Lifespan Flashcards
critical period
a limited period of time when exposure to certain environmental events is
necessary for development to occur
sensitive period
usually longer than a critical period; a period of time when it’s optimal (but not necessary) for certain environmental events to occur
which ecological system consists of elements in the environment that affect the child’s immediate environment and include the parents’ places of work, the extended family, and community health services
Exosystem
which ecological system is comprised of the social and cultural environment. It consists of cultural practices, economic conditions, and political ideologies
Macrosystem
What does the chronosystem consist of?
environmental events that occur over a person’s lifespan and impact the person’s development and circumstances
passive genotype environment correlation
occurs when children inherit genes from their parents that predispose them to have certain characteristics and are exposed
to environments by their parents that support the development of those characteristics
Evocative genotype-environment correlation
occurs when a child’s genetic make-up evokes certain kinds of reactions from parents and other people that reinforce the child’s genetic make-up
Active genotype-environment correlation
also referred to as niche-picking and occurs when children actively seek experiences that “fit” their genetic predispositions
Canalization
the tendency for genetic make-up to restrict developmental outcomes regardless of environmental circumstances
Dynamic Systems theory (DST)
regards both nature and nurture to be essential for development as well as how we control ourselves and interact with others, and how we think about, or represent, our experiences in our minds
Epigenetics
when environmental factors modify gene expression and influence phenotype without altering DNA
(diet, exercise, environmental pollutants, child abuse)
Prader-willi syndrome
- most often caused by a deletion on the paternal chromosome 15
- narrow forehead, almond-shaped eyes, short stature, and small hands and feet; hypotonia (poor muscle tone); global developmental delays; hyperphagia (chronic overeating) and obesity; hypogonadism; intellectual disabilities; and skin-picking and other self-injurious behaviors.
Angelman syndrome
usually due to a deletion on the maternal chromosome 15.
-microcephaly (small head and brain), a wide jaw and pointed chin, severe developmental delays, communication and intellectual disabilities, hyperactivity, a tendency to be unnaturally happy, ataxia, seizures, and hand-flapping.
Cri-du-chat syndrome
caused by a deletion on chromosome 5. Its symptoms range from mild to severe depending on the extent and location of the deletion and include a high-pitched (cat-like) cry, intellectual disability, developmental delays, microcephaly, low birth weight, weak muscle tone, and characteristic facial features (e.g., widely set eyes, low-set ears, round face).
Klinefelter syndrome
affects males and is due to the presence of two or more X chromosomes in addition to a single Y chromosome.
- incomplete development of secondary sex characteristics, gynecomastia (breast enlargement), and a low testosterone level
- disproportionately long arms and legs and are taller than normal and may have delays in language development, learning disabilities, and impaired problem-solving and social skills.
Turner Syndrome
affects females and occurs when all or part of an X chromosome is missing.
- don’t develop secondary sex characteristics, are infertile, short stature, stubby fingers, drooping eyelids, a receding or small lower jaw, and a web-like neck.
- may have learning disabilities, vision and hearing problems, skeletal abnormalities, heart defects, and kidney and urinary tract abnormalities.
Down syndrome (3 types)
1) Trisomy 21 (95% of cases) -extra 21 chromosome in all cells
2) Mosaic trisomy 21 (1% of all cases) - only some cells contain and extra 21 chromosome
3) translocation trisomy 21 (4% of all cases) - some cells have full or partial chromosome 21
when can teratogens be most harmful for a fetus?
from the 3rd to 8th week after conception
Which type of Down Syndrome can be due to an error during cell division or heredity?
translocation trisomy 21
by about ____or ____ months of age, infant’s visual acuity is similar to that of normal adults.
7 or 8
Depth perception relies on three types of depth information (include ages infants start using these)
- kinetic (motion) (3-4 weeks)
- binocular (stereoscopic) (2-3 months)
- pictorial (static-monocular) (5-6 months)
presbyopia
By about 40 years of age
-a hardening of the lens of the eye, which makes it difficult to focus on nearby objects
infants have auditory (sound) localization, but this ability decreases when infants are between_______ months of age. It then re-emerges and becomes more deliberate and precise and improves to nearly adult levels by about ____ months of age
two and four; 12
presbycusis
decreased sensitivity to high-frequency sounds (with declining age)
Factors that increase the risk for SIDS include:
male gender, African American or Native American race, 6 months of age or younger (peak age 2 to 4 months), premature birth, low birth weight, poor prenatal care, maternal use of alcohol or drugs during pregnancy, pre- and postnatal exposure to cigarette smoke, and unsafe sleep practices (bed-sharing, soft or loose bedding, sleeping on stomach).
Factors that reduce the risk for SIDS include:
having the baby sleep on his/her back, breast feeding the baby, keeping the crib as bare as possible, avoiding overheating the baby, sharing a room (but not a bed) with the baby, and offering the baby a pacifier without a strap or string at nap times and bedtime.
at what age can kids start walking backwards, run, and throw a ball while standing
16-18 months
Volitional (versus reflexive) auditory localization emerges after _________ of age and then improves to nearly adult levels by about 12 months of age
4 months
language acquisition device (LAD)
an inborn linguistic processor that enables children to understand language and speak in rule-governed ways
Social interactionist theory
language acquisition depends on a combination of biological and social factors
parentese
involves speaking slowly and in a high-pitched voice, using a restricted vocabulary and simple repetitive sentences, placing exaggerated emphasis on key words, and focusing on present events
Pragmatics
refers to how language is used in a social context to communicate effectively with others
cooing begins at _____ and involves:
6-8 weeks; repeating vowel-like sounds
babbling begins at _____ months and involves:
3-6 months; utterance of single consonant- vowel combinations such as “ba” and “goo.”
Echolaliabegins at about ____ months of age and involves:
9; repeating speech sounds and words uttered by another person without understanding their meaning
children can understand words by about _____ months of age, but don’t say their first words till about ______
8 or 9; 10-15 months
Children begin to useholophrastic speechbetween ___ and ___ months of age.
- It involves:
12 and 15;
-using a single word to express an entire thought, with the meaning of the word depending on the context and the child’s tone of voice.
Children begin to usetelegraphic speechbetween ___ and ____ months of age.
- It consists of:
18 and 24
-two content words (nouns, verbs, and adjectives) and omits articles, conjunctions, and other function words.
Ex. “Want juice,” “doggie gone,” “good boy”
Overregularization
when a child misapplies rules for plurals and past tense.
Ex. a child might say “foots” instead of “feet” and “telled” instead of “told.”
Language brokering
the act of translating and interpreting within immigrant families by children and adolescents for their parents, other family members, and other adults
Instead of “I went there,” 30-month-old Mandy says, “I goed there.” This is an example of:
overregularization
Piaget’s constructivist theory
assumes that cognitive development relies on a combination of biological maturation and experience and describes it as an active process in which a child constructs knowledge by interacting with the environment
(Piaget’s constructivist theory):
When disequilibrium occurs, a child is motivated to restore equilibrium through adaptation, which consists of two processes:
1) assimilation: attempts to understand a new object or situation using an existing cognitive schema
2) accomodation: modifies an existing cognitive schema or creates a new schema to fit the new object or situation.
Piaget’s 4 stages of cognitive development
- Sensorimotor
- Preoperational
- Concrete operational
- Formal operational
Sensorimotor stage:
- age range
- cognitive development involves:
- 6 substages
- birth to 2yrs
- learning about the environment through sensory input and motor actions
- reflexive reactions
- primary circular reactions
- secondary circular reactions
- coordination of secondary circular reactions
- tertiary circular reactions
- internalization of schemas
accomplishments of sensorimotor stage
- object permanence
- representational thought
preoperational stage:
- age range
- cognitive development involves:
2-7 years
- increased representational thought; children able to think about the past and future and about things that aren’t in the immediate environment.
- children engage in more sophisticated forms of make-believe play and use one object to represent another, invent imaginary playmates, and participate in role-playing with other children.
Transductive reasoning
leads preoperational children to think that unrelated events that occur at the same time are causally related
two types of egocentrism
magical thinking
animism
Centration
the tendency to focus on one aspect of an object or situation to the exclusion of all other aspects
Irreversibility
the inability to understand that an action or process can be reversed.
concrete operational stage
- age range
- cognitive development involves:
7-12 years
- children use logical operations (mental activities that allow them to think logically about concrete situations)
- able to classify objects according to their physical characteristics; order items in terms of length or other quantitative dimension; perform number operations such as adding, subtracting, multiplying, and dividing; and conserve
Decentration
the ability to focus on more than one aspect of an object or situation at the same time
Reversibility
the ability to understand that actions and processes can be reversed
horizontal decalage
the gradual development of a skill within a single stage of development.
formal operational stage
- age range
- cognitive development involves:
12 yrs -adulthood
-able to think abstractly and engage in hypothetical-deductive reasoning and propositional thought
Hypothetical-deductive reasoning
the ability to derive and test alternative hypotheses to determine the solution to a problem
Propositional thought
the ability to evaluate the logic of verbal statements (propositions) without having concrete examples.
Vygotsky’s Sociocultural theory
views cognitive development as being influenced by social and cultural factors
zone of proximal development
the gap between what a child can currently do independently and what he or she can do with assistance from an adult or more competent peer
scaffolding
assistance provided to a child by another person
reminiscence bump
The increased memory for events that occurred from mid-adolescence to the mid-20s (about 15-25)
Declarative memory (aka ______ memory)
includes:
explicit
-includes episodic and semantic memory which consist of, respectively, memories for autobiographical events and memories for facts, concepts, and other kinds of knowledge
Nondeclarative memory(aka _____ memory)
includes:
implicit
-procedural memory (memory for learned skills and actions), memories created by classical conditioning, and memories affected by priming (in which prior exposure to a stimulus increases subsequent recognition of that stimulus).
The research has found that ______ memory declines considerably with increasing age, while _____ memory and _______ memory show very little age-related decline
episodic; semantic, nondeclarative
synchrony effect
there are age-related differences with regard to the optimal time for successful performance on various visual and verbal memory tasks, problem-solving tasks, and other cognitive tasks, especially tasks that depend on the ability to inhibit a prepotent response
As described by Piaget, __________ involves using current schemas to interpret new information.
assimilation
Goodness-Of-Fit Model
behavioral and adjustment outcomes are best for children when parents’ caregiving behaviors match their child’s temperament.
(Thomas & Chess)
what is the age group and basic virtue for Trust vs Mistrust?
Hope (birth-1yr)
what is the age group and basic virtue for Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt
Will (1-3 yrs)
what is the age group and basic virtue for Initiative vs guilt
Purpose (3-6 yrs)
what is the age group and basic virtue for industry vs inferiority
Competence (6-12 yrs)
what is the age group and basic virtue for identity vs role confusion
Fidelity (Adolescence)
what is the age group and basic virtue for intimacy vs isolation
Love (Young adulthood)
what is the age group and basic virtue for generativity vs stagnation
Care (Middle adulthood)
what is the age group and basic virtue for integrity vs despair
Wisdom (Late adulthood)
parents who are high in demandingness and responsiveness
Authoritative parents
parents who are high in demandingness and low in responsiveness
Authoritarian parents
parents who are low in demandingness and high in responsiveness
Permissive parents
parents who are low in demandingness and responsiveness
Uninvolved parents (rejecting-neglecting)
during adulthood, which personality traits change?
- neuroticism decreases
- extraversion and openness to experience remain relatively stable or decrease slightly
- agreeableness and conscientiousness increase
women tend to score higher on which personality traits?
neuroticism, agreeableness, warmth, and openness to feelings
men tend to score higher on which personality traits?
assertiveness and openness to ideas
infants can recognize themselves in a mirror by what age?
18 months
Kohlberg’s cognitive developmental theory (three stages)
- gender identity
- gender stability
- gender constancy
Bem’s gender schema theory says that people differ to the extent to which they rely on gender schemas they are either _______(gender is salient) or ________ (gender is less salient)
gender-schematic; gender-aschematic
five components of Egan and Perry’s multidimensional model
- membership knowledge
- gender typicality
- gender contentedness
- felt pressure
- intergroup bias
Marcia’s 4 identity statuses:
- identity diffusion
- identity foreclosure
- identity moratorium
- identity achievement
identity diffusion
no committed to an identity
identity foreclosure
have a strong commitment to a particular identity as the result of accepting the values, goals, and preferences of their parents or other authority figure
identity moratorium
occurs when individuals have experienced or are experiencing an identity crisis but have not yet committed themselves to an identity.
identity achievement
occurs when individuals have experienced an identity crisis and, as a result, have a strong commitment to a specific identity
Rothbart describes that temperament reactivity consists of two factors:
- surgency/extraversion
- negative affectivity
Behavioural Inhibition
the tendency to respond to unfamiliar people and situations with negative affect and withdrawal
In early research on attachment, what did Harlow and Zimmerman conclude from their research on wire vs cloth mothers
that contact comfort is an important contributor to an infant’s attachment to his/her caregiver
Bowlby’s ecological theory distinguishes between 4 stages of attachment that occur with the first 2 years of life:
- pre-attachment
- attachment-in-the-making
- clear-cut attachment
- formation of reciprocal relationships
signs of attachment first become apparent at about ___ months of age and include 3 stages
6;
- social referencing
- separation anxiety
- stranger anxiety
secure attachment:
- mothers are ____ and _____
- how do babies respond when the mother returns from the strange situation?
sensitive and responsive;
-babies actively seek contact and may or may not cry when mom leaves
Insecure/resistant (ambivalent) attachemnt:
- mothers are _______
- babies are ____ when mom leaves and _____ when mom returns and is ___ towards strangers
- inconsistent
- distressed; angry or resists contact; fearful
Insecure/avoidant attachment:
- mothers are _____
- babies are ____ when mom leaves and _____ when mom returns
- towards strangers?
- rejecting or intrusive and overstimulating
- indifferent/show little stress; avoids mom
- reacts similar towards strangers as their moms
Disorganized/disoriented attachment:
- mothers are _____
- babies are ____ towards mom and ____ when mom leaves
- when mom returns?
- towards strangers?
- neglecting/maltreatment
- fearful, dazed and confused
- may or may not be distressed
- disorganized, confused behaviour
- disorganized and confused behaviour
dismissing adults normally have children with a(n) ______ attachment pattern
avoidant
preoccupied adults often have children with a(n) _____ attachment pattern
resistant
for babies ___ months of age and younger, separation from their mothers caused little distress. However, babies who were over ____ months of age at the time of hospitalization exhibited greater distress
7;7
there is a _____ period where separation from the mother is experienced as trauma, and this does not commence until after the ________
critical; middle of the first year of life
primary emotions
experience from birth to about 18 months –
-Shortly after birth they exhibit contentment, interest, and distress which expand at about six months to include joy, surprise, sadness, disgust, anger, and fear.
Secondary (self-conscious) emotions are a result of the development of ______ at age ______ and include emotions such as:
self-awareness; 18-24 months
-envy, empathy, and embarrassment which expand at 30 to 36 months to include shame, guilt, and pride.
Longitudinal and cross-sectional research has found that negative emotions _______ over time from the early 20s to the mid-60s, while positive emotions _________ during this period
decrease; remain stable or increase
positivity effect
the tendency of older adults to prefer, attend to, and remember more positive information than younger adults do
Socioemotional selectivity theory (SST)
one of the theories that’s used to explain the positivity effect. It predicts that older adults tend to be motivated more than younger adults by emotional gratification and, therefore, are more likely to focus on and recall positive information more than negative information
recalling both guilt- and shame-eliciting events induced: _____________
the motivation to change the self, but the motivation was stronger for shame
- shame was more likely to induce the motivation to ___________, while guilt was more likely to induce the motivation to __________
distance oneself from the event; apologize for or repair the aftermath of the event.
hostile vs instrumental aggression
The goal ofhostile aggressionis to harm or injure a victim, while the goal ofinstrumental aggressionis to achieve another goal such as gaining possession of a toy or other object or to humiliate another person in order to gain status in a group
parents are most likely to use coercive discipline when:
3 points
- the family is experiencing a high level of stress
- the child has a difficult temperament
- the parents have certain personality characteristics.
Crick and Dodge’s (1994)social information processing modeldescribes a person’s response to provocation as involving six steps and proposes that aggressive behavior in children is due to deficiencies and biases at each step:
- encoding cues
- interpretation of cues
- clarification of goals
- response search
- response decision
- behavioural enactment
3 types of nonsocial play
- unoccupied play (aimless movements and activities)
- solitary play (plays alone)
- onlooker play (watches others play)
3 types of social play
- parallel play (plays next to a child and shares toys but doesn’t interact)
- associative play (interacts with other child without shared goals)
- cooperative play (child interacts with other children to achieve a common goal)
Selman described 5 overlapping levels of social perspective-taking
- level 0: _______ age ____
- level 1: ______ age ____
- level 2: _____ age: ___
- level 3: _____ age: ____
- level 4: ____ age: ___
0: Momentary Playmates – “I Want It My Way?” -Age: 3-6
1: One-Way Assistance – “What’s In It For Me?” Age: 5-9
2: Two-Way, Fair Weather Cooperation – “By The Rules” Age: 7 to 12
3: Intimate, Mutually Shared Relationships – “Caring and Sharing” Age: 8 to 15
4: Mature Friendship – “Friends Through Thick and Thin” Age: 12 years of age and older
rejected-aggressive children tend to be:
hyperactive and impulsive, are often in conflict with their peers, have trouble regulating their emotions, and misinterpret the intentions of others as hostile.
Rejected-withdrawn childrentend to be
submissive and passive, have a high degree of social anxiety, and have negative expectations about how they’ll be treated by others.
Neglected children
have low rates of interaction with peers, rarely engage in disruptive behaviors, and are usually well-adjusted
Carstensen’s (1993)socioemotional selectivity theoryproposes that the motivation for friendships is related to _________
people’s perceptions about the amount of time left in life
(socioemotional selectivity theory)
People who view time as unlimited are: _____ oriented and their primary motivation for friendships is ______
future-oriented; knowledge-seeking
(socioemotional selectivity theory)
People who view time as limited are: _____ oriented and their primary motivation for friendships is ______
present-oriented; emotional closeness
According to Piaget, moral development involves three stages:
- ______ (age: ____): limited understanding of moral behaviour
- ______ (age: ___): rules are made by authorities and can’t be changed
- ______ (age:___): rules are determined by agreement between people and can be changed by agreement
- Premoral (birth-5yrs)
- Heteronomous (begins at 5-6 yrs)
- Autonomous (begins 10-11 yrs)
Heinz dilemma
one of the best known dilemmas in which they asked subjects to decide if it’s better for a husband to steal a drug to save his wife’s life or to obey the law by not stealing the drug and, as a result, risk his wife’s life.
A child in the second stage of Kohlberg’s first level of moral development will base his moral judgments of behavior on:
rewards that follow the behavior
a child in the first stage of Kohlberg’s second level of moral development will base his moral judgments of behaviour on:
whether or not it is socially approved of or liked by others
Gottman and Levenson concluded that two patterns are predictive of divorce:
- emotionally volatile (attack-defend) pattern
- emotionally inexpressive (avoidant) pattern
“diminished capacity to parent” can often be experienced for up to ___ years after a divorce
2
after a divorce, custodial mothers may behave in ways that:
show less affection toward their children (especially sons), be less consistent and more authoritarian in their discipline
after a divorce, noncustodial fathers may behave in ways that:
-more indulgent and permissive
at what age to children experience the most negative outcomes of divorce?
- preschool children (short-term)
- older children may have more long-term effects
what is the sleeper effect?
Girls who were in preschool or elementary school when their parents divorced may experience few problems initially but become noncompliant and have low self-esteem and emotional problems as adolescents and become pregnant before marriage, marry young, and worry excessively about abandonment and betrayal in romantic relationship
Walker’s cycle of violence involves what 3 phases?
- tension building phase
- acute battering incident
- loving contrition phase
Johnson described 4 types of IPV
- intimate terrorism
- violent resistance
- mutual violent control
- situational couple violence
betrayal trauma theory
child sexual abuse perpetrated by a family member or other person who is close to the child is associated with worse mental health outcomes than is abuse perpetrated by a less familiar or unknown individual.
