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prepjet > Lifespan > Flashcards

Lifespan Flashcards

1
Q

critical period

A

a limited period of time when exposure to certain environmental events is
necessary for development to occur

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2
Q

sensitive period

A

usually longer than a critical period; a period of time when it’s optimal (but not necessary) for certain environmental events to occur

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3
Q

which ecological system consists of elements in the environment that affect the child’s immediate environment and include the parents’ places of work, the extended family, and community health services

A

Exosystem

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4
Q

which ecological system is comprised of the social and cultural environment. It consists of cultural practices, economic conditions, and political ideologies

A

Macrosystem

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5
Q

What does the chronosystem consist of?

A

environmental events that occur over a person’s lifespan and impact the person’s development and circumstances

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6
Q

passive genotype environment correlation

A

occurs when children inherit genes from their parents that predispose them to have certain characteristics and are exposed
to environments by their parents that support the development of those characteristics

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7
Q

Evocative genotype-environment correlation

A

occurs when a child’s genetic make-up evokes certain kinds of reactions from parents and other people that reinforce the child’s genetic make-up

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8
Q

Active genotype-environment correlation

A

also referred to as niche-picking and occurs when children actively seek experiences that “fit” their genetic predispositions

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9
Q

Canalization

A

the tendency for genetic make-up to restrict developmental outcomes regardless of environmental circumstances

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10
Q

Dynamic Systems theory (DST)

A

regards both nature and nurture to be essential for development as well as how we control ourselves and interact with others, and how we think about, or represent, our experiences in our minds

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11
Q

Epigenetics

A

when environmental factors modify gene expression and influence phenotype without altering DNA

(diet, exercise, environmental pollutants, child abuse)

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12
Q

Prader-willi syndrome

A
  • most often caused by a deletion on the paternal chromosome 15
  • narrow forehead, almond-shaped eyes, short stature, and small hands and feet; hypotonia (poor muscle tone); global developmental delays; hyperphagia (chronic overeating) and obesity; hypogonadism; intellectual disabilities; and skin-picking and other self-injurious behaviors.
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13
Q

Angelman syndrome

A

usually due to a deletion on the maternal chromosome 15.
-microcephaly (small head and brain), a wide jaw and pointed chin, severe developmental delays, communication and intellectual disabilities, hyperactivity, a tendency to be unnaturally happy, ataxia, seizures, and hand-flapping.

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14
Q

Cri-du-chat syndrome

A

caused by a deletion on chromosome 5. Its symptoms range from mild to severe depending on the extent and location of the deletion and include a high-pitched (cat-like) cry, intellectual disability, developmental delays, microcephaly, low birth weight, weak muscle tone, and characteristic facial features (e.g., widely set eyes, low-set ears, round face).

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15
Q

Klinefelter syndrome

A

affects males and is due to the presence of two or more X chromosomes in addition to a single Y chromosome.

  • incomplete development of secondary sex characteristics, gynecomastia (breast enlargement), and a low testosterone level
  • disproportionately long arms and legs and are taller than normal and may have delays in language development, learning disabilities, and impaired problem-solving and social skills.
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16
Q

Turner Syndrome

A

affects females and occurs when all or part of an X chromosome is missing.

  • don’t develop secondary sex characteristics, are infertile, short stature, stubby fingers, drooping eyelids, a receding or small lower jaw, and a web-like neck.
  • may have learning disabilities, vision and hearing problems, skeletal abnormalities, heart defects, and kidney and urinary tract abnormalities.
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17
Q

Down syndrome (3 types)

A

1) Trisomy 21 (95% of cases) -extra 21 chromosome in all cells
2) Mosaic trisomy 21 (1% of all cases) - only some cells contain and extra 21 chromosome
3) translocation trisomy 21 (4% of all cases) - some cells have full or partial chromosome 21

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18
Q

when can teratogens be most harmful for a fetus?

A

from the 3rd to 8th week after conception

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19
Q

Which type of Down Syndrome can be due to an error during cell division or heredity?

A

translocation trisomy 21

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20
Q

by about ____or ____ months of age, infant’s visual acuity is similar to that of normal adults.

A

7 or 8

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21
Q

Depth perception relies on three types of depth information (include ages infants start using these)

A
  • kinetic (motion) (3-4 weeks)
  • binocular (stereoscopic) (2-3 months)
  • pictorial (static-monocular) (5-6 months)
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22
Q

presbyopia

A

By about 40 years of age

-a hardening of the lens of the eye, which makes it difficult to focus on nearby objects

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23
Q

infants have auditory (sound) localization, but this ability decreases when infants are between_______ months of age. It then re-emerges and becomes more deliberate and precise and improves to nearly adult levels by about ____ months of age

A

two and four; 12

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24
Q

presbycusis

A

decreased sensitivity to high-frequency sounds (with declining age)

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25
Q

Factors that increase the risk for SIDS include:

A

male gender, African American or Native American race, 6 months of age or younger (peak age 2 to 4 months), premature birth, low birth weight, poor prenatal care, maternal use of alcohol or drugs during pregnancy, pre- and postnatal exposure to cigarette smoke, and unsafe sleep practices (bed-sharing, soft or loose bedding, sleeping on stomach).

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26
Q

Factors that reduce the risk for SIDS include:

A

having the baby sleep on his/her back, breast feeding the baby, keeping the crib as bare as possible, avoiding overheating the baby, sharing a room (but not a bed) with the baby, and offering the baby a pacifier without a strap or string at nap times and bedtime.

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27
Q

at what age can kids start walking backwards, run, and throw a ball while standing

A

16-18 months

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28
Q

Volitional (versus reflexive) auditory localization emerges after _________ of age and then improves to nearly adult levels by about 12 months of age

A

4 months

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29
Q

language acquisition device (LAD)

A

an inborn linguistic processor that enables children to understand language and speak in rule-governed ways

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30
Q

Social interactionist theory

A

language acquisition depends on a combination of biological and social factors

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31
Q

parentese

A

involves speaking slowly and in a high-pitched voice, using a restricted vocabulary and simple repetitive sentences, placing exaggerated emphasis on key words, and focusing on present events

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32
Q

Pragmatics

A

refers to how language is used in a social context to communicate effectively with others

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33
Q

cooing begins at _____ and involves:

A

6-8 weeks; repeating vowel-like sounds

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34
Q

babbling begins at _____ months and involves:

A

3-6 months; utterance of single consonant- vowel combinations such as “ba” and “goo.”

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35
Q

Echolaliabegins at about ____ months of age and involves:

A

9; repeating speech sounds and words uttered by another person without understanding their meaning

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36
Q

children can understand words by about _____ months of age, but don’t say their first words till about ______

A

8 or 9; 10-15 months

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37
Q

Children begin to useholophrastic speechbetween ___ and ___ months of age.
- It involves:

A

12 and 15;
-using a single word to express an entire thought, with the meaning of the word depending on the context and the child’s tone of voice.

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38
Q

Children begin to usetelegraphic speechbetween ___ and ____ months of age.
- It consists of:

A

18 and 24
-two content words (nouns, verbs, and adjectives) and omits articles, conjunctions, and other function words.
Ex. “Want juice,” “doggie gone,” “good boy”

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39
Q

Overregularization

A

when a child misapplies rules for plurals and past tense.

Ex. a child might say “foots” instead of “feet” and “telled” instead of “told.”

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40
Q

Language brokering

A

the act of translating and interpreting within immigrant families by children and adolescents for their parents, other family members, and other adults

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41
Q

Instead of “I went there,” 30-month-old Mandy says, “I goed there.” This is an example of:

A

overregularization

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42
Q

Piaget’s constructivist theory

A

assumes that cognitive development relies on a combination of biological maturation and experience and describes it as an active process in which a child constructs knowledge by interacting with the environment

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43
Q

(Piaget’s constructivist theory):
When disequilibrium occurs, a child is motivated to restore equilibrium through adaptation, which consists of two processes:

A

1) assimilation: attempts to understand a new object or situation using an existing cognitive schema
2) accomodation: modifies an existing cognitive schema or creates a new schema to fit the new object or situation.

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44
Q

Piaget’s 4 stages of cognitive development

A
  1. Sensorimotor
  2. Preoperational
  3. Concrete operational
  4. Formal operational
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45
Q

Sensorimotor stage:

  • age range
  • cognitive development involves:
  • 6 substages
A
  • birth to 2yrs
  • learning about the environment through sensory input and motor actions
  • reflexive reactions
  • primary circular reactions
  • secondary circular reactions
  • coordination of secondary circular reactions
  • tertiary circular reactions
  • internalization of schemas
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46
Q

accomplishments of sensorimotor stage

A
  • object permanence

- representational thought

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47
Q

preoperational stage:

  • age range
  • cognitive development involves:
A

2-7 years

  • increased representational thought; children able to think about the past and future and about things that aren’t in the immediate environment.
  • children engage in more sophisticated forms of make-believe play and use one object to represent another, invent imaginary playmates, and participate in role-playing with other children.
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48
Q

Transductive reasoning

A

leads preoperational children to think that unrelated events that occur at the same time are causally related

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49
Q

two types of egocentrism

A

magical thinking

animism

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50
Q

Centration

A

the tendency to focus on one aspect of an object or situation to the exclusion of all other aspects

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51
Q

Irreversibility

A

the inability to understand that an action or process can be reversed.

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52
Q

concrete operational stage

  • age range
  • cognitive development involves:
A

7-12 years

  • children use logical operations (mental activities that allow them to think logically about concrete situations)
  • able to classify objects according to their physical characteristics; order items in terms of length or other quantitative dimension; perform number operations such as adding, subtracting, multiplying, and dividing; and conserve
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53
Q

Decentration

A

the ability to focus on more than one aspect of an object or situation at the same time

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54
Q

Reversibility

A

the ability to understand that actions and processes can be reversed

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55
Q

horizontal decalage

A

the gradual development of a skill within a single stage of development.

56
Q

formal operational stage

  • age range
  • cognitive development involves:
A

12 yrs -adulthood

-able to think abstractly and engage in hypothetical-deductive reasoning and propositional thought

57
Q

Hypothetical-deductive reasoning

A

the ability to derive and test alternative hypotheses to determine the solution to a problem

58
Q

Propositional thought

A

the ability to evaluate the logic of verbal statements (propositions) without having concrete examples.

59
Q

Vygotsky’s Sociocultural theory

A

views cognitive development as being influenced by social and cultural factors

60
Q

zone of proximal development

A

the gap between what a child can currently do independently and what he or she can do with assistance from an adult or more competent peer

61
Q

scaffolding

A

assistance provided to a child by another person

62
Q

reminiscence bump

A

The increased memory for events that occurred from mid-adolescence to the mid-20s (about 15-25)

63
Q

Declarative memory (aka ______ memory)

includes:

A

explicit
-includes episodic and semantic memory which consist of, respectively, memories for autobiographical events and memories for facts, concepts, and other kinds of knowledge

64
Q

Nondeclarative memory(aka _____ memory)

includes:

A

implicit
-procedural memory (memory for learned skills and actions), memories created by classical conditioning, and memories affected by priming (in which prior exposure to a stimulus increases subsequent recognition of that stimulus).

65
Q

The research has found that ______ memory declines considerably with increasing age, while _____ memory and _______ memory show very little age-related decline

A

episodic; semantic, nondeclarative

66
Q

synchrony effect

A

there are age-related differences with regard to the optimal time for successful performance on various visual and verbal memory tasks, problem-solving tasks, and other cognitive tasks, especially tasks that depend on the ability to inhibit a prepotent response

67
Q

As described by Piaget, __________ involves using current schemas to interpret new information.

A

assimilation

68
Q

Goodness-Of-Fit Model

A

behavioral and adjustment outcomes are best for children when parents’ caregiving behaviors match their child’s temperament.
(Thomas & Chess)

69
Q

what is the age group and basic virtue for Trust vs Mistrust?

A

Hope (birth-1yr)

70
Q

what is the age group and basic virtue for Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt

A

Will (1-3 yrs)

71
Q

what is the age group and basic virtue for Initiative vs guilt

A

Purpose (3-6 yrs)

72
Q

what is the age group and basic virtue for industry vs inferiority

A

Competence (6-12 yrs)

73
Q

what is the age group and basic virtue for identity vs role confusion

A

Fidelity (Adolescence)

74
Q

what is the age group and basic virtue for intimacy vs isolation

A

Love (Young adulthood)

75
Q

what is the age group and basic virtue for generativity vs stagnation

A

Care (Middle adulthood)

76
Q

what is the age group and basic virtue for integrity vs despair

A

Wisdom (Late adulthood)

77
Q

parents who are high in demandingness and responsiveness

A

Authoritative parents

78
Q

parents who are high in demandingness and low in responsiveness

A

Authoritarian parents

79
Q

parents who are low in demandingness and high in responsiveness

A

Permissive parents

80
Q

parents who are low in demandingness and responsiveness

A

Uninvolved parents (rejecting-neglecting)

81
Q

during adulthood, which personality traits change?

A
  • neuroticism decreases
  • extraversion and openness to experience remain relatively stable or decrease slightly
  • agreeableness and conscientiousness increase
82
Q

women tend to score higher on which personality traits?

A

neuroticism, agreeableness, warmth, and openness to feelings

83
Q

men tend to score higher on which personality traits?

A

assertiveness and openness to ideas

84
Q

infants can recognize themselves in a mirror by what age?

A

18 months

85
Q

Kohlberg’s cognitive developmental theory (three stages)

A
  1. gender identity
  2. gender stability
  3. gender constancy
86
Q

Bem’s gender schema theory says that people differ to the extent to which they rely on gender schemas they are either _______(gender is salient) or ________ (gender is less salient)

A

gender-schematic; gender-aschematic

87
Q

five components of Egan and Perry’s multidimensional model

A
  • membership knowledge
  • gender typicality
  • gender contentedness
  • felt pressure
  • intergroup bias
88
Q

Marcia’s 4 identity statuses:

A
  • identity diffusion
  • identity foreclosure
  • identity moratorium
  • identity achievement
89
Q

identity diffusion

A

no committed to an identity

90
Q

identity foreclosure

A

have a strong commitment to a particular identity as the result of accepting the values, goals, and preferences of their parents or other authority figure

91
Q

identity moratorium

A

occurs when individuals have experienced or are experiencing an identity crisis but have not yet committed themselves to an identity.

92
Q

identity achievement

A

occurs when individuals have experienced an identity crisis and, as a result, have a strong commitment to a specific identity

93
Q

Rothbart describes that temperament reactivity consists of two factors:

A
  • surgency/extraversion

- negative affectivity

94
Q

Behavioural Inhibition

A

the tendency to respond to unfamiliar people and situations with negative affect and withdrawal

95
Q

In early research on attachment, what did Harlow and Zimmerman conclude from their research on wire vs cloth mothers

A

that contact comfort is an important contributor to an infant’s attachment to his/her caregiver

96
Q

Bowlby’s ecological theory distinguishes between 4 stages of attachment that occur with the first 2 years of life:

A
  • pre-attachment
  • attachment-in-the-making
  • clear-cut attachment
  • formation of reciprocal relationships
97
Q

signs of attachment first become apparent at about ___ months of age and include 3 stages

A

6;

  • social referencing
  • separation anxiety
  • stranger anxiety
98
Q

secure attachment:

  • mothers are ____ and _____
  • how do babies respond when the mother returns from the strange situation?
A

sensitive and responsive;

-babies actively seek contact and may or may not cry when mom leaves

99
Q

Insecure/resistant (ambivalent) attachemnt:

  • mothers are _______
  • babies are ____ when mom leaves and _____ when mom returns and is ___ towards strangers
A
  • inconsistent

- distressed; angry or resists contact; fearful

100
Q

Insecure/avoidant attachment:

  • mothers are _____
  • babies are ____ when mom leaves and _____ when mom returns
  • towards strangers?
A
  • rejecting or intrusive and overstimulating
  • indifferent/show little stress; avoids mom
  • reacts similar towards strangers as their moms
101
Q

Disorganized/disoriented attachment:

  • mothers are _____
  • babies are ____ towards mom and ____ when mom leaves
  • when mom returns?
  • towards strangers?
A
  • neglecting/maltreatment
  • fearful, dazed and confused
  • may or may not be distressed
  • disorganized, confused behaviour
  • disorganized and confused behaviour
102
Q

dismissing adults normally have children with a(n) ______ attachment pattern

A

avoidant

103
Q

preoccupied adults often have children with a(n) _____ attachment pattern

A

resistant

104
Q

for babies ___ months of age and younger, separation from their mothers caused little distress. However, babies who were over ____ months of age at the time of hospitalization exhibited greater distress

A

7;7

105
Q

there is a _____ period where separation from the mother is experienced as trauma, and this does not commence until after the ________

A

critical; middle of the first year of life

106
Q

primary emotions

A

experience from birth to about 18 months –
-Shortly after birth they exhibit contentment, interest, and distress which expand at about six months to include joy, surprise, sadness, disgust, anger, and fear.

107
Q

Secondary (self-conscious) emotions are a result of the development of ______ at age ______ and include emotions such as:

A

self-awareness; 18-24 months

-envy, empathy, and embarrassment which expand at 30 to 36 months to include shame, guilt, and pride.

108
Q

Longitudinal and cross-sectional research has found that negative emotions _______ over time from the early 20s to the mid-60s, while positive emotions _________ during this period

A

decrease; remain stable or increase

109
Q

positivity effect

A

the tendency of older adults to prefer, attend to, and remember more positive information than younger adults do

110
Q

Socioemotional selectivity theory (SST)

A

one of the theories that’s used to explain the positivity effect. It predicts that older adults tend to be motivated more than younger adults by emotional gratification and, therefore, are more likely to focus on and recall positive information more than negative information

111
Q

recalling both guilt- and shame-eliciting events induced: _____________

A

the motivation to change the self, but the motivation was stronger for shame

112
Q
  • shame was more likely to induce the motivation to ___________, while guilt was more likely to induce the motivation to __________
A

distance oneself from the event; apologize for or repair the aftermath of the event.

113
Q

hostile vs instrumental aggression

A

The goal ofhostile aggressionis to harm or injure a victim, while the goal ofinstrumental aggressionis to achieve another goal such as gaining possession of a toy or other object or to humiliate another person in order to gain status in a group

114
Q

parents are most likely to use coercive discipline when:

3 points

A
  1. the family is experiencing a high level of stress
  2. the child has a difficult temperament
  3. the parents have certain personality characteristics.
115
Q

Crick and Dodge’s (1994)social information processing modeldescribes a person’s response to provocation as involving six steps and proposes that aggressive behavior in children is due to deficiencies and biases at each step:

A
  • encoding cues
  • interpretation of cues
  • clarification of goals
  • response search
  • response decision
  • behavioural enactment
116
Q

3 types of nonsocial play

A
  • unoccupied play (aimless movements and activities)
  • solitary play (plays alone)
  • onlooker play (watches others play)
117
Q

3 types of social play

A
  • parallel play (plays next to a child and shares toys but doesn’t interact)
  • associative play (interacts with other child without shared goals)
  • cooperative play (child interacts with other children to achieve a common goal)
118
Q

Selman described 5 overlapping levels of social perspective-taking

  • level 0: _______ age ____
  • level 1: ______ age ____
  • level 2: _____ age: ___
  • level 3: _____ age: ____
  • level 4: ____ age: ___
A

0: Momentary Playmates – “I Want It My Way?” -Age: 3-6
1: One-Way Assistance – “What’s In It For Me?” Age: 5-9
2: Two-Way, Fair Weather Cooperation – “By The Rules” Age: 7 to 12
3: Intimate, Mutually Shared Relationships – “Caring and Sharing” Age: 8 to 15
4: Mature Friendship – “Friends Through Thick and Thin” Age: 12 years of age and older

119
Q

rejected-aggressive children tend to be:

A

hyperactive and impulsive, are often in conflict with their peers, have trouble regulating their emotions, and misinterpret the intentions of others as hostile.

120
Q

Rejected-withdrawn childrentend to be

A

submissive and passive, have a high degree of social anxiety, and have negative expectations about how they’ll be treated by others.

121
Q

Neglected children

A

have low rates of interaction with peers, rarely engage in disruptive behaviors, and are usually well-adjusted

122
Q

Carstensen’s (1993)socioemotional selectivity theoryproposes that the motivation for friendships is related to _________

A

people’s perceptions about the amount of time left in life

123
Q

(socioemotional selectivity theory)

People who view time as unlimited are: _____ oriented and their primary motivation for friendships is ______

A

future-oriented; knowledge-seeking

124
Q

(socioemotional selectivity theory)

People who view time as limited are: _____ oriented and their primary motivation for friendships is ______

A

present-oriented; emotional closeness

125
Q

According to Piaget, moral development involves three stages:

  1. ______ (age: ____): limited understanding of moral behaviour
  2. ______ (age: ___): rules are made by authorities and can’t be changed
  3. ______ (age:___): rules are determined by agreement between people and can be changed by agreement
A
  • Premoral (birth-5yrs)
  • Heteronomous (begins at 5-6 yrs)
  • Autonomous (begins 10-11 yrs)
126
Q

Heinz dilemma

A

one of the best known dilemmas in which they asked subjects to decide if it’s better for a husband to steal a drug to save his wife’s life or to obey the law by not stealing the drug and, as a result, risk his wife’s life.

127
Q

A child in the second stage of Kohlberg’s first level of moral development will base his moral judgments of behavior on:

A

rewards that follow the behavior

128
Q

a child in the first stage of Kohlberg’s second level of moral development will base his moral judgments of behaviour on:

A

whether or not it is socially approved of or liked by others

129
Q

Gottman and Levenson concluded that two patterns are predictive of divorce:

A
  • emotionally volatile (attack-defend) pattern

- emotionally inexpressive (avoidant) pattern

130
Q

“diminished capacity to parent” can often be experienced for up to ___ years after a divorce

A

2

131
Q

after a divorce, custodial mothers may behave in ways that:

A

show less affection toward their children (especially sons), be less consistent and more authoritarian in their discipline

132
Q

after a divorce, noncustodial fathers may behave in ways that:

A

-more indulgent and permissive

133
Q

at what age to children experience the most negative outcomes of divorce?

A
  • preschool children (short-term)

- older children may have more long-term effects

134
Q

what is the sleeper effect?

A

Girls who were in preschool or elementary school when their parents divorced may experience few problems initially but become noncompliant and have low self-esteem and emotional problems as adolescents and become pregnant before marriage, marry young, and worry excessively about abandonment and betrayal in romantic relationship

135
Q

Walker’s cycle of violence involves what 3 phases?

A
  • tension building phase
  • acute battering incident
  • loving contrition phase
136
Q

Johnson described 4 types of IPV

A
  • intimate terrorism
  • violent resistance
  • mutual violent control
  • situational couple violence
137
Q

betrayal trauma theory

A

child sexual abuse perpetrated by a family member or other person who is close to the child is associated with worse mental health outcomes than is abuse perpetrated by a less familiar or unknown individual.

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