LIF pain Flashcards

1
Q

Mrs Hamilton is a 76-year-old lady who presents at her local accident and emergency (A&E) with left iliac fossa (LIF) pain.
What is your differential diagnosis for LIF pain? As we have done for previous presentations, try to think anatomically of what structures might give you pain in the LIF. Try to prioritize into those conditions that are most likely (or most common), those that you must exclude, and the remainder.

A
Acute diverticulitis†
Constipation
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) Ischaemic colitis
Pseudomembranous colitis‡
Leaking abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) Locally perforated sigmoid carcinoma Urinary tract infection
Ureteric colic
Pyelonephritis
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) Shingles
Rectus sheath haematoma
Diabetic ketoacidosis

† A quick note on nomenclature. Diverticulosis refers to the presence of diverticula in the bowel (which may be asymptomatic). Diverticular disease is symptomatic diverticulosis, which can manifest as painless bleeding, altered bowel habit, or painful inflammation (acute diverticulitis).
‡ Pseudomembranous colitis is an acute inflammatory condition of the bowel that is usually, but not always, caused by Clostridium difficile.

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2
Q

If Mrs Hamilton had been pre-menopausal would there have been any other diagnoses to consider?

A

There are a number of gynaecological pathologies that can cause acute LIF pain. Some, such as ectopic pregnancy, mittelschmerz (mid-cycle pain), or haemorrhage into a functional ovarian cyst, can only occur in menstruating women. Others, such as pelvic inflammatory disease or torsion/rupture of an ovarian cyst, are far more likely to be seen in women younger than Mrs Hamilton, but can be kept in mind as rare differentials for someone of her age.

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3
Q

s there any pathology peculiar to males that may cause LIF pain?

A

Testicular torsion can cause referred pain to either the left or right iliac fossa and tends to occur in boys and young men. Thus, don’t forget to examine the testes.

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4
Q

What questions would you like to ask Mrs Hamilton about the pain in order to help narrow your differential diagnosis?

A

Site: Where is the pain, and has it always been there? Pain that is initially poorly localized, midline, and colicky but which then migrates to the LIF and becomes constant is highly suggestive of acute diverticulitis (akin to left-sided appendi- citis). Pain that migrates down the left flank and iliac fossa is more consistent with the migration of a ureteric stone.
Onset: Gradual or sudden? Sudden onset of pain is suggestive of perforation of a viscus, or of acute haemorrhage (into an ovarian cyst) or torsion (of an ovary or testis).
Character: Is the pain colicky or constant? Is it sharp or dull? Acute diverticulitis is often preceded by colicky midline pain. Ureteric calculi may result in colicky pain. Established diverticulitis, and the other differential diagnoses from our list would all produce constant abdominal pain. Sharp pain is most suggestive of haemorrhage, perforation, or torsion.
Radiation: Does the pain radiate to the groin (typical of ureteric pain)?
Alleviating factors: Does anything make the pain better? Discomfort due to IBS may be relieved by defecation. Peritonitic patients will be most comfortable when lying still.
Timing: How long has the pain been present? Have there been any previous similar episodes? Patients with IBS may have suffered from abdominal discom- fort for many months or years. Patients with acute diverticulitis often give a history of 2–3 days of LIF pain, and may have had a previous episode.
Exacerbating factors: Does anything make the pain worse? Patients with peri- tonitis (e.g. due to colonic perforation) are very sensitive to motion and may mention that the car journey to the hospital was painful (i.e. every time they hit a bump).
Severity: How severe is the pain (e.g. on a scale of 1–10)? Ureteric colic is excru- ciatingly painful, as is colonic perforation secondary to diverticulitis or a sigmoid carcinoma.

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5
Q

Mrs Hamilton’s pain started about 24 hours ago. She woke in the morning with ‘vague stomach cramps’. By mid-morning she was suffering from constant pain in her LIF. She took some paracetamol at home, but this did not relieve the pain, which she reports as dull but 7/10 intensity. The pain does not radiate.
Having characterized the pain, what other symptoms should you enquire about?

A

• Nausea and vomiting? Nausea and, to a lesser extent, vomiting, are seen with acute diverticulitis. They may also accompany pelvic inflammatory disease.
• Fever? Indicating an underlying infective or inflammatory disease such as acute diverticulitis.
• Change of bowel habit? A relatively non-specific symptom of most of the colonic diseases in our differential. IBS, diverticular disease, IBD, and colorec- tal carcinoma may all result in prolonged changes in bowel habit.
• Rectal bleeding? Overt rectal bleeding may be seen with acute diverticulitis, but is more likely to be seen in the context of bloody diarrhoea with ulcerative colitis, pseudomembranous colitis, ischaemic colitis, or colorectal carcinoma.
• Bloating? This is a characteristic feature of IBS.
• Weight loss? Although acute pain is an atypical presentation of colorectal car-
cinoma, a history of unintentional weight loss may raise your suspicions.
• Gynaecologicalsymptoms?Newvaginaldischargeand/orpainduringsex(dys- pareunia) are consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease. In women who are menstruating, ask about the timing of the last menstrual period, regularity of periods, painful periods, and whether there is any possibility that the woman could be pregnant.

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6
Q

Are there any particular medicines to look out for in the drug history?

A
The most important class of drugs to be aware of are steroids as these can dampen the inflammatory response, thus masking signs and symptoms. Bear in mind that patients taking steroids may be more ill than they appear by clinical examination.
Recent use of antibiotics (or proton-pump inhibitors) may raise your suspicions of pseudomembranous colitis (Clostridium difficile colitis) in patients presenting with LIF pain and diarrhoea.
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7
Q

On further questioning, Mrs Hamilton explains that she has felt nauseated since this morning, but has not actually vomited. She feels feverish. She has not had any diarrhoea or felt constipated, and has not passed any blood per rectum. There are no gynaecological symptoms to note. She says that she is otherwise fit and well, and that her weight has not changed recently. She takes no medications, does not smoke, and enjoys an occasional glass of wine.
Mrs Hamilton reports that she suffered from a similar pain last year, and that her GP had then advised her to drink lots of clear fluids and had prescribed her antibiotics and painkillers. However, Mrs Hamilton feels worse on this occasion, and thought that she should go to hospital instead of her GP.
What in particular will you look for when examining Mrs Hamilton?

A
  • How unwell is Mrs Hamilton? Check her basic observations: HR, BP, T, RR and Sats.
  • Does she appear to have generalized peritonitis? Is she lying very still, taking shallow breaths, and looking pale?
  • Is the patient writhing in pain, unable to keep still? This is typical for ureteric colic.
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8
Q

Describe Mrs.Hamilton’s abdominal exam

A
  • You should examine the abdomen for any focal tenderness. Typically, uncomplicated acute diverticulitis presents with local tenderness and/or guarding.
  • Does the patient have generalized peritonitis (tender, rigid abdomen with absent bowel sounds)? If so, you should suspect perforation of a colonic diver- ticulum, sigmoid carcinoma, or AAA.
  • Are there any masses? A mass may be palpable in the LIF in patients with acute diverticulitis, even in the absence of a local abscess. A sigmoid carcin- oma may also be palpable. A central, laterally pulsatile mass is an AAA until proven otherwise.
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9
Q

Describe Mrs.Hamilton’s rectal and vaginale examinations

A

Rectal examination
• It may be possible to detect a pelvic abscess in patients with acute diverticuli- tis, and may also be possible to palpate a rectal malignancy.
Vaginal examination
• This is not indicated in Mrs Hamilton, but would be required in women pre- senting with LIF pain and new vaginal discharge, as cervical motion tender- ness would lend weight to a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease.

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10
Q

Mrs Hamilton is febrile (38.2°C) and tachycardic (113 bpm regular), and looks flushed. Her blood pres- sure is 135/72 and her reopiratory rate is 21/min. She does not appear to have generalized peritonitis. Her LIF is tender to palpation, but the rest of the abdomen is soft and non-tender. There is no guarding or percussion tenderness. No masses are palpable, there is no organomegaly, and no palpable AAA. Bowel sounds are present. A digital rectal examination is unremarkable.
Which blood tests would you like to request?

A

There are very few blood tests that are actually informative or necessary given this history:
• Full blood count (FBC): the white cell count may be elevated in response to any inflammatory condition (e.g. acute diverticulitis, pseudomembranous colitis).
• Urea and electrolytes (U&Es): useful for establishing the baseline electrolyte status of the patient (remembering that a number of the diagnoses on our dif- ferential will require intravenous (IV) fluids and/or surgery).

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11
Q

Blood tests are performed. The white cell count (WCC) is 14.1 × 109 cells/L (neutrophils 11.2 × 109 cells/L), and U&Es are unremarkable.
In light of the history, examination, and first-line investigations, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

It is most likely that Mrs Hamilton has acute diverticulitis. She is an elderly patient with constant LIF pain, preceded by vague midline colicky pain, which is associated with nausea and fever. Examination confirms the LIF tenderness and shows no evidence of peritonism or an abscess. The leucocytosis confirms the underlying inflammatory response. Furthermore, there is a suggestion from the history that Mrs Hamilton has suffered from a previous episode of acute diver- ticulitis that was treated in the community.

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12
Q

Which imaging studies may be requested in the acute phase?

A

Mrs Hamilton appears clinically to have relatively mild diverticulitis, and there are some surgeons who would start empirical medical therapy without requesting any further imaging in the acute phase. However, a radiologically confirmed diagno- sis is useful for determining whether surgery is indicated (see later in this case), and is also invaluable in more severely unwell patients, in those refractory to treatment, or those with a different history:
• Abdominal computed tomography (CT) with contrast: this is the imaging modality of choice for diagnosing acute diverticulitis and planning future elective surgery. If there is a suspicion of an abscess complicating acute diver- ticulitis, or if the patient is seriously ill, clinically deteriorates, or the diagnosis is unclear, then abdominal CT is also invaluable.
• Erect chest radiograph: request this if there is any clinical suspicion of a per- forated viscus, looking for air under the diaphragm.
• Abdominal radiograph: useful for ruling out bowel obstruction if this is clinically suspected.

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13
Q

If Mrs Hamilton had been pre-menopausal are there any other imaging modalities that you would request to investigate her LIF pain?

A

Transabdominal ± transvaginal ultrasound are particularly useful investiga- tions in young female patients, where the differential diagnosis is broadened by gynaecological pathology.

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14
Q

Could Mrs Hamilton have had a colonoscopy or double-contrast barium enema to confirm the diagnosis in the acute phase of her illness?

A

Mrs Hamilton should not have had either investigation in the acute phase. Colon- oscopy and double contrast barium enema are contraindicated in the acute setting as there is a risk of perforating the acutely inflamed colon.

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15
Q

How should Mrs Hamilton be managed in the acute phase?

A

Mrs Hamilton should be treated as follows:
• Analgesia
• Bowel rest: by clear fluids only
• IV fluids: if Mrs Hamilton is unable to maintain a sufficient oral intake
• Antibiotics: to cover Gram-negative bacteria and anaerobes (e.g. co-amoxiclav plus metronidazole, but consult local guidelines)
• Monitor: if symptoms do not improve within 48–72 hours, further investi- gation is required to establish whether an abscess is present, or whether the initial diagnosis was flawed.

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16
Q

How will Mrs Hamilton be followed up? Is there any advice that she should be given?

A

Given that the diagnosis of acute diverticulitis has been made on clinical grounds, Mrs Hamilton will be offered a colonoscopy or double-contrast barium enema 2–6 weeks after resolution of this episode. This is to assess the extent of diver- ticulosis and the degree of stricturing secondary to inflammation, and can exclude other potential diagnoses such as colitis or carcinoma. CT colonography is being investigated as a potential alternative to conventional colonoscopy.
Mrs Hamilton should be advised to maintain a high intake of dietary fibre as this may reduce the chance of future episodes of diverticular disease.

17
Q

Should Mrs Hamilton be offered an elective colonic resection?

A

Following the successful conservative treatment of an episode of acute diver- ticulitis, about a third of patients will remain asymptomatic, a third will develop occasional abdominal cramps, and a third will suffer a further attack of acute diverticulitis. Further attacks of acute diverticulitis are less likely to respond to conservative treatment than the first episode. Various authorities have there- fore recommended that patients with two proven episodes of acute diverticulitis should be offered elective resection of the affected portion of bowel (if no emer- gency surgery has already been performed). Elective resection may be offered to patients <40 years of age following a single confirmed episode. Mrs Hamilton did not have proven diverticulitis last year, and thus is not yet a candidate for elective surgery. Mrs Hamilton was admitted to hospital and received IV fluids, analgesia, and antibiotics. She made an uneventful recovery and was discharged from hospital after 4 days. An outpatient colonoscopy 5 weeks later confirmed extensive diver- ticulosis of the sigmoid colon.
17

18
Q

Mr Arnold is a 67-year-old retired lecturer who presents to A&E with severe LIF pain. He reports that he has been in pain for the last 2 days, but that the pain suddenly increased in severity 1 hour ago. The pain is now sharp, does not radiate, and appears to be worsened by any degree of movement. Mr Arnold rates it as the worst pain he has ever experienced. For the past couple of days he has felt nauseated and feverish, but has not vomited. He has had slight diarrhoea, but has not noticed any blood in his stool. He reports no recent weight loss.
His past medical history is remarkable for two previous episodes of LIF pain. The first episode was 5 years ago and the second was 1 year ago. Mr Arnold reports that on both occasions the pain was very similar to that which he has had for the preceding 2 days – but was nowhere near as severe as the pain that he has experienced for the last hour. The episode 5 years ago was managed by his GP ‘with anti- biotics and paracetamol’ and the second episode resulted in a 3-day hospital admission but no surgery.
Mr Arnold has no other significant medical history and takes no regular medications. He is a smoker with a 15-pack-year history, and is teetotal. He has no allergies.
On examination, Mr Arnold looks pale and clammy. He lies still on the examination couch and is taking shallow breaths. He is reluctant to cough as this causes him considerable pain. His basic observations are: heart rate 107 bpm regular, blood pressure 92/53 mmHg, temperature 38.3°C, respiratory rate 19/min, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Examination reveals widespread guarding and absent bowel sounds.
What is the most likely diagnosis? How should Mr Arnold be managed?

A

Mr Arnold is peritonitic – he is shocked, lying still, displaying generalized guard- ing, and has absent bowel sounds. The sudden increase in pain and worsening of his symptoms suggests that Mr Arnold has probably perforated a viscus. More pre- cisely, the combination of his past medical history and pain over the previous 2 days suggests that he has probably developed perforated diverticulitis.
Appropriate management differs considerably from the uncomplicated acute diverticulitis of the previous case. Mr Arnold will need to be treated as follows:
• Fluid resuscitation
• Blood tests: request FBC, U&E, clotting, and cross-match
• Analgesia
• Antibiotics
• CT: provided that imaging is readily available and doesn’t delay transfer to theatre
• Emergency laparotomy
The advantage of pre-operative scanning is that a more precise diagnosis may be reached, hence the surgeon is better informed and the patient may be fully consent- ed (for example, for a stoma). Pre-operative knowledge aids the surgeon in planning incisions, choosing stoma sites etc.
There are two most common surgical options for the emergency treatment of per- forated diverticulitis. Most patients have a Hartmann’s procedure (see Chapter 21). In some patients it is safe to perform a primary anastomosis. To protect the primary anastomosis, the surgeon can also form a proximal loop (‘defunctioning’) ileostomy, which drains bowel contents before they pass via the primary anastomosis.

19
Q

Miss Sellers is a 31-year-old sales assistant who presents to her GP with LIF pain. She has suffered from the pain intermittently for several months, and rates it as of moderate intensity. In addition, she often also has vague cramping abdominal pains. The pain does not radiate anywhere. The pain often follows meals, and may be relieved by defecation. She also reports feeling bloated. She has not felt nauseated or feverish. Her bowel habits are rather irregular – sometimes she has diarrhoea while at other times she tends towards constipation. She has not noticed any rectal bleeding. Her weight has been stable. She reports no unusual vaginal discharge or itch, no intermenstrual bleeding, and no post-coital bleed- ing or pain. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago.
She suffers from asthma, for which she uses fluticasone and salbutamol inhalers. She is otherwise well. She also takes the combined oral contraceptive pill and has no allergies. She does not drink alcohol or smoke.
Examination is unremarkable. Miss Sellers is afebrile, normotensive, and has a pulse of 71 bpm regu- lar. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Bowel sounds are audible. The GP does not perform a rectal or gynaecological examination as he does not feel that they are indicated in this instance.
Given the history and examination findings, which diagnosis do you feel is most likely? What investigations would you like to request to confirm the diagnosis?

A

Miss Sellers has a history of chronic abdominal pain, with cramping, bloating, and altered bowel habit. She is otherwise well and has no signs on examination. It is most likely that Miss Sellers is suffering from IBS, but IBD should also be con- sidered (in an older patient diverticular disease could lead to a similar presentation). The LIF pain is not a universal feature of IBS, but is consistent with the diagnosis. The fact that Miss Sellers is otherwise well, has lost no weight, and has passed no blood per rectum, favours IBS over IBD.
Before diagnosing Miss Sellers with IBS it is necessary to exclude other causes of chronic abdominal pain and altered bowel habit. Thus, as a first line, it would be appropriate to request the following investigations in a patient of Miss Sellers’ age, explaining to her that you expect all the blood tests to be entirely normal:
• Bloods:
− FBC: any signs of infection, inflammation, or anaemia of chronic disease?
− Liver function tests (LFTs): albumin is used as a marker of
malabsorption.
− Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): any underlying chronic
inflammation?
− Anti-endomysial antibodies or tissue transglutaminase (TTG): a posi-
tive result has a sensitivity and specificity of over 90% for coeliac disease. (Antigliadin antibodies have been used to test for coeliac disease but are less sensitive and specific.) You must always check IgA levels too, because IgA deficiency can cause a false negative result.
• Stool culture: does she have a chronic infection such as Giardia, which may account for her abdominal pain and altered bowel habit?
• Flexible sigmoidoscopy: any structural disease of the sigmoid, such as IBD?

20
Q

Mrs Martinez is a 27-year-old housewife who presents to A&E with acute LIF pain. She woke at 5 a.m. that morning with moderate dull pain in the LIF. The pain did not radiate, and was not relieved by simple analgesia. The pain has been constant for the past 4 hours. Mrs Martinez has not felt nauseated, and has not experienced any change in bowel habit. She last opened her bowels last night. She does not feel feverish.
Her last menstrual period was 35 days ago, and her usual menstrual cycle is 3–4/28 (bleeding for 3–4 days of a 28-day cycle). On direct questioning, she mentions that she has passed blood per vagina this morning, but that this is lighter than her usual period. She does not use any form of contraception with her husband. She reports no other gynaecological symptoms.
She had a laparoscopic appendicectomy 2 years ago, but has no other significant past medical history. She takes no regular medications, and has no allergies. She does not smoke, and drinks about 10 units of wine each week.
Mrs Martinez’s observations are unremarkable, and she appears able to move with minimal discom- fort. Her abdomen is tender to palpation in the LIF, but is otherwise soft and non-tender. There is no per- cussion tenderness or guarding, and bowel sounds are present. A rectal examination is not performed.
What single investigation must you request? How would you proceed with the results of this test?

A

Mrs Martinez is a sexually active young woman who presents with lower abdomi- nal pain, vaginal bleeding, and amenorrhoea (her period is late). While it is possible that this morning’s vaginal bleed represents the start of her period, the fact that she has pain should ring alarm bells that this is an ectopic pregnancy. Thus you must request an urgent urine pregnancy test to exclude this diagnosis. The fact that Mrs Martinez shows no signs of shock and has stable observations is reassuring as there is no current evidence that she has developed a perforated ectopic (a surgical emergency).
Mrs Martinez’s pregnancy test was positive and thus she should be referred to the gynaecologists to confirm whether the pregnancy is intrauterine or ectopic.

21
Q

Miss Efran is a 29-year-old salsa instructor who presents to her GP with LIF pain. She has had the pain for 3 days, and says that she decided to seek help as the pain has gradually become more uncomfort- able for her. The pain is a dull ache that does not radiate. She can think of nothing that alleviates or exacerbates the pain. She has not taken any analgesia at home.
Miss Efran has vomited three times today. She says that she feels feverish, and that she has also been shaking/shivering. On direct questioning, she mentions that she has had some yellow vaginal discharge for the past 2 days, but has not passed any blood. She is sure that she cannot be pregnant because she is using the combined oral contraceptive pill with her new boyfriend. She reports no urin- ary symptoms and no change of bowel habit.
Miss Efran is otherwise fit and well. She has no significant past medical history, takes no regular medi- cations other than the contraceptive pill, and has no allergies. She smokes about 10 cigarettes each day and drinks about 20 units of alcohol each week.
On examination, Miss Efran appears flushed, and is febrile (38.5°C). Her heart rate is 103 bpm regu- lar and her blood pressure is 123/71 mmHg. Her respiratory rate is 15/min. Her abdomen is soft, but tender to palpation in the LIF. There is no percussion tenderness. No organomegaly is detected. A digital rectal examination is not performed, but Miss Efran is consented for a bimanual pelvic examination that reveals marked adnexal tenderness.
A urinary pregnancy test is negative, and urinalysis reveals nil leucocytes, nitrites, protein, or blood.
In light of history and examination, what is the most likely diagnosis? How would you manage this?

A

It is most likely that Miss Efran has acute pelvic inflammatory disease – she is a sexually active woman (with a new partner), who has acute lower abdominal pain, new vaginal discharge, vomiting, and fever, combined with adnexal tenderness on vaginal examination. Her pregnancy test is negative.
The most likely causes of acute pelvic inflammatory disease are sexually trans- mitted bacterial infections such as Chlamydia or gonorrhoea. Appropriate further management of Miss Efran may involve the following steps:
• Vaginal, urethral, and endocervical swabs: to identify the pathogen
• Empirical antibiotics: to cover likely pathogens until culprit identified
• Referral to a genitourinary medicine (GUM) clinic
• Avoid sexual intercourse while being treated
• Partner notification: sexual partners from the preceding 6 months should be traced and offered testing in a GUM clinic; if they test positive they too should avoid sexual intercourse until they have completed their treatment
• Consider alternative contraception: condoms offer protection against sexu- ally transmitted infections

22
Q

How common is diverticulosis? Are there any known risk factors?

A

It is difficult to assess the true prevalence of diverticulosis as most patients are asymptomatic, but some data are available from autopsy series. Many patients are diagnosed incidentally. The prevalence is age dependent, such that about 5% of 40-year-olds, about 30% of 60-year-olds, and about 65% of 85-year-olds have colonic diverticula (mostly asymptomatic). There is a huge difference in prevalence between ‘developed’ and ‘developing’ countries, such that diverticulosis appears to be rare in ‘developing’ countries. Much of this difference in prevalence is said to be due to variation in fibre intake – diets in the ‘developed’ world are relatively fibre-depleted and this leads to high intraluminal colonic pressures that favour the development of pulsion diverticula.

23
Q

What is the natural history of diverticulosis?

A

There are a number of possible outcomes for patients with diverticulosis:
• 70% remain asymptomatic
• 15–25% develop acute diverticulitis, 75% of which is ‘uncomplicated’ (as in Mrs Hamilton’s initial pres- entation) and 25% of which is ‘complicated’ (as in Mr Arnold’s initial presentation)
• 5–10% develop rectal bleeding (see Chapter 21)

24
Q

What are the main complications of diverticulitis

A

The main complications of diverticulitis are as follows:
• Perforation
– May be localized/contained/walled-off as an abscess
– May lead to generalized peritonitis
• Abscess formation
• Fistulation into adjacent structures (e.g. bladder)
• Chronic inflammatory strictures resulting in bowel obstruction
• Haemorrhage

25
Q

Colovesical fistulas are the most common type of fistula caused by diverticulitis. Are they more common in
men or women? Why?

A

A fistula can form between adjacent areas of inflammation. Colovesical fistulas are more common in men. This is thought to be because the uterus sits between the sigmoid and the bladder, forming a barrier to colovesical fistula formation.

26
Q

Acute diverticulitis is sometimes nicknamed ‘left-sided appendicitis’. Both are typically preceded by colicky midline abdominal pain. Would you expect this initial pain to be peri-umbilical for both presentations?

A

This question relates to the embryological anatomy of the gut. Remember that the initial midline colicky pain caused by inflammation of the gut is mediated by autonomic innervation. This pain is approximately referred to the epigastrium, umbilicus, or hypogastrium according to whether the inflamed structure is within the embryological foregut, midgut, or hindgut. As the appendix is a midgut structure you would expect the initial colicky pain to be peri-umbilical, whereas acute diverticulitis would cause referred colicky pain in the suprapubic area. In practice, it may be difficult to differentiate these sites from the patient’s account of the history of the pain. In addition, diverticulitis may yield right-sided pain if the sigmoid loop is long and extends to the right iliac fossa.

27
Q

What are the risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?

A
The main risk factors include:
• Previous ectopic pregnancy
• Pelvic inflammatory disease
• Tubular procedures, e.g. sterilization (some women may still become pregnant)
• Endometriosis
• Pelvic surgery
• In vitro fertilization (IVF)
• Intrauterine contraceptive device
The underlying mechanism for several of these risk factors is an alteration to the normal anatomy of the Fal- lopian tubes. Inflammation or surgical manipulation of the tubes can lead to strictures or kinks that disrupt the normal passage of the egg.
28
Q

What is Hinchey’s classification?

A

This classification represents an assessment of peritoneal contamination at the time of surgery in the context of acute diverticulitis. As such, it may be used as a guide to the suitability for primary anastomosis following resection. Four classes are recognized:
I Pericolic or mesenteric abscess II Walled-off pelvic abscess
III Generalized purulent peritonitis (~5% mortality)
IV Generalized faecal peritonitis (~35% mortality)