk for developing gestational diabetes mellitus?

A

Minority groups, overweight, history of abnormal glucose tolerance, maternal age over 25, history of diabetes in a close relative, previous birth outcome often associated with GDM, GDM in previous pregnancy, history of prediabetes, history of PCOS.

206
Q

What is the glucose challenge test used for?

A

to see if a challenge test for gestational diabetes needs to additionally be performed.

207
Q

What is the recommended timing for the glucose challenge test?

A

24 to 28 weeks of pregnancy

208
Q

What is the glucose solution dose used in the glucose challenge test?

A

50 g. FSBS checked in 1 hour

209
Q

What is the cutoff value for an abnormal glucose challenge test result?

A

> 140 mg/dL. proceed to a glucose tolerance test

210
Q

What test is done if the glucose challenge test result is abnormal?

A

3-hour oral glucose tolerance test with 100 g glucose

211
Q

What are the fasting and postprandial glucose cutoff values for gestational diabetes diagnosis in the oral glucose tolerance test? how often are they?

A

Fasting: 95 mg/dL, 1-hour: 180 mg/dL, 2-hour: 155 mg/dL, 3-hour: 140 mg/dL. every hour

212
Q

Is fasting required for the glucose tolerance test?

A

yes

213
Q

How can gestational diabetes make moms feel?

A

Awful

214
Q

What is the recommended amount of exercise for individuals with gestational diabetes?

A

30 minutes/day, 5 days/week of moderate intensity exercise.

215
Q

What are the target blood glucose levels for fasting and postprandial measurements?

A

Fasting: <95, Postprandial: <140 @ 1 hour, <120 @ 2 hours.

216
Q

What are the two pharmacologic treatment options for gestational diabetes?

A

Insulin and metformin.

217
Q

Which medication is preferred for treating gestational diabetes and why?

A

Insulin because it does not cross the placenta.

218
Q

What fetal surveillance tests are commonly used for gestational diabetes?

A

BPP, NST, CST, kick counts.

219
Q

What dietary advice should be given to the patient who has diabetes?

A

Avoid simple sugars, have high protein and small snacks throughout the day.

220
Q

When will the patient come in for NST by?

A

32 weeks, sometimes twice a week for gestational diabetes.

221
Q

What will be done if blood glucose levels are higher than monitoring levels?

A

Medication will be used

222
Q

What are some maternal risks associated with obesity?

A

Obstructive sleep apnea, Gestational HTN, Preeclampsia, GDM, Preterm labor, Prolonged pregnancy, Induction of labor, Cesarean birth

223
Q

What are some fetal risks associated with obesity?

A

Perinatal death, Macrosomia, Congenital malformations, NICU, childhood obesity, shoulder dystocia, hypoglycemia.

224
Q

What is considered obese according to BMI?

A

BMI over 30.0

225
Q

What percentage of patients are obese?

A

1/3 (33%)

226
Q

t/f: pregnancy can exacerbate normal obesity comorbidities they may already have

A

TRUE

227
Q

What are some risks associated with obesity during pregnancy?

A

Increased risk for infection, c-section, and induction of labor

228
Q

What are some common types of anemia?

A

Iron-deficiency anemia, folic acid deficiency anemia (megaloblastic), sickle cell disease

229
Q

What is the most common type of anemia?

A

Iron-deficiency anemia

230
Q

What is the cause of sickle cell disease?

A

Genetic mutation

231
Q

What is one of the most common problems of pregnancy?

A

Iron deficiency anemia

232
Q

What can supplemental iron cause?

A

Constipation and black stools

233
Q

What can pregnant women take to avoid constipation caused by iron supplements?

A

Stool softener

234
Q

What are good sources of iron?

A

Meat, red meat, fish, green leafy vegetables

235
Q

What is the role of folic acid in the body?

A

Essential for cell duplication and red blood cell development

236
Q

Which types of food are good sources of folic acid?

A

Grains, beans, peanuts, green leafy vegetables

237
Q

What happens to folic acid when cooked?

A

Mostly destroyed

238
Q

What is the transmission rate of HIV without treatment from mother to baby?

A

25%

239
Q

What is the transmission rate of HIV with treatment from mother to baby?

A

1-2%

240
Q

Should all newborns be treated with antiretroviral therapy if their mother has HIV?

A

Yes

241
Q

Is breastfeeding recommended for infants born to HIV-positive mothers?

A

No

242
Q

What should be done for the infant immediately following birth if the mother has HIV?

A

Provide infant bath ASAP

243
Q

What are the risks of COVID-19 during pregnancy?

A

Severe disease, preterm birth, fetal demise, preeclampsia

244
Q

Is COVID-19 infection common in utero?

A

Rarely infected in utero

245
Q

What is the recommendation for a pregnant woman with HIV and a viral load above 1000 copies/mL?

A

C-section at 38 weeks

246
Q

Can mothers with low viral load with HIV have a vaginal birth?

A

Possibly

247
Q

How should newborns of HIV-positive mothers be treated?

A

With antiretroviral therapy

248
Q

What should HIV-positive mothers not do regarding feeding their baby?

A

Breastfeed

249
Q

What can decrease transmission of HIV from mother to baby?

A

Bathing the infant as soon as possible

250
Q

How can COVID-19 affect pregnancy?

A

It can cause preterm birth, labor, and preeclampsia

251
Q

Are newborns typically infected in utero or after birth with covid?

A

after birth, not usually infected in utero.

252
Q

What may high-risk newborns with COVID receive?

A

Monoclonal antibodies

253
Q

Is breastfeeding and rooming in still encouraged if the mother has covid?

A

Yes

254
Q

What is the leading cause of life-threatening perinatal infections in the US?

A

Group B streptococcus (GBS)

255
Q

When is the vag/rectal swab performed?

A

At 36-37 weeks gestation

256
Q

What is the first line treatment for GBS?

A

Penicillin

257
Q

What is the name of the CAUSE OF LIFE TREATENING PERINATAL INFECTIONS?

A

group b strep

Family Health (7 decks)

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